Is sigmoid function distributive











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Sigmoid function is defined as $frac{1}{1+e^{-(x+y)}}$.



Is there a property for sigmoid such that



$frac{1}{1+e^{-(x+y)}}=$ sigmoid$(x)$ {some operation} sigmoid$(y)$ ?










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    up vote
    1
    down vote

    favorite












    Sigmoid function is defined as $frac{1}{1+e^{-(x+y)}}$.



    Is there a property for sigmoid such that



    $frac{1}{1+e^{-(x+y)}}=$ sigmoid$(x)$ {some operation} sigmoid$(y)$ ?










    share|cite|improve this question


























      up vote
      1
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      1
      down vote

      favorite











      Sigmoid function is defined as $frac{1}{1+e^{-(x+y)}}$.



      Is there a property for sigmoid such that



      $frac{1}{1+e^{-(x+y)}}=$ sigmoid$(x)$ {some operation} sigmoid$(y)$ ?










      share|cite|improve this question















      Sigmoid function is defined as $frac{1}{1+e^{-(x+y)}}$.



      Is there a property for sigmoid such that



      $frac{1}{1+e^{-(x+y)}}=$ sigmoid$(x)$ {some operation} sigmoid$(y)$ ?







      functions






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      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Nov 13 at 16:39









      dmtri

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      1,2261520










      asked Nov 13 at 16:32









      puffles

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      579



























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