Intermediate value theorem and extreme value theorem - on non-closed intervals











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Suppose f is a continuous function on [a, infinity) and lim f(x) = y [this is the limit as x goes to infinity] and f(a) < y. Prove that



1) for any f(a) < b < y there is x0 ∈ [a, ∞) such that f(x0) = b.
2) f attains its minimum on [a, infinity)



I have partial proofs - i need help completing/ understanding them



For part 1): Choose M>y. Then there is c in [a, infinity) such that f(x)>M for any x>c (however I do not understand why this holds). After this it says to use intermediate value theorem to prove the result which also I don't know how to apply



For part 2): There exists M>0 such that f(x) > f(a) for any x>=M (which theorem or property does this follow from?). Then by extreme value theorem, on [a,M], f attains its minimum y0 at some point c in [a,M]. Then y0 is also the minimum of f on [a, infinity) (Why is this true??)










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    up vote
    0
    down vote

    favorite












    Suppose f is a continuous function on [a, infinity) and lim f(x) = y [this is the limit as x goes to infinity] and f(a) < y. Prove that



    1) for any f(a) < b < y there is x0 ∈ [a, ∞) such that f(x0) = b.
    2) f attains its minimum on [a, infinity)



    I have partial proofs - i need help completing/ understanding them



    For part 1): Choose M>y. Then there is c in [a, infinity) such that f(x)>M for any x>c (however I do not understand why this holds). After this it says to use intermediate value theorem to prove the result which also I don't know how to apply



    For part 2): There exists M>0 such that f(x) > f(a) for any x>=M (which theorem or property does this follow from?). Then by extreme value theorem, on [a,M], f attains its minimum y0 at some point c in [a,M]. Then y0 is also the minimum of f on [a, infinity) (Why is this true??)










    share|cite|improve this question


























      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite











      Suppose f is a continuous function on [a, infinity) and lim f(x) = y [this is the limit as x goes to infinity] and f(a) < y. Prove that



      1) for any f(a) < b < y there is x0 ∈ [a, ∞) such that f(x0) = b.
      2) f attains its minimum on [a, infinity)



      I have partial proofs - i need help completing/ understanding them



      For part 1): Choose M>y. Then there is c in [a, infinity) such that f(x)>M for any x>c (however I do not understand why this holds). After this it says to use intermediate value theorem to prove the result which also I don't know how to apply



      For part 2): There exists M>0 such that f(x) > f(a) for any x>=M (which theorem or property does this follow from?). Then by extreme value theorem, on [a,M], f attains its minimum y0 at some point c in [a,M]. Then y0 is also the minimum of f on [a, infinity) (Why is this true??)










      share|cite|improve this question















      Suppose f is a continuous function on [a, infinity) and lim f(x) = y [this is the limit as x goes to infinity] and f(a) < y. Prove that



      1) for any f(a) < b < y there is x0 ∈ [a, ∞) such that f(x0) = b.
      2) f attains its minimum on [a, infinity)



      I have partial proofs - i need help completing/ understanding them



      For part 1): Choose M>y. Then there is c in [a, infinity) such that f(x)>M for any x>c (however I do not understand why this holds). After this it says to use intermediate value theorem to prove the result which also I don't know how to apply



      For part 2): There exists M>0 such that f(x) > f(a) for any x>=M (which theorem or property does this follow from?). Then by extreme value theorem, on [a,M], f attains its minimum y0 at some point c in [a,M]. Then y0 is also the minimum of f on [a, infinity) (Why is this true??)







      real-analysis






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      edited Nov 17 at 15:57

























      asked Nov 16 at 20:12









      Aishwarya Deore

      313




      313






















          2 Answers
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          1) Is false as the function $-dfrac{1}{x}$ shows on $[1, infty)$ (here $a=1$ and $y = 0$).



