Show that $lambda^{d}(E_{d})=frac{pi^{frac{d}{2}}}{Gamma(frac{d}{2}+1)}$ and determine behavior for $d to...
$begingroup$
Let $d in mathbb N$ and $E_{d}:={x in mathbb R^{d}:|x|leq 1}$
Prove that $$ lambda^{d}(E_{d})=frac{pi^{frac{d}{2}}}{Gamma(frac{d}{2}+1)} $$
and determine $lambda^{d}(E_{d})$ as $d to infty$
I struggle with d-dimensional volume, so I will try the behavior for $d to infty$
Note:
$$frac{pi^{frac{d}{2}}}{Gamma(frac{d}{2}+1)}=frac{pi^{frac{d}{2}}}{int_{0}^{infty}x^{frac{d}{2}}e^{-x}dx}$$
Looking particularly at:
$int_{0}^{infty}x^{frac{d}{2}}e^{-x}dx$ it looks like partial integration, but I wouldn't as $d in mathbb N$. I would use substitution, namely $y = x^{frac{d}{2}}Rightarrow frac{2}{d}dy=x^{frac{d}{2}-1}dx$. But this is a dead end, as $x$ does not disappear
Any ideas?
real-analysis integration measure-theory lebesgue-integral
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $d in mathbb N$ and $E_{d}:={x in mathbb R^{d}:|x|leq 1}$
Prove that $$ lambda^{d}(E_{d})=frac{pi^{frac{d}{2}}}{Gamma(frac{d}{2}+1)} $$
and determine $lambda^{d}(E_{d})$ as $d to infty$
I struggle with d-dimensional volume, so I will try the behavior for $d to infty$
Note:
$$frac{pi^{frac{d}{2}}}{Gamma(frac{d}{2}+1)}=frac{pi^{frac{d}{2}}}{int_{0}^{infty}x^{frac{d}{2}}e^{-x}dx}$$
Looking particularly at:
$int_{0}^{infty}x^{frac{d}{2}}e^{-x}dx$ it looks like partial integration, but I wouldn't as $d in mathbb N$. I would use substitution, namely $y = x^{frac{d}{2}}Rightarrow frac{2}{d}dy=x^{frac{d}{2}-1}dx$. But this is a dead end, as $x$ does not disappear
Any ideas?
real-analysis integration measure-theory lebesgue-integral
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Are you looking for the derivation of the volume or the limiting behavior?
$endgroup$
– user1337
Jan 8 at 12:12
$begingroup$
Rather the deviation as $d$ gets larger
$endgroup$
– MinaThuma
Jan 8 at 12:21
$begingroup$
I think you are looking for volume of n-ball.
$endgroup$
– StubbornAtom
Jan 8 at 12:59
$begingroup$
Also see math.stackexchange.com/q/67039/321264.
$endgroup$
– StubbornAtom
Jan 8 at 13:05
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $d in mathbb N$ and $E_{d}:={x in mathbb R^{d}:|x|leq 1}$
Prove that $$ lambda^{d}(E_{d})=frac{pi^{frac{d}{2}}}{Gamma(frac{d}{2}+1)} $$
and determine $lambda^{d}(E_{d})$ as $d to infty$
I struggle with d-dimensional volume, so I will try the behavior for $d to infty$
Note:
$$frac{pi^{frac{d}{2}}}{Gamma(frac{d}{2}+1)}=frac{pi^{frac{d}{2}}}{int_{0}^{infty}x^{frac{d}{2}}e^{-x}dx}$$
Looking particularly at:
$int_{0}^{infty}x^{frac{d}{2}}e^{-x}dx$ it looks like partial integration, but I wouldn't as $d in mathbb N$. I would use substitution, namely $y = x^{frac{d}{2}}Rightarrow frac{2}{d}dy=x^{frac{d}{2}-1}dx$. But this is a dead end, as $x$ does not disappear
Any ideas?
real-analysis integration measure-theory lebesgue-integral
$endgroup$
Let $d in mathbb N$ and $E_{d}:={x in mathbb R^{d}:|x|leq 1}$
Prove that $$ lambda^{d}(E_{d})=frac{pi^{frac{d}{2}}}{Gamma(frac{d}{2}+1)} $$
and determine $lambda^{d}(E_{d})$ as $d to infty$
I struggle with d-dimensional volume, so I will try the behavior for $d to infty$
Note:
$$frac{pi^{frac{d}{2}}}{Gamma(frac{d}{2}+1)}=frac{pi^{frac{d}{2}}}{int_{0}^{infty}x^{frac{d}{2}}e^{-x}dx}$$
Looking particularly at:
$int_{0}^{infty}x^{frac{d}{2}}e^{-x}dx$ it looks like partial integration, but I wouldn't as $d in mathbb N$. I would use substitution, namely $y = x^{frac{d}{2}}Rightarrow frac{2}{d}dy=x^{frac{d}{2}-1}dx$. But this is a dead end, as $x$ does not disappear
Any ideas?
real-analysis integration measure-theory lebesgue-integral
real-analysis integration measure-theory lebesgue-integral
edited Jan 8 at 12:22
Larry
2,54531131
2,54531131
asked Jan 8 at 12:03
MinaThumaMinaThuma
2709
2709
$begingroup$
Are you looking for the derivation of the volume or the limiting behavior?
