Find a linear map knowing its image and kernel












0












$begingroup$


So..I have to find any linear map $f: mathbb{R}^4 rightarrow mathbb{R}^3$ that has a kernel and and an image with the following basis:



$$ker(f)=operatorname{Span}{(-1,0,0,1),(1,3,2,0)}.$$



$$operatorname{Img}(f)=operatorname{Span}{(1,1,1),(0,-2,1)}.$$



I have been trying to find similar problems to this one, but all of them so far have been for linear maps on $mathbb{R}^3 rightarrow mathbb{R}^3$, which are solved with Gauss. I have also seen that this can be solved by the extension of basis, but I can't wrap my mind around it as we have not touched that at all. What should be the method for solving this?










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$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    what do you mean with find? I am currently tempted to solve it with universal properties (the solution can't be unique, hence I could at least try some canonicality). i.e. if you want a specific solution, you would have to trace that all back
    $endgroup$
    – Enkidu
    Jan 8 at 10:38












  • $begingroup$
    Sorry, I edited it now, I meant find as in finding any linear map that meets those criteria, so a universal solution would work too, as would do any specific solution.
    $endgroup$
    – Lightsong
    Jan 8 at 10:51










  • $begingroup$
    ok, then I will write something down: however, be aware that i won't be a universal solution, but its construction will involve universal properties, which makes it in a way "canonical"
    $endgroup$
    – Enkidu
    Jan 8 at 10:52
















0












$begingroup$


So..I have to find any linear map $f: mathbb{R}^4 rightarrow mathbb{R}^3$ that has a kernel and and an image with the following basis:



$$ker(f)=operatorname{Span}{(-1,0,0,1),(1,3,2,0)}.$$



$$operatorname{Img}(f)=operatorname{Span}{(1,1,1),(0,-2,1)}.$$



I have been trying to find similar problems to this one, but all of them so far have been for linear maps on $mathbb{R}^3 rightarrow mathbb{R}^3$, which are solved with Gauss. I have also seen that this can be solved by the extension of basis, but I can't wrap my mind around it as we have not touched that at all. What should be the method for solving this?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    what do you mean with find? I am currently tempted to solve it with universal properties (the solution can't be unique, hence I could at least try some canonicality). i.e. if you want a specific solution, you would have to trace that all back
    $endgroup$
    – Enkidu
    Jan 8 at 10:38












  • $begingroup$
    Sorry, I edited it now, I meant find as in finding any linear map that meets those criteria, so a universal solution would work too, as would do any specific solution.
    $endgroup$
    – Lightsong
    Jan 8 at 10:51










  • $begingroup$
    ok, then I will write something down: however, be aware that i won't be a universal solution, but its construction will involve universal properties, which makes it in a way "canonical"
    $endgroup$
    – Enkidu
    Jan 8 at 10:52














0












0








0





$begingroup$


So..I have to find any linear map $f: mathbb{R}^4 rightarrow mathbb{R}^3$ that has a kernel and and an image with the following basis:



$$ker(f)=operatorname{Span}{(-1,0,0,1),(1,3,2,0)}.$$



$$operatorname{Img}(f)=operatorname{Span}{(1,1,1),(0,-2,1)}.$$



I have been trying to find similar problems to this one, but all of them so far have been for linear maps on $mathbb{R}^3 rightarrow mathbb{R}^3$, which are solved with Gauss. I have also seen that this can be solved by the extension of basis, but I can't wrap my mind around it as we have not touched that at all. What should be the method for solving this?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




So..I have to find any linear map $f: mathbb{R}^4 rightarrow mathbb{R}^3$ that has a kernel and and an image with the following basis:



$$ker(f)=operatorname{Span}{(-1,0,0,1),(1,3,2,0)}.$$



$$operatorname{Img}(f)=operatorname{Span}{(1,1,1),(0,-2,1)}.$$



I have been trying to find similar problems to this one, but all of them so far have been for linear maps on $mathbb{R}^3 rightarrow mathbb{R}^3$, which are solved with Gauss. I have also seen that this can be solved by the extension of basis, but I can't wrap my mind around it as we have not touched that at all. What should be the method for solving this?







