Proof Understanding: E Normed space, F Banach space implies $L(E,F)$ is a Banach Space..











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I am working through Hueser's Functional Analysis and have come across the proof (7.4) that:



If E is a normed space and F is a Banach space then $L(E,F)$, the set of continuous linear transformations from E to F is a Banach space.



The proof constructs a Cauchy sequence of operators and uses the fact that F is a Banach space to arrive at the result:



begin{equation} ||A_nx-Ax|| < epsilon||x|| end{equation}



Where $A_nx rightarrow Ax$ in F and ${A_j}$ constitutes a Cauchy sequence of operators.




My confusion arises as to how this implies $A_n rightarrow A$ as the author's just arrives at this result in the next line with no explanation.




My idea is that because $Ax$ is linear and continuous and E is a Vector space so contains the identity therefore set $x=1$ and get the result.

However any clarification or hints would be appreciated.










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  • 1




    Us definition of $|A_n-A|$.
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Nov 13 at 10:32










  • @KaviRamaMurthy Ah of course! Thank you
    – ocallam
    Nov 13 at 10:36















up vote
0
down vote

favorite












I am working through Hueser's Functional Analysis and have come across the proof (7.4) that:



If E is a normed space and F is a Banach space then $L(E,F)$, the set of continuous linear transformations from E to F is a Banach space.



The proof constructs a Cauchy sequence of operators and uses the fact that F is a Banach space to arrive at the result:



begin{equation} ||A_nx-Ax|| < epsilon||x|| end{equation}



Where $A_nx rightarrow Ax$ in F and ${A_j}$ constitutes a Cauchy sequence of operators.




My confusion arises as to how this implies $A_n rightarrow A$ as the author's just arrives at this result in the next line with no explanation.




My idea is that because $Ax$ is linear and continuous and E is a Vector space so contains the identity therefore set $x=1$ and get the result.

However any clarification or hints would be appreciated.










share|cite|improve this question


















  • 1




    Us definition of $|A_n-A|$.
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Nov 13 at 10:32










  • @KaviRamaMurthy Ah of course! Thank you
    – ocallam
    Nov 13 at 10:36













up vote
0
down vote

favorite









up vote
0
down vote

favorite











I am working through Hueser's Functional Analysis and have come across the proof (7.4) that:



If E is a normed space and F is a Banach space then $L(E,F)$, the set of continuous linear transformations from E to F is a Banach space.



The proof constructs a Cauchy sequence of operators and uses the fact that F is a Banach space to arrive at the result:



begin{equation} ||A_nx-Ax|| < epsilon||x|| end{equation}



Where $A_nx rightarrow Ax$ in F and ${A_j}$ constitutes a Cauchy sequence of operators.




My confusion arises as to how this implies $A_n rightarrow A$ as the author's just arrives at this result in the next line with no explanation.




My idea is that because $Ax$ is linear and continuous and E is a Vector space so contains the identity therefore set $x=1$ and get the result.

However any clarification or hints would be appreciated.










share|cite|improve this question













I am working through Hueser's Functional Analysis and have come across the proof (7.4) that:



If E is a normed space and F is a Banach space then $L(E,F)$, the set of continuous linear transformations from E to F is a Banach space.



The proof constructs a Cauchy sequence of operators and uses the fact that F is a Banach space to arrive at the result:



begin{equation} ||A_nx-Ax|| < epsilon||x|| end{equation}



Where $A_nx rightarrow Ax$ in F and ${A_j}$ constitutes a Cauchy sequence of operators.




My confusion arises as to how this implies $A_n rightarrow A$ as the author's just arrives at this result in the next line with no explanation.




My idea is that because $Ax$ is linear and continuous and E is a Vector space so contains the identity therefore set $x=1$ and get the result.