          2) Consider an interval $[a, b]$ such that for $x > b$ we have $f(x) > y - varepsilon$ where $varepsilon$ is $dfrac{y-f(a)}{2}.$ On $[a, b]$ $f$ attains a minimum which is easily seen to be global. Q.E.D.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • I doubt statement 1) is false. The questions asks to prove that there is an x0 such that f(x0) = y. And this must be done using intermediate value theorem (says in the hint)
            – Aishwarya Deore
            Nov 16 at 23:45










          • For the proof to 2) - we only know that lim f(x) = y ....how do we get f(x) > y- epsilon
            – Aishwarya Deore
            Nov 16 at 23:47










          • I have edited the question - there was a typo in part 1
            – Aishwarya Deore
            Nov 17 at 15:55


















          up vote
          0
          down vote













          I don´t get your attempts.



          Here is one way though.



          1) Take $epsilon=frac{y - b}{2}$. Since $y=lim f(x)$ at infinity, there is some $A > a$ such that $x>A$ implies $|f(x)-y|<epsilon$, i.e., $b<frac{y + b}{2}=y-epsilon < f(x) < y + epsilon$. Apply the intermediate value theorem on $[a, x]$.



          2) By the previous item, there is some $t$ such that $f(t)=frac{y + f(a)}{2}$. For $x$ sufficiently large, we have $frac{y + f(a)}{2} < f(x)$. Since $f$ is continuous and $[a, t]$ compact, $f$ attains a minimum on $[a, t]$.






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • How do we know that "...there is some A>a and some x>A such that b<f(x)<y" Is this some property or theorem we are using here? My attempts were the hints given for the question and we are supposed to complete the proof by giving reasons as to why each statement in the hint holds
            – Aishwarya Deore
            Nov 17 at 21:40










          • Thank you! I understand part 1 at least. But can you tell me why the statement in the hint hold? i.e. "There exists M>0 such that f(x) > f(a) for any x>=M" Which theorem or property is this
            – Aishwarya Deore
            Nov 18 at 15:31










          • As $x$ approaches infinity, $f(x)$ becomes close to $y$ and sooner or later, it gets through the midpoint of $[f(a), y]$ and never looks back.
            – lzralbu
            Nov 18 at 16:22










          • What about this statment - "Then there is c in [a, infinity) such that f(x)>M for any x>c" - why does this hold?
            – Aishwarya Deore
            Nov 19 at 19:38










          • also - for part 2 - you say that - "f attains a minimum on [a,t]" but how does this translate to f attaining minimum on [a,infinity)
            – Aishwarya Deore
            Nov 19 at 20:47











          Your Answer





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          2 Answers
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          2 Answers
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          active

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          active

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          up vote
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          down vote













          1) Is false as the function $-dfrac{1}{x}$ shows on $[1, infty)$ (here $a=1$ and $y = 0$).



          2) Consider an interval $[a, b]$ such that for $x > b$ we have $f(x) > y - varepsilon$ where $varepsilon$ is $dfrac{y-f(a)}{2}.$ On $[a, b]$ $f$ attains a minimum which is easily seen to be global. Q.E.D.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • I doubt statement 1) is false. The questions asks to prove that there is an x0 such that f(x0) = y. And this must be done using intermediate value theorem (says in the hint)
            – Aishwarya Deore
            Nov 16 at 23:45










          • For the proof to 2) - we only know that lim f(x) = y ....how do we get f(x) > y- epsilon
            – Aishwarya Deore
            Nov 16 at 23:47










          • I have edited the question - there was a typo in part 1
            – Aishwarya Deore
            Nov 17 at 15:55















          up vote
          0
          down vote













          1) Is false as the function $-dfrac{1}{x}$ shows on $[1, infty)$ (here $a=1$ and $y = 0$).



          2) Consider an interval $[a, b]$ such that for $x > b$ we have $f(x) > y - varepsilon$ where $varepsilon$ is $dfrac{y-f(a)}{2}.$ On $[a, b]$ $f$ attains a minimum which is easily seen to be global. Q.E.D.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • I doubt statement 1) is false. The questions asks to prove that there is an x0 such that f(x0) = y. And this must be done using intermediate value theorem (says in the hint)
            – Aishwarya Deore
            Nov 16 at 23:45










          • For the proof to 2) - we only know that lim f(x) = y ....how do we get f(x) > y- epsilon
            – Aishwarya Deore
            Nov 16 at 23:47










          • I have edited the question - there was a typo in part 1
            – Aishwarya Deore
            Nov 17 at 15:55













          up vote
          0
          down vote










          up vote
          0
          down vote









          1) Is false as the function $-dfrac{1}{x}$ shows on $[1, infty)$ (here $a=1$ and $y = 0$).



