How to prove the limit of form $0^{infty}$ equals to 0 without restriction?











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This is a question from Calculus 7e by Stewart:
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It's easy to prove by calculating the limit of $e^{ln(f(x))cdot g(x)}$ if $f(x)$ is restricted to a positive function. However, seems that if we remove this restriction the conclusion still holds. But then we cannot use $ln(f(x))$ since $f(x)leq 0$ is possible. So how to prove the general form of this limit?










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    This is a question from Calculus 7e by Stewart:
    enter image description here



    It's easy to prove by calculating the limit of $e^{ln(f(x))cdot g(x)}$ if $f(x)$ is restricted to a positive function. However, seems that if we remove this restriction the conclusion still holds. But then we cannot use $ln(f(x))$ since $f(x)leq 0$ is possible. So how to prove the general form of this limit?










    share|cite|improve this question
























      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite
      1









      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite
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      This is a question from Calculus 7e by Stewart:
      enter image description here



      It's easy to prove by calculating the limit of $e^{ln(f(x))cdot g(x)}$ if $f(x)$ is restricted to a positive function. However, seems that if we remove this restriction the conclusion still holds. But then we cannot use $ln(f(x))$ since $f(x)leq 0$ is possible. So how to prove the general form of this limit?










      share|cite|improve this question













      This is a question from Calculus 7e by Stewart:
      enter image description here



      It's easy to prove by calculating the limit of $e^{ln(f(x))cdot g(x)}$ if $f(x)$ is restricted to a positive function. However, seems that if we remove this restriction the conclusion still holds. But then we cannot use $ln(f(x))$ since $f(x)leq 0$ is possible. So how to prove the general form of this limit?







      calculus






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      asked Nov 13 at 11:09









      user2923419

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      1041






















          3 Answers
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          In calculus context for function of real variables, the function



          $$[f(x)]^{g(x)}$$



          is restricted and defined only for $f(x)>0$.



          Refer also to the related




          • Finding domain of $ f(x) ^ {g(x)} $?






          share|cite|improve this answer




























            up vote
            0
            down vote













            In the given case, if we remove the restriction on f to be $geq0$, then $f(x)^{g(x)}$ cannot be defined(because the domain of this function is f(x)>0).



            Reason for this is that g(x) may take fractional value that may not be defined for $f(x)^{g(x)}$(for example, square root of negative numbers are undefined)



            Hope it helps:)






            share|cite|improve this answer




























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              Let $varepsilon>0$. Then $minleft{varepsilon,frac12right}>0$ and therefore there is a $delta_1>0$ such that $$0<lvert x-arvert<delta_1impliesbigllvert f(x)bigrrvert<minleft{varepsilon,frac12right}.$$And there is a $delta_2>0$ such that$$0<lvert x-arvert<delta_2implies g(x)>1.$$Therefore, if $delta=min{delta_1,delta_2}$,$$0<lvert x-arvert<deltaimpliesleftlvert f(x)^{g(x)}rightrvert=bigllvert f(x)bigrrvert^{g(x)}<minleft{varepsilon,frac12right}leqslantvarepsilon.$$






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                3 Answers
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                3 Answers
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                active

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                active

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                up vote
                0
                down vote













                In calculus context for function of real variables, the function



                $$[f(x)]^{g(x)}$$



                is restricted and defined only for $f(x)>0$.



                Refer also to the related




                • Finding domain of $ f(x) ^ {g(x)} $?






                share|cite|improve this answer

























                  up vote
                  0
                  down vote













                  In calculus context for function of real variables, the function



                  $$[f(x)]^{g(x)}$$



                  is restricted and defined only for $f(x)>0$.



                  Refer also to the related




                  • Finding domain of $ f(x) ^ {g(x)} $?






                  share|cite|improve this answer























                    up vote
                    0
                    down vote










                    up vote
                    0
                    down vote









                    In calculus context for function of real variables, the function



                    $$[f(x)]^{g(x)}$$



                    is restricted and defined only for $f(x)>0$.



                    Refer also to the related




                    • Finding domain of $ f(x) ^ {g(x)} $?






                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    In calculus context for function of real variables, the function



                    $$[f(x)]^{g(x)}$$



                    is restricted and defined only for $f(x)>0$.



                    Refer also to the related




                    • Finding domain of $ f(x) ^ {g(x)} $?







                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    share|cite|improve this answer



                    share|cite|improve this answer










                    answered Nov 13 at 11:13









                    gimusi

                    85.3k74293




                    85.3k74293






















                        up vote
                        0
                        down vote













                        In the given case, if we remove the restriction on f to be $geq0$, then $f(x)^{g(x)}$ cannot be defined(because the domain of this function is f(x)>0).