$endgroup$
– user1337
Jan 8 at 12:12
$begingroup$
Rather the deviation as $d$ gets larger
$endgroup$
– MinaThuma
Jan 8 at 12:21
$begingroup$
I think you are looking for volume of n-ball.
$endgroup$
– StubbornAtom
Jan 8 at 12:59
$begingroup$
Also see math.stackexchange.com/q/67039/321264.
$endgroup$
– StubbornAtom
Jan 8 at 13:05
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Are you looking for the derivation of the volume or the limiting behavior?
$endgroup$
– user1337
Jan 8 at 12:12
$begingroup$
Rather the deviation as $d$ gets larger
$endgroup$
– MinaThuma
Jan 8 at 12:21
$begingroup$
I think you are looking for volume of n-ball.
$endgroup$
– StubbornAtom
Jan 8 at 12:59
$begingroup$
Also see math.stackexchange.com/q/67039/321264.
$endgroup$
– StubbornAtom
Jan 8 at 13:05
$begingroup$
Are you looking for the derivation of the volume or the limiting behavior?
$endgroup$
– user1337
Jan 8 at 12:12
$begingroup$
Are you looking for the derivation of the volume or the limiting behavior?
$endgroup$
– user1337
Jan 8 at 12:12
$begingroup$
Rather the deviation as $d$ gets larger
$endgroup$
– MinaThuma
Jan 8 at 12:21
$begingroup$
Rather the deviation as $d$ gets larger
$endgroup$
– MinaThuma
Jan 8 at 12:21
$begingroup$
I think you are looking for volume of n-ball.
$endgroup$
– StubbornAtom
Jan 8 at 12:59
$begingroup$
I think you are looking for volume of n-ball.
$endgroup$
– StubbornAtom
Jan 8 at 12:59
$begingroup$
Also see math.stackexchange.com/q/67039/321264.
$endgroup$
– StubbornAtom
Jan 8 at 13:05
$begingroup$
Also see math.stackexchange.com/q/67039/321264.
$endgroup$
– StubbornAtom
Jan 8 at 13:05
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Let $t=d/2$. Observe that
$$0 leq frac{pi^t}{Gamma(t+1)} leq frac{pi^{lfloor t rfloor+1}}{Gamma(lfloor t rfloor+1)} $$
and recall that the series $$sum_{n=0}^infty frac{pi^n}{n!} $$ converges (to $e^pi$). Convergent series have their terms approaching zero, and the squeeze law shows that the same is true for $lambda^d (E_d)$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Hint for the derivation: compute $int_{mathbb{R}^d}{e^{-|x|^2}}$ by separating integrals and by polar coordinates.
For the asymptotic behavior: use the functional equation of $Gamma$ to have a non-integral formula for $d=2p$ and $d=2p-1$. Then let $p$ go to infinity in both formulas and use Stirling’s theorem.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Why would I use the integral $int_{mathbb R^{d}}e^{-|x|^2}$ ?
$endgroup$
– MinaThuma
Jan 8 at 16:42
$begingroup$
It is the shortest way I know to derive the “volume” of the unit sphere thus the volume of the unit ball.
$endgroup$
– Mindlack
Jan 8 at 17:13
add a comment |
Your Answer
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2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Let $t=d/2$. Observe that
$$0 leq frac{pi^t}{Gamma(t+1)} leq frac{pi^{lfloor t rfloor+1}}{Gamma(lfloor t rfloor+1)} $$
and recall that the series $$sum_{n=0}^infty frac{pi^n}{n!} $$ converges (to $e^pi$). Convergent series have their terms approaching zero, and the squeeze law shows that the same is true for $lambda^d (E_d)$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $t=d/2$. Observe that
$$0 leq frac{pi^t}{Gamma(t+1)} leq frac{pi^{lfloor t rfloor+1}}{Gamma(lfloor t rfloor+1)} $$
and recall that the series $$sum_{n=0}^infty frac{pi^n}{n!} $$ converges (to $e^pi$). Convergent series have their terms approaching zero, and the squeeze law shows that the same is true for $lambda^d (E_d)$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $t=d/2$. Observe that
$$0 leq frac{pi^t}{Gamma(t+1)} leq frac{pi^{lfloor t rfloor+1}}{Gamma(lfloor t rfloor+1)} $$
and recall that the series $$sum_{n=0}^infty frac{pi^n}{n!} $$ converges (to $e^pi$). Convergent series have their terms approaching zero, and the squeeze law shows that the same is true for $lambda^d (E_d)$.