linear-algebra matrices vector-spaces linear-transformations hamel-basis






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share|cite|improve this question













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share|cite|improve this question








edited Jan 8 at 12:49







user593746

















asked Jan 8 at 10:34









LightsongLightsong

247




247












  • $begingroup$
    what do you mean with find? I am currently tempted to solve it with universal properties (the solution can't be unique, hence I could at least try some canonicality). i.e. if you want a specific solution, you would have to trace that all back
    $endgroup$
    – Enkidu
    Jan 8 at 10:38












  • $begingroup$
    Sorry, I edited it now, I meant find as in finding any linear map that meets those criteria, so a universal solution would work too, as would do any specific solution.
    $endgroup$
    – Lightsong
    Jan 8 at 10:51










  • $begingroup$
    ok, then I will write something down: however, be aware that i won't be a universal solution, but its construction will involve universal properties, which makes it in a way "canonical"
    $endgroup$
    – Enkidu
    Jan 8 at 10:52


















  • $begingroup$
    what do you mean with find? I am currently tempted to solve it with universal properties (the solution can't be unique, hence I could at least try some canonicality). i.e. if you want a specific solution, you would have to trace that all back
    $endgroup$
    – Enkidu
    Jan 8 at 10:38












  • $begingroup$
    Sorry, I edited it now, I meant find as in finding any linear map that meets those criteria, so a universal solution would work too, as would do any specific solution.
    $endgroup$
    – Lightsong
    Jan 8 at 10:51










  • $begingroup$
    ok, then I will write something down: however, be aware that i won't be a universal solution, but its construction will involve universal properties, which makes it in a way "canonical"
    $endgroup$
    – Enkidu
    Jan 8 at 10:52
















$begingroup$
what do you mean with find? I am currently tempted to solve it with universal properties (the solution can't be unique, hence I could at least try some canonicality). i.e. if you want a specific solution, you would have to trace that all back
$endgroup$
– Enkidu
Jan 8 at 10:38






$begingroup$
what do you mean with find? I am currently tempted to solve it with universal properties (the solution can't be unique, hence I could at least try some canonicality). i.e. if you want a specific solution, you would have to trace that all back
$endgroup$
– Enkidu
Jan 8 at 10:38














$begingroup$
Sorry, I edited it now, I meant find as in finding any linear map that meets those criteria, so a universal solution would work too, as would do any specific solution.
$endgroup$
– Lightsong
Jan 8 at 10:51




$begingroup$
Sorry, I edited it now, I meant find as in finding any linear map that meets those criteria, so a universal solution would work too, as would do any specific solution.
$endgroup$
– Lightsong
Jan 8 at 10:51












$begingroup$
ok, then I will write something down: however, be aware that i won't be a universal solution, but its construction will involve universal properties, which makes it in a way "canonical"
$endgroup$
– Enkidu
Jan 8 at 10:52




$begingroup$
ok, then I will write something down: however, be aware that i won't be a universal solution, but its construction will involve universal properties, which makes it in a way "canonical"
$endgroup$
– Enkidu
Jan 8 at 10:52










3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes


















1












$begingroup$

Lets fix: $V:= mathbb{R}^4, K:= leftlangle begin{pmatrix}-1 \ 0\0\1end{pmatrix} ,begin{pmatrix}1 \ 3\2\0end{pmatrix} rightrangle , I:= leftlangle begin{pmatrix}1 \ 1\1 end{pmatrix} ,begin{pmatrix} 0\-2\1 end{pmatrix} rightrangle , W:= mathbb{R}^3$



Now clearly: $K subset V$ and $I subset W$, this means we have canonical maps: $pi:Vtwoheadrightarrow V/_K$ and $iota:I hookrightarrow W$ (the projection onto the quotient and the inclusion). Now by the dimension formula we know $dim( V/_K)=2=dim(I)$, hence there exists an isomorphism $varphi:V/_K to I$ (pick your favourite one).