However any clarification or hints would be appreciated.







functional-analysis banach-spaces






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asked Nov 13 at 10:28









ocallam

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  • 1




    Us definition of $|A_n-A|$.
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Nov 13 at 10:32










  • @KaviRamaMurthy Ah of course! Thank you
    – ocallam
    Nov 13 at 10:36














  • 1




    Us definition of $|A_n-A|$.
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Nov 13 at 10:32










  • @KaviRamaMurthy Ah of course! Thank you
    – ocallam
    Nov 13 at 10:36








1




1




Us definition of $|A_n-A|$.
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Nov 13 at 10:32




Us definition of $|A_n-A|$.
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Nov 13 at 10:32












@KaviRamaMurthy Ah of course! Thank you
– ocallam
Nov 13 at 10:36




@KaviRamaMurthy Ah of course! Thank you
– ocallam
Nov 13 at 10:36










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To show that $A_n to A$ in $L(E,F)$, we need to show that $||A_n - A|| to 0$, which is equivalent to saying that for any $epsilon > 0$, there exists $N$ such that if $n > N$ , we have $||A_n - A|| < epsilon$.



However, $||A_n - A|| < epsilon$ is the same as $||(A_n - A)x|| < epsilon ||x||$ for all $x in E$ , which is the same as $||A_n x - Ax|| < epsilon ||x||$ for all $x in E$, which is the statement you have.



In other words, the last statement is the assertion that $||A_n - A|| < epsilon$, which was to be shown for showing $A_n to A$. This equivalence was omitted in the text since it nearly follows by definition.






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    To show that $A_n to A$ in $L(E,F)$, we need to show that $||A_n - A|| to 0$, which is equivalent to saying that for any $epsilon > 0$, there exists $N$ such that if $n > N$ , we have $||A_n - A|| < epsilon$.



    However, $||A_n - A|| < epsilon$ is the same as $||(A_n - A)x|| < epsilon ||x||$ for all $x in E$ , which is the same as $||A_n x - Ax|| < epsilon ||x||$ for all $x in E$, which is the statement you have.



    In other words, the last statement is the assertion that $||A_n - A|| < epsilon$, which was to be shown for showing $A_n to A$. This equivalence was omitted in the text since it nearly follows by definition.






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      To show that $A_n to A$ in $L(E,F)$, we need to show that $||A_n - A|| to 0$, which is equivalent to saying that for any $epsilon > 0$, there exists $N$ such that if $n > N$ , we have $||A_n - A|| < epsilon$.



      However, $||A_n - A|| < epsilon$ is the same as $||(A_n - A)x|| < epsilon ||x||$ for all $x in E$ , which is the same as $||A_n x - Ax|| < epsilon ||x||$ for all $x in E$, which is the statement you have.



      In other words, the last statement is the assertion that $||A_n - A|| < epsilon$, which was to be shown for showing $A_n to A$. This equivalence was omitted in the text since it nearly follows by definition.






      share|cite|improve this answer























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        To show that $A_n to A$ in $L(E,F)$, we need to show that $||A_n - A|| to 0$, which is equivalent to saying that for any $epsilon > 0$, there exists $N$ such that if $n > N$ , we have $||A_n - A|| < epsilon$.



        However, $||A_n - A|| < epsilon$ is the same as $||(A_n - A)x|| < epsilon ||x||$ for all $x in E$ , which is the same as $||A_n x - Ax|| < epsilon ||x||$ for all $x in E$, which is the statement you have.



        In other words, the last statement is the assertion that $||A_n - A|| < epsilon$, which was to be shown for showing $A_n to A$. This equivalence was omitted in the text since it nearly follows by definition.






        share|cite|improve this answer












        To show that $A_n to A$ in $L(E,F)$, we need to show that $||A_n - A|| to 0$, which is equivalent to saying that for any $epsilon > 0$, there exists $N$ such that if $n > N$ , we have $||A_n - A|| < epsilon$.



        However, $||A_n - A|| < epsilon$ is the same as $||(A_n - A)x|| < epsilon ||x||$ for all $x in E$ , which is the same as $||A_n x - Ax|| < epsilon ||x||$ for all $x in E$, which is the statement you have.



        In other words, the last statement is the assertion that $||A_n - A|| < epsilon$, which was to be shown for showing $A_n to A$. This equivalence was omitted in the text since it nearly follows by definition.







        share|cite|improve this answer












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        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Nov 13 at 10:52









        астон вілла олоф мэллбэрг

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