How to prove the limit of form $0^{infty}$ equals to 0 without restriction?
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This is a question from Calculus 7e by Stewart:
It's easy to prove by calculating the limit of $e^{ln(f(x))cdot g(x)}$ if $f(x)$ is restricted to a positive function. However, seems that if we remove this restriction the conclusion still holds. But then we cannot use $ln(f(x))$ since $f(x)leq 0$ is possible. So how to prove the general form of this limit?
calculus
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This is a question from Calculus 7e by Stewart:
It's easy to prove by calculating the limit of $e^{ln(f(x))cdot g(x)}$ if $f(x)$ is restricted to a positive function. However, seems that if we remove this restriction the conclusion still holds. But then we cannot use $ln(f(x))$ since $f(x)leq 0$ is possible. So how to prove the general form of this limit?
calculus
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
This is a question from Calculus 7e by Stewart:
It's easy to prove by calculating the limit of $e^{ln(f(x))cdot g(x)}$ if $f(x)$ is restricted to a positive function. However, seems that if we remove this restriction the conclusion still holds. But then we cannot use $ln(f(x))$ since $f(x)leq 0$ is possible. So how to prove the general form of this limit?
calculus
This is a question from Calculus 7e by Stewart:
It's easy to prove by calculating the limit of $e^{ln(f(x))cdot g(x)}$ if $f(x)$ is restricted to a positive function. However, seems that if we remove this restriction the conclusion still holds. But then we cannot use $ln(f(x))$ since $f(x)leq 0$ is possible. So how to prove the general form of this limit?
calculus
calculus
asked Nov 13 at 11:09
user2923419
1041
1041
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3 Answers
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In calculus context for function of real variables, the function
$$[f(x)]^{g(x)}$$
is restricted and defined only for $f(x)>0$.
Refer also to the related
- Finding domain of $ f(x) ^ {g(x)} $?
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0
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In the given case, if we remove the restriction on f to be $geq0$, then $f(x)^{g(x)}$ cannot be defined(because the domain of this function is f(x)>0).
Reason for this is that g(x) may take fractional value that may not be defined for $f(x)^{g(x)}$(for example, square root of negative numbers are undefined)
Hope it helps:)
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Let $varepsilon>0$. Then $minleft{varepsilon,frac12right}>0$ and therefore there is a $delta_1>0$ such that $$0<lvert x-arvert<delta_1impliesbigllvert f(x)bigrrvert<minleft{varepsilon,frac12right}.$$And there is a $delta_2>0$ such that$$0<lvert x-arvert<delta_2implies g(x)>1.$$Therefore, if $delta=min{delta_1,delta_2}$,$$0<lvert x-arvert<deltaimpliesleftlvert f(x)^{g(x)}rightrvert=bigllvert f(x)bigrrvert^{g(x)}<minleft{varepsilon,frac12right}leqslantvarepsilon.$$
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3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
0
down vote
In calculus context for function of real variables, the function
$$[f(x)]^{g(x)}$$
is restricted and defined only for $f(x)>0$.
Refer also to the related
- Finding domain of $ f(x) ^ {g(x)} $?
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
In calculus context for function of real variables, the function
$$[f(x)]^{g(x)}$$
is restricted and defined only for $f(x)>0$.
Refer also to the related
- Finding domain of $ f(x) ^ {g(x)} $?
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
up vote
0
down vote
In calculus context for function of real variables, the function
$$[f(x)]^{g(x)}$$
is restricted and defined only for $f(x)>0$.
Refer also to the related
- Finding domain of $ f(x) ^ {g(x)} $?
In calculus context for function of real variables, the function
$$[f(x)]^{g(x)}$$
is restricted and defined only for $f(x)>0$.
Refer also to the related
- Finding domain of $ f(x) ^ {g(x)} $?
answered Nov 13 at 11:13
gimusi
85.3k74293
85.3k74293
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up vote
0
down vote
In the given case, if we remove the restriction on f to be $geq0$, then $f(x)^{g(x)}$ cannot be defined(because the domain of this function is f(x)>0).