          2) Consider an interval $[a, b]$ such that for $x > b$ we have $f(x) > y - varepsilon$ where $varepsilon$ is $dfrac{y-f(a)}{2}.$ On $[a, b]$ $f$ attains a minimum which is easily seen to be global. Q.E.D.






          share|cite|improve this answer












          1) Is false as the function $-dfrac{1}{x}$ shows on $[1, infty)$ (here $a=1$ and $y = 0$).



          2) Consider an interval $[a, b]$ such that for $x > b$ we have $f(x) > y - varepsilon$ where $varepsilon$ is $dfrac{y-f(a)}{2}.$ On $[a, b]$ $f$ attains a minimum which is easily seen to be global. Q.E.D.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Nov 16 at 23:22









          Will M.

          2,074213




          2,074213












          • I doubt statement 1) is false. The questions asks to prove that there is an x0 such that f(x0) = y. And this must be done using intermediate value theorem (says in the hint)
            – Aishwarya Deore
            Nov 16 at 23:45










          • For the proof to 2) - we only know that lim f(x) = y ....how do we get f(x) > y- epsilon
            – Aishwarya Deore
            Nov 16 at 23:47










          • I have edited the question - there was a typo in part 1
            – Aishwarya Deore
            Nov 17 at 15:55


















          • I doubt statement 1) is false. The questions asks to prove that there is an x0 such that f(x0) = y. And this must be done using intermediate value theorem (says in the hint)
            – Aishwarya Deore
            Nov 16 at 23:45










          • For the proof to 2) - we only know that lim f(x) = y ....how do we get f(x) > y- epsilon
            – Aishwarya Deore
            Nov 16 at 23:47










          • I have edited the question - there was a typo in part 1
            – Aishwarya Deore
            Nov 17 at 15:55
















          I doubt statement 1) is false. The questions asks to prove that there is an x0 such that f(x0) = y. And this must be done using intermediate value theorem (says in the hint)
          – Aishwarya Deore
          Nov 16 at 23:45




          I doubt statement 1) is false. The questions asks to prove that there is an x0 such that f(x0) = y. And this must be done using intermediate value theorem (says in the hint)
          – Aishwarya Deore
          Nov 16 at 23:45












          For the proof to 2) - we only know that lim f(x) = y ....how do we get f(x) > y- epsilon
          – Aishwarya Deore
          Nov 16 at 23:47




          For the proof to 2) - we only know that lim f(x) = y ....how do we get f(x) > y- epsilon
          – Aishwarya Deore
          Nov 16 at 23:47












          I have edited the question - there was a typo in part 1
          – Aishwarya Deore
          Nov 17 at 15:55




          I have edited the question - there was a typo in part 1
          – Aishwarya Deore
          Nov 17 at 15:55










          up vote
          0
          down vote













          I don´t get your attempts.



          Here is one way though.



          1) Take $epsilon=frac{y - b}{2}$. Since $y=lim f(x)$ at infinity, there is some $A > a$ such that $x>A$ implies $|f(x)-y|<epsilon$, i.e., $b<frac{y + b}{2}=y-epsilon < f(x) < y + epsilon$. Apply the intermediate value theorem on $[a, x]$.



          2) By the previous item, there is some $t$ such that $f(t)=frac{y + f(a)}{2}$. For $x$ sufficiently large, we have $frac{y + f(a)}{2} < f(x)$. Since $f$ is continuous and $[a, t]$ compact, $f$ attains a minimum on $[a, t]$.