Consider the morphism: $$iota circ varphi circ pi: Vtwoheadrightarrow V/_K xrightarrow{sim}I hookrightarrow W.$$



Now since both, $varphi$ and $iota$ are monics, the kernel of $iota circ varphi circ pi$ is the same as the kernel of $pi$ which construction is $K$. Dually since $varphi$ and $iota$ are epics, the image of $iota circ varphi circ pi$ is the same as the image of $iota$ which by construction is $I$.



So $iota circ varphi circ pi$ has the desired properties



Now a funfact at the end: by the homomorphism theorem any morphism with the desired properties factors in precisely that way and "only" depends on the choice of $varphi$.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$









  • 3




    $begingroup$
    In other words, you showed that there exists a canonical bijective correspondence between the set $S(K,I)subseteq operatorname{Hom}(V,W)$ of all linear maps $T:Vto W$ such that $ker T=Ksubseteq V$ and $operatorname{im} T=Isubseteq W$ and the set $operatorname{Iso}(V/K,I)$ of isomorphisms from $V/K$ to $I$. In the case $V/Kcong I$, the set $operatorname{Iso}(V/K,I)$ is (non-canonically) in bijective correspondence with $operatorname{GL}(V/K)$, or with $operatorname{GL}(I)$. Otherwise, $operatorname{Iso}(V/K,I)$ is empty. Great work!
    $endgroup$
    – user593746
    Jan 8 at 12:45








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    actually not, that is the homomorphism theorem, I just did the other direction: sazing that a morphism that factors that way has the desired properties and stating that they exist by dimension.
    $endgroup$
    – Enkidu
    Jan 8 at 13:03










  • $begingroup$
    Wow...That is quite out of my league, but it's an amazing answer, I will be checking this one again once I finish this year with,hopefully, more knowledge of linear Algebra. Thank you for the answer and sorry for the delay in the response.
    $endgroup$
    – Lightsong
    Jan 11 at 11:29



















1












$begingroup$

we need a $3times 4$ matrix.



The columns must be linear combinations of the vectors in the image.



let start with the first 2 columns, as the two given vectors.



$begin {bmatrix} 1&0&a&b\1&-2&c&d\1&1&e&f end{bmatrix}$



And our kernel maps to 0.



$begin {bmatrix} 1&0&a&b\1&-2&c&d\1&1&e&f end{bmatrix} begin {bmatrix} -1&1\0&3\0&2\1&0end{bmatrix} = begin {bmatrix} 0&0\0&0\0&0\0&0end{bmatrix}$



And that is enough to solve for the missing values.



$begin {bmatrix} 1&0&-frac 12&1\1&-2&frac 52&1\1&1&-2&1 end{bmatrix}$






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$





















    1












    $begingroup$

    We find a $3$ by $4$ matrix $$A= [C_1, C_2, C_3, C_4]$$ to represent our linear map.



    From the information about the Kernel, we know that $$-C_1+C_4=0$$ and $$C_1+3C_2+2C_3 =0$$



    And from the Image we know that the Column space needs to span $(1,1,1)^T$ and $(0,-2,1)^T$



    Now we form a matrix $A$ with the above conditions.



    $$ A = begin{bmatrix}-3&1&0&-3\1&1&-2&1\-5&1&1&-5end{bmatrix}$$






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$














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      3 Answers
      3






      active

      oldest

      votes








      3 Answers
      3






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

      votes






      active

      oldest

      votes









      1












      $begingroup$

      Lets fix: $V:= mathbb{R}^4, K:= leftlangle begin{pmatrix}-1 \ 0\0\1end{pmatrix} ,begin{pmatrix}1 \ 3\2\0end{pmatrix} rightrangle , I:= leftlangle begin{pmatrix}1 \ 1\1 end{pmatrix} ,begin{pmatrix} 0\-2\1 end{pmatrix} rightrangle , W:= mathbb{R}^3$



      Now clearly: $K subset V$ and $I subset W$, this means we have canonical maps: $pi:Vtwoheadrightarrow V/_K$ and $iota:I hookrightarrow W$ (the projection onto the quotient and the inclusion). Now by the dimension formula we know $dim( V/_K)=2=dim(I)$, hence there exists an isomorphism $varphi:V/_K to I$ (pick your favourite one).