Reason for this is that g(x) may take fractional value that may not be defined for $f(x)^{g(x)}$(for example, square root of negative numbers are undefined)
Hope it helps:)
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
In the given case, if we remove the restriction on f to be $geq0$, then $f(x)^{g(x)}$ cannot be defined(because the domain of this function is f(x)>0).
Reason for this is that g(x) may take fractional value that may not be defined for $f(x)^{g(x)}$(for example, square root of negative numbers are undefined)
Hope it helps:)
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
up vote
0
down vote
In the given case, if we remove the restriction on f to be $geq0$, then $f(x)^{g(x)}$ cannot be defined(because the domain of this function is f(x)>0).
Reason for this is that g(x) may take fractional value that may not be defined for $f(x)^{g(x)}$(for example, square root of negative numbers are undefined)
Hope it helps:)
In the given case, if we remove the restriction on f to be $geq0$, then $f(x)^{g(x)}$ cannot be defined(because the domain of this function is f(x)>0).
Reason for this is that g(x) may take fractional value that may not be defined for $f(x)^{g(x)}$(for example, square root of negative numbers are undefined)
Hope it helps:)
answered Nov 13 at 11:15
Crazy for maths
4948
4948
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Let $varepsilon>0$. Then $minleft{varepsilon,frac12right}>0$ and therefore there is a $delta_1>0$ such that $$0<lvert x-arvert<delta_1impliesbigllvert f(x)bigrrvert<minleft{varepsilon,frac12right}.$$And there is a $delta_2>0$ such that$$0<lvert x-arvert<delta_2implies g(x)>1.$$Therefore, if $delta=min{delta_1,delta_2}$,$$0<lvert x-arvert<deltaimpliesleftlvert f(x)^{g(x)}rightrvert=bigllvert f(x)bigrrvert^{g(x)}<minleft{varepsilon,frac12right}leqslantvarepsilon.$$
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
Let $varepsilon>0$. Then $minleft{varepsilon,frac12right}>0$ and therefore there is a $delta_1>0$ such that $$0<lvert x-arvert<delta_1impliesbigllvert f(x)bigrrvert<minleft{varepsilon,frac12right}.$$And there is a $delta_2>0$ such that$$0<lvert x-arvert<delta_2implies g(x)>1.$$Therefore, if $delta=min{delta_1,delta_2}$,$$0<lvert x-arvert<deltaimpliesleftlvert f(x)^{g(x)}rightrvert=bigllvert f(x)bigrrvert^{g(x)}<minleft{varepsilon,frac12right}leqslantvarepsilon.$$
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
up vote
0
down vote
Let $varepsilon>0$. Then $minleft{varepsilon,frac12right}>0$ and therefore there is a $delta_1>0$ such that $$0<lvert x-arvert<delta_1impliesbigllvert f(x)bigrrvert<minleft{varepsilon,frac12right}.$$And there is a $delta_2>0$ such that$$0<lvert x-arvert<delta_2implies g(x)>1.$$Therefore, if $delta=min{delta_1,delta_2}$,$$0<lvert x-arvert<deltaimpliesleftlvert f(x)^{g(x)}rightrvert=bigllvert f(x)bigrrvert^{g(x)}<minleft{varepsilon,frac12right}leqslantvarepsilon.$$
Let $varepsilon>0$. Then $minleft{varepsilon,frac12right}>0$ and therefore there is a $delta_1>0$ such that $$0<lvert x-arvert<delta_1impliesbigllvert f(x)bigrrvert<minleft{varepsilon,frac12right}.$$And there is a $delta_2>0$ such that$$0<lvert x-arvert<delta_2implies g(x)>1.$$Therefore, if $delta=min{delta_1,delta_2}$,$$0<lvert x-arvert<deltaimpliesleftlvert f(x)^{g(x)}rightrvert=bigllvert f(x)bigrrvert^{g(x)}<minleft{varepsilon,frac12right}leqslantvarepsilon.$$
answered Nov 13 at 11:16
José Carlos Santos
139k18110202
139k18110202
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