Prove that the real interval (0,10) is equipotent to its subset (0,1)












-1












$begingroup$


I have a question regarding the following solution to the problem:



"Every infinite decimal is of the form $0.a_1a_2a_3...$ (where $a_i in {0,1,2,...9}$ and the digits are not all $0$ and not all $9$) corresponds bijectively to the infinite decimal $a_1.a_2a_3...$ this shows that there is a one-to-one correspondence between the elements of (0,1) and (0,10)"



My question:



For an element in $(0,1)$ say $0.a_1a_2a_3...$ are there not two corresponding elements in $(0,10)$ namely $0.a_1a_2a_3...$ and $a_1.a_2a_3...$ ?



Why in the solution does $0.a_1a_2a_3...$ correspond only to $a_1.a_2a_3... $?










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$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Multiplication by $10$ is invertible (by multiplication by $1/10$).
    $endgroup$
    – Randall
    Jan 8 at 19:11






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    They are defining the relationship as $phi(0.a_1 a_2...) = a_1.a_2...$. So, $0.1$ will correspond to $1.0$ , $0.01$ will correspond to $0.1$, etc.
    $endgroup$
    – copper.hat
    Jan 8 at 19:14
















-1












$begingroup$


I have a question regarding the following solution to the problem:



"Every infinite decimal is of the form $0.a_1a_2a_3...$ (where $a_i in {0,1,2,...9}$ and the digits are not all $0$ and not all $9$) corresponds bijectively to the infinite decimal $a_1.a_2a_3...$ this shows that there is a one-to-one correspondence between the elements of (0,1) and (0,10)"



My question:



For an element in $(0,1)$ say $0.a_1a_2a_3...$ are there not two corresponding elements in $(0,10)$ namely $0.a_1a_2a_3...$ and $a_1.a_2a_3...$ ?



Why in the solution does $0.a_1a_2a_3...$ correspond only to $a_1.a_2a_3... $?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Multiplication by $10$ is invertible (by multiplication by $1/10$).
    $endgroup$
    – Randall
    Jan 8 at 19:11






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    They are defining the relationship as $phi(0.a_1 a_2...) = a_1.a_2...$. So, $0.1$ will correspond to $1.0$ , $0.01$ will correspond to $0.1$, etc.
    $endgroup$
    – copper.hat
    Jan 8 at 19:14














-1












-1








-1





$begingroup$


I have a question regarding the following solution to the problem:



"Every infinite decimal is of the form $0.a_1a_2a_3...$ (where $a_i in {0,1,2,...9}$ and the digits are not all $0$ and not all $9$) corresponds bijectively to the infinite decimal $a_1.a_2a_3...$ this shows that there is a one-to-one correspondence between the elements of (0,1) and (0,10)"



My question:



For an element in $(0,1)$ say $0.a_1a_2a_3...$ are there not two corresponding elements in $(0,10)$ namely $0.a_1a_2a_3...$ and $a_1.a_2a_3...$ ?



Why in the solution does $0.a_1a_2a_3...$ correspond only to $a_1.a_2a_3... $?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




I have a question regarding the following solution to the problem:



"Every infinite decimal is of the form $0.a_1a_2a_3...$ (where $a_i in {0,1,2,...9}$ and the digits are not all $0$ and not all $9$) corresponds bijectively to the infinite decimal $a_1.a_2a_3...$ this shows that there is a one-to-one correspondence between the elements of (0,1) and (0,10)"



My question:



For an element in $(0,1)$ say $0.a_1a_2a_3...$ are there not two corresponding elements in $(0,10)$ namely $0.a_1a_2a_3...$ and $a_1.a_2a_3...$ ?



Why in the solution does $0.a_1a_2a_3...$ correspond only to $a_1.a_2a_3... $?







real-analysis elementary-set-theory






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asked Jan 8 at 19:06









stochasticmrfoxstochasticmrfox

967




967












  • $begingroup$
    Multiplication by $10$ is invertible (by multiplication by $1/10$).
    $endgroup$
    – Randall
    Jan 8 at 19:11






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    They are defining the relationship as $phi(0.a_1 a_2...) = a_1.a_2...$. So, $0.1$ will correspond to $1.0$ , $0.01$ will correspond to $0.1$, etc.
    $endgroup$
    – copper.hat
    Jan 8 at 19:14


















  • $begingroup$
    Multiplication by $10$ is invertible (by multiplication by $1/10$).
    $endgroup$
    – Randall
    Jan 8 at 19:11