                        Reason for this is that g(x) may take fractional value that may not be defined for $f(x)^{g(x)}$(for example, square root of negative numbers are undefined)



                        Hope it helps:)






                        share|cite|improve this answer

























                          up vote
                          0
                          down vote













                          In the given case, if we remove the restriction on f to be $geq0$, then $f(x)^{g(x)}$ cannot be defined(because the domain of this function is f(x)>0).



                          Reason for this is that g(x) may take fractional value that may not be defined for $f(x)^{g(x)}$(for example, square root of negative numbers are undefined)



                          Hope it helps:)






                          share|cite|improve this answer























                            up vote
                            0
                            down vote










                            up vote
                            0
                            down vote









                            In the given case, if we remove the restriction on f to be $geq0$, then $f(x)^{g(x)}$ cannot be defined(because the domain of this function is f(x)>0).



                            Reason for this is that g(x) may take fractional value that may not be defined for $f(x)^{g(x)}$(for example, square root of negative numbers are undefined)



                            Hope it helps:)






                            share|cite|improve this answer












                            In the given case, if we remove the restriction on f to be $geq0$, then $f(x)^{g(x)}$ cannot be defined(because the domain of this function is f(x)>0).



                            Reason for this is that g(x) may take fractional value that may not be defined for $f(x)^{g(x)}$(for example, square root of negative numbers are undefined)



                            Hope it helps:)







                            share|cite|improve this answer












                            share|cite|improve this answer



                            share|cite|improve this answer










                            answered Nov 13 at 11:15









                            Crazy for maths

                            4948




                            4948






















                                up vote
                                0
                                down vote













                                Let $varepsilon>0$. Then $minleft{varepsilon,frac12right}>0$ and therefore there is a $delta_1>0$ such that $$0<lvert x-arvert<delta_1impliesbigllvert f(x)bigrrvert<minleft{varepsilon,frac12right}.$$And there is a $delta_2>0$ such that$$0<lvert x-arvert<delta_2implies g(x)>1.$$Therefore, if $delta=min{delta_1,delta_2}$,$$0<lvert x-arvert<deltaimpliesleftlvert f(x)^{g(x)}rightrvert=bigllvert f(x)bigrrvert^{g(x)}<minleft{varepsilon,frac12right}leqslantvarepsilon.$$






                                share|cite|improve this answer

























                                  up vote
                                  0
                                  down vote













                                  Let $varepsilon>0$. Then $minleft{varepsilon,frac12right}>0$ and therefore there is a $delta_1>0$ such that $$0<lvert x-arvert<delta_1impliesbigllvert f(x)bigrrvert<minleft{varepsilon,frac12right}.$$And there is a $delta_2>0$ such that$$0<lvert x-arvert<delta_2implies g(x)>1.$$Therefore, if $delta=min{delta_1,delta_2}$,$$0<lvert x-arvert<deltaimpliesleftlvert f(x)^{g(x)}rightrvert=bigllvert f(x)bigrrvert^{g(x)}<minleft{varepsilon,frac12right}leqslantvarepsilon.$$






                                  share|cite|improve this answer























                                    up vote
                                    0
                                    down vote










                                    up vote
                                    0
                                    down vote









                                    Let $varepsilon>0$. Then $minleft{varepsilon,frac12right}>0$ and therefore there is a $delta_1>0$ such that $$0<lvert x-arvert<delta_1impliesbigllvert f(x)bigrrvert<minleft{varepsilon,frac12right}.$$And there is a $delta_2>0$ such that$$0<lvert x-arvert<delta_2implies g(x)>1.$$Therefore, if $delta=min{delta_1,delta_2}$,$$0<lvert x-arvert<deltaimpliesleftlvert f(x)^{g(x)}rightrvert=bigllvert f(x)bigrrvert^{g(x)}<minleft{varepsilon,frac12right}leqslantvarepsilon.$$






                                    share|cite|improve this answer












                                    Let $varepsilon>0$. Then $minleft{varepsilon,frac12right}>0$ and therefore there is a $delta_1>0$ such that $$0<lvert x-arvert<delta_1impliesbigllvert f(x)bigrrvert<minleft{varepsilon,frac12right}.$$And there is a $delta_2>0$ such that$$0<lvert x-arvert<delta_2implies g(x)>1.$$Therefore, if $delta=min{delta_1,delta_2}$,$$0<lvert x-arvert<deltaimpliesleftlvert f(x)^{g(x)}rightrvert=bigllvert f(x)bigrrvert^{g(x)}<minleft{varepsilon,frac12right}leqslantvarepsilon.$$







                                    share|cite|improve this answer












                                    share|cite|improve this answer



                                    share|cite|improve this answer










                                    answered Nov 13 at 11:16









                                    José Carlos Santos

                                    139k18110202




                                    139k18110202






























                                         

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