      Consider the morphism: $$iota circ varphi circ pi: Vtwoheadrightarrow V/_K xrightarrow{sim}I hookrightarrow W.$$



      Now since both, $varphi$ and $iota$ are monics, the kernel of $iota circ varphi circ pi$ is the same as the kernel of $pi$ which construction is $K$. Dually since $varphi$ and $iota$ are epics, the image of $iota circ varphi circ pi$ is the same as the image of $iota$ which by construction is $I$.



      So $iota circ varphi circ pi$ has the desired properties



      Now a funfact at the end: by the homomorphism theorem any morphism with the desired properties factors in precisely that way and "only" depends on the choice of $varphi$.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$









      • 3




        $begingroup$
        In other words, you showed that there exists a canonical bijective correspondence between the set $S(K,I)subseteq operatorname{Hom}(V,W)$ of all linear maps $T:Vto W$ such that $ker T=Ksubseteq V$ and $operatorname{im} T=Isubseteq W$ and the set $operatorname{Iso}(V/K,I)$ of isomorphisms from $V/K$ to $I$. In the case $V/Kcong I$, the set $operatorname{Iso}(V/K,I)$ is (non-canonically) in bijective correspondence with $operatorname{GL}(V/K)$, or with $operatorname{GL}(I)$. Otherwise, $operatorname{Iso}(V/K,I)$ is empty. Great work!
        $endgroup$
        – user593746
        Jan 8 at 12:45








      • 1




        $begingroup$
        actually not, that is the homomorphism theorem, I just did the other direction: sazing that a morphism that factors that way has the desired properties and stating that they exist by dimension.
        $endgroup$
        – Enkidu
        Jan 8 at 13:03










      • $begingroup$
        Wow...That is quite out of my league, but it's an amazing answer, I will be checking this one again once I finish this year with,hopefully, more knowledge of linear Algebra. Thank you for the answer and sorry for the delay in the response.
        $endgroup$
        – Lightsong
        Jan 11 at 11:29
















      1












      $begingroup$

      Lets fix: $V:= mathbb{R}^4, K:= leftlangle begin{pmatrix}-1 \ 0\0\1end{pmatrix} ,begin{pmatrix}1 \ 3\2\0end{pmatrix} rightrangle , I:= leftlangle begin{pmatrix}1 \ 1\1 end{pmatrix} ,begin{pmatrix} 0\-2\1 end{pmatrix} rightrangle , W:= mathbb{R}^3$



      Now clearly: $K subset V$ and $I subset W$, this means we have canonical maps: $pi:Vtwoheadrightarrow V/_K$ and $iota:I hookrightarrow W$ (the projection onto the quotient and the inclusion). Now by the dimension formula we know $dim( V/_K)=2=dim(I)$, hence there exists an isomorphism $varphi:V/_K to I$ (pick your favourite one).



      Consider the morphism: $$iota circ varphi circ pi: Vtwoheadrightarrow V/_K xrightarrow{sim}I hookrightarrow W.$$



      Now since both, $varphi$ and $iota$ are monics, the kernel of $iota circ varphi circ pi$ is the same as the kernel of $pi$ which construction is $K$. Dually since $varphi$ and $iota$ are epics, the image of $iota circ varphi circ pi$ is the same as the image of $iota$ which by construction is $I$.



