Relationship between anisotropic and negative/positive definite












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Let $K$ be an ordered field, and $(V, <->)$ a non-degen. bilinear space, where $<->$ is a bilinear form. Determine whether the following statement is true or false:




$(V,<->)$ is anisotropic <—> <-> is negative(/positive) definite.




My answer to the question is:



<—



It’s true. Since if the bilinear form is positive definite, then $<u,v> > 0 forall u,v in V$. Therefore, there’s no vector $w in V$ with $<w,w>=0$. Implying there isn’t any isotropic vector, so the space is anisotropic.



—>



(I don’t know what to do in this case, since being anisotropic doesn’t necessarily imply $<u,v> > 0 (< 0) forall u,v in V$)



I think there’s a post about it already but I don’t understand the answer there.










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    0












    $begingroup$


    Let $K$ be an ordered field, and $(V, <->)$ a non-degen. bilinear space, where $<->$ is a bilinear form. Determine whether the following statement is true or false:




    $(V,<->)$ is anisotropic <—> <-> is negative(/positive) definite.




    My answer to the question is:



    <—



    It’s true. Since if the bilinear form is positive definite, then $<u,v> > 0 forall u,v in V$. Therefore, there’s no vector $w in V$ with $<w,w>=0$. Implying there isn’t any isotropic vector, so the space is anisotropic.



    —>



    (I don’t know what to do in this case, since being anisotropic doesn’t necessarily imply $<u,v> > 0 (< 0) forall u,v in V$)



    I think there’s a post about it already but I don’t understand the answer there.










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$


      Let $K$ be an ordered field, and $(V, <->)$ a non-degen. bilinear space, where $<->$ is a bilinear form. Determine whether the following statement is true or false:




      $(V,<->)$ is anisotropic <—> <-> is negative(/positive) definite.




      My answer to the question is:



      <—



      It’s true. Since if the bilinear form is positive definite, then $<u,v> > 0 forall u,v in V$. Therefore, there’s no vector $w in V$ with $<w,w>=0$. Implying there isn’t any isotropic vector, so the space is anisotropic.



      —>



      (I don’t know what to do in this case, since being anisotropic doesn’t necessarily imply $<u,v> > 0 (< 0) forall u,v in V$)



      I think there’s a post about it already but I don’t understand the answer there.










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      Let $K$ be an ordered field, and $(V, <->)$ a non-degen. bilinear space, where $<->$ is a bilinear form. Determine whether the following statement is true or false:




      $(V,<->)$ is anisotropic <—> <-> is negative(/positive) definite.




      My answer to the question is:



      <—



      It’s true. Since if the bilinear form is positive definite, then $<u,v> > 0 forall u,v in V$. Therefore, there’s no vector $w in V$ with $<w,w>=0$. Implying there isn’t any isotropic vector, so the space is anisotropic.



      —>



      (I don’t know what to do in this case, since being anisotropic doesn’t necessarily imply $<u,v> > 0 (< 0) forall u,v in V$)



      I think there’s a post about it already but I don’t understand the answer there.







      multilinear-algebra bilinear-form






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      share|cite|improve this question











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      share|cite|improve this question










      asked Jan 8 at 19:05









      M. NavarroM. Navarro

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