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • How do we know that "...there is some A>a and some x>A such that b<f(x)<y" Is this some property or theorem we are using here? My attempts were the hints given for the question and we are supposed to complete the proof by giving reasons as to why each statement in the hint holds
            – Aishwarya Deore
            Nov 17 at 21:40










          • Thank you! I understand part 1 at least. But can you tell me why the statement in the hint hold? i.e. "There exists M>0 such that f(x) > f(a) for any x>=M" Which theorem or property is this
            – Aishwarya Deore
            Nov 18 at 15:31










          • As $x$ approaches infinity, $f(x)$ becomes close to $y$ and sooner or later, it gets through the midpoint of $[f(a), y]$ and never looks back.
            – lzralbu
            Nov 18 at 16:22










          • What about this statment - "Then there is c in [a, infinity) such that f(x)>M for any x>c" - why does this hold?
            – Aishwarya Deore
            Nov 19 at 19:38










          • also - for part 2 - you say that - "f attains a minimum on [a,t]" but how does this translate to f attaining minimum on [a,infinity)
            – Aishwarya Deore
            Nov 19 at 20:47















          up vote
          0
          down vote













          I don´t get your attempts.



          Here is one way though.



          1) Take $epsilon=frac{y - b}{2}$. Since $y=lim f(x)$ at infinity, there is some $A > a$ such that $x>A$ implies $|f(x)-y|<epsilon$, i.e., $b<frac{y + b}{2}=y-epsilon < f(x) < y + epsilon$. Apply the intermediate value theorem on $[a, x]$.



          2) By the previous item, there is some $t$ such that $f(t)=frac{y + f(a)}{2}$. For $x$ sufficiently large, we have $frac{y + f(a)}{2} < f(x)$. Since $f$ is continuous and $[a, t]$ compact, $f$ attains a minimum on $[a, t]$.






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • How do we know that "...there is some A>a and some x>A such that b<f(x)<y" Is this some property or theorem we are using here? My attempts were the hints given for the question and we are supposed to complete the proof by giving reasons as to why each statement in the hint holds
            – Aishwarya Deore
            Nov 17 at 21:40










          • Thank you! I understand part 1 at least. But can you tell me why the statement in the hint hold? i.e. "There exists M>0 such that f(x) > f(a) for any x>=M" Which theorem or property is this
            – Aishwarya Deore
            Nov 18 at 15:31










          • As $x$ approaches infinity, $f(x)$ becomes close to $y$ and sooner or later, it gets through the midpoint of $[f(a), y]$ and never looks back.
            – lzralbu
            Nov 18 at 16:22










          • What about this statment - "Then there is c in [a, infinity) such that f(x)>M for any x>c" - why does this hold?
            – Aishwarya Deore
            Nov 19 at 19:38










          • also - for part 2 - you say that - "f attains a minimum on [a,t]" but how does this translate to f attaining minimum on [a,infinity)
            – Aishwarya Deore
            Nov 19 at 20:47













          up vote
          0
          down vote










          up vote
          0
          down vote









          I don´t get your attempts.



          Here is one way though.



          1) Take $epsilon=frac{y - b}{2}$. Since $y=lim f(x)$ at infinity, there is some $A > a$ such that $x>A$ implies $|f(x)-y|<epsilon$, i.e., $b<frac{y + b}{2}=y-epsilon < f(x) < y + epsilon$. Apply the intermediate value theorem on $[a, x]$.



          2) By the previous item, there is some $t$ such that $f(t)=frac{y + f(a)}{2}$. For $x$ sufficiently large, we have $frac{y + f(a)}{2} < f(x)$. Since $f$ is continuous and $[a, t]$ compact, $f$ attains a minimum on $[a, t]$.






          share|cite|improve this answer














          I don´t get your attempts.



          Here is one way though.



          1) Take $epsilon=frac{y - b}{2}$. Since $y=lim f(x)$ at infinity, there is some $A > a$ such that $x>A$ implies $|f(x)-y|<epsilon$, i.e., $b<frac{y + b}{2}=y-epsilon < f(x) < y + epsilon$. Apply the intermediate value theorem on $[a, x]$.



          2) By the previous item, there is some $t$ such that $f(t)=frac{y + f(a)}{2}$. For $x$ sufficiently large, we have $frac{y + f(a)}{2} < f(x)$. Since $f$ is continuous and $[a, t]$ compact, $f$ attains a minimum on $[a, t]$.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Nov 18 at 2:23

























          answered Nov 17 at 18:53









          lzralbu

          560412




          560412












          • How do we know that "...there is some A>a and some x>A such that b<f(x)<y" Is this some property or theorem we are using here? My attempts were the hints given for the question and we are supposed to complete the proof by giving reasons as to why each statement in the hint holds
            – Aishwarya Deore
            Nov 17 at 21:40