      So $iota circ varphi circ pi$ has the desired properties



      Now a funfact at the end: by the homomorphism theorem any morphism with the desired properties factors in precisely that way and "only" depends on the choice of $varphi$.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$









      • 3




        $begingroup$
        In other words, you showed that there exists a canonical bijective correspondence between the set $S(K,I)subseteq operatorname{Hom}(V,W)$ of all linear maps $T:Vto W$ such that $ker T=Ksubseteq V$ and $operatorname{im} T=Isubseteq W$ and the set $operatorname{Iso}(V/K,I)$ of isomorphisms from $V/K$ to $I$. In the case $V/Kcong I$, the set $operatorname{Iso}(V/K,I)$ is (non-canonically) in bijective correspondence with $operatorname{GL}(V/K)$, or with $operatorname{GL}(I)$. Otherwise, $operatorname{Iso}(V/K,I)$ is empty. Great work!
        $endgroup$
        – user593746
        Jan 8 at 12:45








      • 1




        $begingroup$
        actually not, that is the homomorphism theorem, I just did the other direction: sazing that a morphism that factors that way has the desired properties and stating that they exist by dimension.
        $endgroup$
        – Enkidu
        Jan 8 at 13:03










      • $begingroup$
        Wow...That is quite out of my league, but it's an amazing answer, I will be checking this one again once I finish this year with,hopefully, more knowledge of linear Algebra. Thank you for the answer and sorry for the delay in the response.
        $endgroup$
        – Lightsong
        Jan 11 at 11:29














      1












      1








      1





      $begingroup$

      Lets fix: $V:= mathbb{R}^4, K:= leftlangle begin{pmatrix}-1 \ 0\0\1end{pmatrix} ,begin{pmatrix}1 \ 3\2\0end{pmatrix} rightrangle , I:= leftlangle begin{pmatrix}1 \ 1\1 end{pmatrix} ,begin{pmatrix} 0\-2\1 end{pmatrix} rightrangle , W:= mathbb{R}^3$



      Now clearly: $K subset V$ and $I subset W$, this means we have canonical maps: $pi:Vtwoheadrightarrow V/_K$ and $iota:I hookrightarrow W$ (the projection onto the quotient and the inclusion). Now by the dimension formula we know $dim( V/_K)=2=dim(I)$, hence there exists an isomorphism $varphi:V/_K to I$ (pick your favourite one).



      Consider the morphism: $$iota circ varphi circ pi: Vtwoheadrightarrow V/_K xrightarrow{sim}I hookrightarrow W.$$



      Now since both, $varphi$ and $iota$ are monics, the kernel of $iota circ varphi circ pi$ is the same as the kernel of $pi$ which construction is $K$. Dually since $varphi$ and $iota$ are epics, the image of $iota circ varphi circ pi$ is the same as the image of $iota$ which by construction is $I$.



      So $iota circ varphi circ pi$ has the desired properties



      Now a funfact at the end: by the homomorphism theorem any morphism with the desired properties factors in precisely that way and "only" depends on the choice of $varphi$.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$



      Lets fix: $V:= mathbb{R}^4, K:= leftlangle begin{pmatrix}-1 \ 0\0\1end{pmatrix} ,begin{pmatrix}1 \ 3\2\0end{pmatrix} rightrangle , I:= leftlangle begin{pmatrix}1 \ 1\1 end{pmatrix} ,begin{pmatrix} 0\-2\1 end{pmatrix} rightrangle , W:= mathbb{R}^3$



      Now clearly: $K subset V$ and $I subset W$, this means we have canonical maps: $pi:Vtwoheadrightarrow V/_K$ and $iota:I hookrightarrow W$ (the projection onto the quotient and the inclusion). Now by the dimension formula we know $dim( V/_K)=2=dim(I)$, hence there exists an isomorphism $varphi:V/_K to I$ (pick your favourite one).