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    They are defining the relationship as $phi(0.a_1 a_2...) = a_1.a_2...$. So, $0.1$ will correspond to $1.0$ , $0.01$ will correspond to $0.1$, etc.
    $endgroup$
    – copper.hat
    Jan 8 at 19:14
















$begingroup$
Multiplication by $10$ is invertible (by multiplication by $1/10$).
$endgroup$
– Randall
Jan 8 at 19:11




$begingroup$
Multiplication by $10$ is invertible (by multiplication by $1/10$).
$endgroup$
– Randall
Jan 8 at 19:11




2




2




$begingroup$
They are defining the relationship as $phi(0.a_1 a_2...) = a_1.a_2...$. So, $0.1$ will correspond to $1.0$ , $0.01$ will correspond to $0.1$, etc.
$endgroup$
– copper.hat
Jan 8 at 19:14




$begingroup$
They are defining the relationship as $phi(0.a_1 a_2...) = a_1.a_2...$. So, $0.1$ will correspond to $1.0$ , $0.01$ will correspond to $0.1$, etc.
$endgroup$
– copper.hat
Jan 8 at 19:14










1 Answer
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$begingroup$

The author of the solution is defining a specific bijection $f:(0,1)to(0,10)$ by the rule $f(0.a_1a_2a_3ldots)=a_1.a_2a_3ldots$. In other words, for a given $0.a_1a_2a_3ldotsin(0,1)$, there is one and only one $f(0.a_1a_2a_3ldots)in(0,10)$, which is defined to be $a_1.a_2a_3ldots$.



It is also true that for $a_1.a_2a_3ldotsin(0,10)$, there is one and only one $f^{-1}(a_1.a_2a_3ldots)in(0,1)$, which is simply $0.a_1a_2a_3ldots$.






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    1 Answer
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    $begingroup$

    The author of the solution is defining a specific bijection $f:(0,1)to(0,10)$ by the rule $f(0.a_1a_2a_3ldots)=a_1.a_2a_3ldots$. In other words, for a given $0.a_1a_2a_3ldotsin(0,1)$, there is one and only one $f(0.a_1a_2a_3ldots)in(0,10)$, which is defined to be $a_1.a_2a_3ldots$.



    It is also true that for $a_1.a_2a_3ldotsin(0,10)$, there is one and only one $f^{-1}(a_1.a_2a_3ldots)in(0,1)$, which is simply $0.a_1a_2a_3ldots$.






    share|cite|improve this answer









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      0












      $begingroup$

      The author of the solution is defining a specific bijection $f:(0,1)to(0,10)$ by the rule $f(0.a_1a_2a_3ldots)=a_1.a_2a_3ldots$. In other words, for a given $0.a_1a_2a_3ldotsin(0,1)$, there is one and only one $f(0.a_1a_2a_3ldots)in(0,10)$, which is defined to be $a_1.a_2a_3ldots$.



      It is also true that for $a_1.a_2a_3ldotsin(0,10)$, there is one and only one $f^{-1}(a_1.a_2a_3ldots)in(0,1)$, which is simply $0.a_1a_2a_3ldots$.






      share|cite|improve this answer









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        0












        0








        0





        $begingroup$

        The author of the solution is defining a specific bijection $f:(0,1)to(0,10)$ by the rule $f(0.a_1a_2a_3ldots)=a_1.a_2a_3ldots$. In other words, for a given $0.a_1a_2a_3ldotsin(0,1)$, there is one and only one $f(0.a_1a_2a_3ldots)in(0,10)$, which is defined to be $a_1.a_2a_3ldots$.



        It is also true that for $a_1.a_2a_3ldotsin(0,10)$, there is one and only one $f^{-1}(a_1.a_2a_3ldots)in(0,1)$, which is simply $0.a_1a_2a_3ldots$.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        The author of the solution is defining a specific bijection $f:(0,1)to(0,10)$ by the rule $f(0.a_1a_2a_3ldots)=a_1.a_2a_3ldots$. In other words, for a given $0.a_1a_2a_3ldotsin(0,1)$, there is one and only one $f(0.a_1a_2a_3ldots)in(0,10)$, which is defined to be $a_1.a_2a_3ldots$.



        It is also true that for $a_1.a_2a_3ldotsin(0,10)$, there is one and only one $f^{-1}(a_1.a_2a_3ldots)in(0,1)$, which is simply $0.a_1a_2a_3ldots$.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Jan 8 at 20:12









        Chris CulterChris Culter

        21.5k43888




        21.5k43888






























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