$endgroup$
Let $t=d/2$. Observe that
$$0 leq frac{pi^t}{Gamma(t+1)} leq frac{pi^{lfloor t rfloor+1}}{Gamma(lfloor t rfloor+1)} $$
and recall that the series $$sum_{n=0}^infty frac{pi^n}{n!} $$ converges (to $e^pi$). Convergent series have their terms approaching zero, and the squeeze law shows that the same is true for $lambda^d (E_d)$.
answered Jan 8 at 12:30
user1337user1337
16.9k43594
16.9k43594
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Hint for the derivation: compute $int_{mathbb{R}^d}{e^{-|x|^2}}$ by separating integrals and by polar coordinates.
For the asymptotic behavior: use the functional equation of $Gamma$ to have a non-integral formula for $d=2p$ and $d=2p-1$. Then let $p$ go to infinity in both formulas and use Stirling’s theorem.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Why would I use the integral $int_{mathbb R^{d}}e^{-|x|^2}$ ?
$endgroup$
– MinaThuma
Jan 8 at 16:42
$begingroup$
It is the shortest way I know to derive the “volume” of the unit sphere thus the volume of the unit ball.
$endgroup$
– Mindlack
Jan 8 at 17:13
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Hint for the derivation: compute $int_{mathbb{R}^d}{e^{-|x|^2}}$ by separating integrals and by polar coordinates.
For the asymptotic behavior: use the functional equation of $Gamma$ to have a non-integral formula for $d=2p$ and $d=2p-1$. Then let $p$ go to infinity in both formulas and use Stirling’s theorem.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Why would I use the integral $int_{mathbb R^{d}}e^{-|x|^2}$ ?
$endgroup$
– MinaThuma
Jan 8 at 16:42
$begingroup$
It is the shortest way I know to derive the “volume” of the unit sphere thus the volume of the unit ball.
$endgroup$
– Mindlack
Jan 8 at 17:13
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Hint for the derivation: compute $int_{mathbb{R}^d}{e^{-|x|^2}}$ by separating integrals and by polar coordinates.
For the asymptotic behavior: use the functional equation of $Gamma$ to have a non-integral formula for $d=2p$ and $d=2p-1$. Then let $p$ go to infinity in both formulas and use Stirling’s theorem.
$endgroup$
Hint for the derivation: compute $int_{mathbb{R}^d}{e^{-|x|^2}}$ by separating integrals and by polar coordinates.
For the asymptotic behavior: use the functional equation of $Gamma$ to have a non-integral formula for $d=2p$ and $d=2p-1$. Then let $p$ go to infinity in both formulas and use Stirling’s theorem.
edited Jan 8 at 12:34
answered Jan 8 at 12:23
MindlackMindlack
4,910211
4,910211
$begingroup$
Why would I use the integral $int_{mathbb R^{d}}e^{-|x|^2}$ ?
$endgroup$
– MinaThuma
Jan 8 at 16:42
$begingroup$
It is the shortest way I know to derive the “volume” of the unit sphere thus the volume of the unit ball.
$endgroup$
– Mindlack
Jan 8 at 17:13
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Why would I use the integral $int_{mathbb R^{d}}e^{-|x|^2}$ ?
$endgroup$
– MinaThuma
Jan 8 at 16:42
$begingroup$
It is the shortest way I know to derive the “volume” of the unit sphere thus the volume of the unit ball.
$endgroup$
– Mindlack
Jan 8 at 17:13
$begingroup$
Why would I use the integral $int_{mathbb R^{d}}e^{-|x|^2}$ ?
$endgroup$
– MinaThuma
Jan 8 at 16:42
$begingroup$
Why would I use the integral $int_{mathbb R^{d}}e^{-|x|^2}$ ?
$endgroup$
– MinaThuma
Jan 8 at 16:42
$begingroup$
It is the shortest way I know to derive the “volume” of the unit sphere thus the volume of the unit ball.
$endgroup$
– Mindlack
Jan 8 at 17:13
$begingroup$
It is the shortest way I know to derive the “volume” of the unit sphere thus the volume of the unit ball.
$endgroup$
– Mindlack
Jan 8 at 17:13
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
Are you looking for the derivation of the volume or the limiting behavior?
$endgroup$
– user1337
Jan 8 at 12:12
$begingroup$
Rather the deviation as $d$ gets larger
$endgroup$
– MinaThuma
Jan 8 at 12:21
$begingroup$
I think you are looking for volume of n-ball.
$endgroup$
– StubbornAtom
Jan 8 at 12:59
$begingroup$
Also see math.stackexchange.com/q/67039/321264.
$endgroup$
– StubbornAtom
Jan 8 at 13:05