      Consider the morphism: $$iota circ varphi circ pi: Vtwoheadrightarrow V/_K xrightarrow{sim}I hookrightarrow W.$$



      Now since both, $varphi$ and $iota$ are monics, the kernel of $iota circ varphi circ pi$ is the same as the kernel of $pi$ which construction is $K$. Dually since $varphi$ and $iota$ are epics, the image of $iota circ varphi circ pi$ is the same as the image of $iota$ which by construction is $I$.



      So $iota circ varphi circ pi$ has the desired properties



      Now a funfact at the end: by the homomorphism theorem any morphism with the desired properties factors in precisely that way and "only" depends on the choice of $varphi$.







      share|cite|improve this answer














      share|cite|improve this answer



      share|cite|improve this answer








      edited Jan 8 at 11:11

























      answered Jan 8 at 11:05









      EnkiduEnkidu

      1,44429




      1,44429








      • 3




        $begingroup$
        In other words, you showed that there exists a canonical bijective correspondence between the set $S(K,I)subseteq operatorname{Hom}(V,W)$ of all linear maps $T:Vto W$ such that $ker T=Ksubseteq V$ and $operatorname{im} T=Isubseteq W$ and the set $operatorname{Iso}(V/K,I)$ of isomorphisms from $V/K$ to $I$. In the case $V/Kcong I$, the set $operatorname{Iso}(V/K,I)$ is (non-canonically) in bijective correspondence with $operatorname{GL}(V/K)$, or with $operatorname{GL}(I)$. Otherwise, $operatorname{Iso}(V/K,I)$ is empty. Great work!
        $endgroup$
        – user593746
        Jan 8 at 12:45








      • 1




        $begingroup$
        actually not, that is the homomorphism theorem, I just did the other direction: sazing that a morphism that factors that way has the desired properties and stating that they exist by dimension.
        $endgroup$
        – Enkidu
        Jan 8 at 13:03










      • $begingroup$
        Wow...That is quite out of my league, but it's an amazing answer, I will be checking this one again once I finish this year with,hopefully, more knowledge of linear Algebra. Thank you for the answer and sorry for the delay in the response.
        $endgroup$
        – Lightsong
        Jan 11 at 11:29














      • 3




        $begingroup$
        In other words, you showed that there exists a canonical bijective correspondence between the set $S(K,I)subseteq operatorname{Hom}(V,W)$ of all linear maps $T:Vto W$ such that $ker T=Ksubseteq V$ and $operatorname{im} T=Isubseteq W$ and the set $operatorname{Iso}(V/K,I)$ of isomorphisms from $V/K$ to $I$. In the case $V/Kcong I$, the set $operatorname{Iso}(V/K,I)$ is (non-canonically) in bijective correspondence with $operatorname{GL}(V/K)$, or with $operatorname{GL}(I)$. Otherwise, $operatorname{Iso}(V/K,I)$ is empty. Great work!
        $endgroup$
        – user593746
        Jan 8 at 12:45








      • 1




        $begingroup$
        actually not, that is the homomorphism theorem, I just did the other direction: sazing that a morphism that factors that way has the desired properties and stating that they exist by dimension.
        $endgroup$
        – Enkidu
        Jan 8 at 13:03










      • $begingroup$
        Wow...That is quite out of my league, but it's an amazing answer, I will be checking this one again once I finish this year with,hopefully, more knowledge of linear Algebra. Thank you for the answer and sorry for the delay in the response.
        $endgroup$
        – Lightsong
        Jan 11 at 11:29








      3




      3




      $begingroup$
      In other words, you showed that there exists a canonical bijective correspondence between the set $S(K,I)subseteq operatorname{Hom}(V,W)$ of all linear maps $T:Vto W$ such that $ker T=Ksubseteq V$ and $operatorname{im} T=Isubseteq W$ and the set $operatorname{Iso}(V/K,I)$ of isomorphisms from $V/K$ to $I$. In the case $V/Kcong I$, the set $operatorname{Iso}(V/K,I)$ is (non-canonically) in bijective correspondence with $operatorname{GL}(V/K)$, or with $operatorname{GL}(I)$. Otherwise, $operatorname{Iso}(V/K,I)$ is empty. Great work!
      $endgroup$
      – user593746
      Jan 8 at 12:45