          • Thank you! I understand part 1 at least. But can you tell me why the statement in the hint hold? i.e. "There exists M>0 such that f(x) > f(a) for any x>=M" Which theorem or property is this
            – Aishwarya Deore
            Nov 18 at 15:31










          • As $x$ approaches infinity, $f(x)$ becomes close to $y$ and sooner or later, it gets through the midpoint of $[f(a), y]$ and never looks back.
            – lzralbu
            Nov 18 at 16:22










          • What about this statment - "Then there is c in [a, infinity) such that f(x)>M for any x>c" - why does this hold?
            – Aishwarya Deore
            Nov 19 at 19:38










          • also - for part 2 - you say that - "f attains a minimum on [a,t]" but how does this translate to f attaining minimum on [a,infinity)
            – Aishwarya Deore
            Nov 19 at 20:47


















          • How do we know that "...there is some A>a and some x>A such that b<f(x)<y" Is this some property or theorem we are using here? My attempts were the hints given for the question and we are supposed to complete the proof by giving reasons as to why each statement in the hint holds
            – Aishwarya Deore
            Nov 17 at 21:40










          • Thank you! I understand part 1 at least. But can you tell me why the statement in the hint hold? i.e. "There exists M>0 such that f(x) > f(a) for any x>=M" Which theorem or property is this
            – Aishwarya Deore
            Nov 18 at 15:31










          • As $x$ approaches infinity, $f(x)$ becomes close to $y$ and sooner or later, it gets through the midpoint of $[f(a), y]$ and never looks back.
            – lzralbu
            Nov 18 at 16:22










          • What about this statment - "Then there is c in [a, infinity) such that f(x)>M for any x>c" - why does this hold?
            – Aishwarya Deore
            Nov 19 at 19:38










          • also - for part 2 - you say that - "f attains a minimum on [a,t]" but how does this translate to f attaining minimum on [a,infinity)
            – Aishwarya Deore
            Nov 19 at 20:47
















          How do we know that "...there is some A>a and some x>A such that b<f(x)<y" Is this some property or theorem we are using here? My attempts were the hints given for the question and we are supposed to complete the proof by giving reasons as to why each statement in the hint holds
          – Aishwarya Deore
          Nov 17 at 21:40




          How do we know that "...there is some A>a and some x>A such that b<f(x)<y" Is this some property or theorem we are using here? My attempts were the hints given for the question and we are supposed to complete the proof by giving reasons as to why each statement in the hint holds
          – Aishwarya Deore
          Nov 17 at 21:40












          Thank you! I understand part 1 at least. But can you tell me why the statement in the hint hold? i.e. "There exists M>0 such that f(x) > f(a) for any x>=M" Which theorem or property is this
          – Aishwarya Deore
          Nov 18 at 15:31




          Thank you! I understand part 1 at least. But can you tell me why the statement in the hint hold? i.e. "There exists M>0 such that f(x) > f(a) for any x>=M" Which theorem or property is this
          – Aishwarya Deore
          Nov 18 at 15:31












          As $x$ approaches infinity, $f(x)$ becomes close to $y$ and sooner or later, it gets through the midpoint of $[f(a), y]$ and never looks back.
          – lzralbu
          Nov 18 at 16:22




          As $x$ approaches infinity, $f(x)$ becomes close to $y$ and sooner or later, it gets through the midpoint of $[f(a), y]$ and never looks back.
          – lzralbu
          Nov 18 at 16:22












          What about this statment - "Then there is c in [a, infinity) such that f(x)>M for any x>c" - why does this hold?
          – Aishwarya Deore
          Nov 19 at 19:38




          What about this statment - "Then there is c in [a, infinity) such that f(x)>M for any x>c" - why does this hold?
          – Aishwarya Deore
          Nov 19 at 19:38












          also - for part 2 - you say that - "f attains a minimum on [a,t]" but how does this translate to f attaining minimum on [a,infinity)
          – Aishwarya Deore
          Nov 19 at 20:47




          also - for part 2 - you say that - "f attains a minimum on [a,t]" but how does this translate to f attaining minimum on [a,infinity)
          – Aishwarya Deore
          Nov 19 at 20:47


















           

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