      $begingroup$
      In other words, you showed that there exists a canonical bijective correspondence between the set $S(K,I)subseteq operatorname{Hom}(V,W)$ of all linear maps $T:Vto W$ such that $ker T=Ksubseteq V$ and $operatorname{im} T=Isubseteq W$ and the set $operatorname{Iso}(V/K,I)$ of isomorphisms from $V/K$ to $I$. In the case $V/Kcong I$, the set $operatorname{Iso}(V/K,I)$ is (non-canonically) in bijective correspondence with $operatorname{GL}(V/K)$, or with $operatorname{GL}(I)$. Otherwise, $operatorname{Iso}(V/K,I)$ is empty. Great work!
      $endgroup$
      – user593746
      Jan 8 at 12:45






      1




      1




      $begingroup$
      actually not, that is the homomorphism theorem, I just did the other direction: sazing that a morphism that factors that way has the desired properties and stating that they exist by dimension.
      $endgroup$
      – Enkidu
      Jan 8 at 13:03




      $begingroup$
      actually not, that is the homomorphism theorem, I just did the other direction: sazing that a morphism that factors that way has the desired properties and stating that they exist by dimension.
      $endgroup$
      – Enkidu
      Jan 8 at 13:03












      $begingroup$
      Wow...That is quite out of my league, but it's an amazing answer, I will be checking this one again once I finish this year with,hopefully, more knowledge of linear Algebra. Thank you for the answer and sorry for the delay in the response.
      $endgroup$
      – Lightsong
      Jan 11 at 11:29




      $begingroup$
      Wow...That is quite out of my league, but it's an amazing answer, I will be checking this one again once I finish this year with,hopefully, more knowledge of linear Algebra. Thank you for the answer and sorry for the delay in the response.
      $endgroup$
      – Lightsong
      Jan 11 at 11:29











      1












      $begingroup$

      we need a $3times 4$ matrix.



      The columns must be linear combinations of the vectors in the image.



      let start with the first 2 columns, as the two given vectors.



      $begin {bmatrix} 1&0&a&b\1&-2&c&d\1&1&e&f end{bmatrix}$



      And our kernel maps to 0.



      $begin {bmatrix} 1&0&a&b\1&-2&c&d\1&1&e&f end{bmatrix} begin {bmatrix} -1&1\0&3\0&2\1&0end{bmatrix} = begin {bmatrix} 0&0\0&0\0&0\0&0end{bmatrix}$



      And that is enough to solve for the missing values.



      $begin {bmatrix} 1&0&-frac 12&1\1&-2&frac 52&1\1&1&-2&1 end{bmatrix}$






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$


















        1












        $begingroup$

        we need a $3times 4$ matrix.



        The columns must be linear combinations of the vectors in the image.



        let start with the first 2 columns, as the two given vectors.



        $begin {bmatrix} 1&0&a&b\1&-2&c&d\1&1&e&f end{bmatrix}$



        And our kernel maps to 0.



        $begin {bmatrix} 1&0&a&b\1&-2&c&d\1&1&e&f end{bmatrix} begin {bmatrix} -1&1\0&3\0&2\1&0end{bmatrix} = begin {bmatrix} 0&0\0&0\0&0\0&0end{bmatrix}$



        And that is enough to solve for the missing values.



        $begin {bmatrix} 1&0&-frac 12&1\1&-2&frac 52&1\1&1&-2&1 end{bmatrix}$






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$
















          1












          1








          1





          $begingroup$

          we need a $3times 4$ matrix.



          The columns must be linear combinations of the vectors in the image.



          let start with the first 2 columns, as the two given vectors.



          $begin {bmatrix} 1&0&a&b\1&-2&c&d\1&1&e&f end{bmatrix}$



          And our kernel maps to 0.



          $begin {bmatrix} 1&0&a&b\1&-2&c&d\1&1&e&f end{bmatrix} begin {bmatrix} -1&1\0&3\0&2\1&0end{bmatrix} = begin {bmatrix} 0&0\0&0\0&0\0&0end{bmatrix}$



          And that is enough to solve for the missing values.



          $begin {bmatrix} 1&0&-frac 12&1\1&-2&frac 52&1\1&1&-2&1 end{bmatrix}$






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          we need a $3times 4$ matrix.



          The columns must be linear combinations of the vectors in the image.



          let start with the first 2 columns, as the two given vectors.



          $begin {bmatrix} 1&0&a&b\1&-2&c&d\1&1&e&f end{bmatrix}$



          And our kernel maps to 0.



          $begin {bmatrix} 1&0&a&b\1&-2&c&d\1&1&e&f end{bmatrix} begin {bmatrix} -1&1\0&3\0&2\1&0end{bmatrix} = begin {bmatrix} 0&0\0&0\0&0\0&0end{bmatrix}$



          And that is enough to solve for the missing values.



          $begin {bmatrix} 1&0&-frac 12&1\1&-2&frac 52&1\1&1&-2&1 end{bmatrix}$







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Jan 8 at 11:22









          Doug MDoug M

          45.4k31954




          45.4k31954























              1












              $begingroup$

              We find a $3$ by $4$ matrix $$A= [C_1, C_2, C_3, C_4]$$ to represent our linear map.



              From the information about the Kernel, we know that $$-C_1+C_4=0$$ and $$C_1+3C_2+2C_3 =0$$



              And from the Image we know that the Column space needs to span $(1,1,1)^T$ and $(0,-2,1)^T$



              Now we form a matrix $A$ with the above conditions.



              $$ A = begin{bmatrix}-3&1&0&-3\1&1&-2&1\-5&1&1&-5end{bmatrix}$$






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$


















                1












                $begingroup$

                We find a $3$ by $4$ matrix $$A= [C_1, C_2, C_3, C_4]$$ to represent our linear map.



                From the information about the Kernel, we know that $$-C_1+C_4=0$$ and $$C_1+3C_2+2C_3 =0$$



                And from the Image we know that the Column space needs to span $(1,1,1)^T$ and $(0,-2,1)^T$



                Now we form a matrix $A$ with the above conditions.



                $$ A = begin{bmatrix}-3&1&0&-3\1&1&-2&1\-5&1&1&-5end{bmatrix}$$






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$
















                  1












                  1








                  1





                  $begingroup$

                  We find a $3$ by $4$ matrix $$A= [C_1, C_2, C_3, C_4]$$ to represent our linear map.



                  From the information about the Kernel, we know that $$-C_1+C_4=0$$ and $$C_1+3C_2+2C_3 =0$$



                  And from the Image we know that the Column space needs to span $(1,1,1)^T$ and $(0,-2,1)^T$



                  Now we form a matrix $A$ with the above conditions.



                  $$ A = begin{bmatrix}-3&1&0&-3\1&1&-2&1\-5&1&1&-5end{bmatrix}$$






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$



                  We find a $3$ by $4$ matrix $$A= [C_1, C_2, C_3, C_4]$$ to represent our linear map.



                  From the information about the Kernel, we know that $$-C_1+C_4=0$$ and $$C_1+3C_2+2C_3 =0$$



                  And from the Image we know that the Column space needs to span $(1,1,1)^T$ and $(0,-2,1)^T$



                  Now we form a matrix $A$ with the above conditions.



                  $$ A = begin{bmatrix}-3&1&0&-3\1&1&-2&1\-5&1&1&-5end{bmatrix}$$







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Jan 8 at 11:24









                  Mohammad Riazi-KermaniMohammad Riazi-Kermani

                  42k42061




                  42k42061






























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