Units and Nilpotents












24












$begingroup$



If $ua = au$, where $u$ is a unit and $a$ is a nilpotent, show that $u+a$ is a unit.




I've been working on this problem for an hour that I tried to construct an element $x in R$ such that $x(u+a) = 1 = (u+a)x$. After tried several elements and manipulated $ua = au$, I still couldn't find any clue. Can anybody give me a hint?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 4




    $begingroup$
    Dear Shannon, Try the case $u = 1$ first. Regards,
    $endgroup$
    – Matt E
    Mar 14 '12 at 2:23






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    See also here.
    $endgroup$
    – Bill Dubuque
    May 3 '12 at 14:43












  • $begingroup$
    See also here for the commutative case.
    $endgroup$
    – Bill Dubuque
    Aug 6 '17 at 15:21
















24












$begingroup$



If $ua = au$, where $u$ is a unit and $a$ is a nilpotent, show that $u+a$ is a unit.




I've been working on this problem for an hour that I tried to construct an element $x in R$ such that $x(u+a) = 1 = (u+a)x$. After tried several elements and manipulated $ua = au$, I still couldn't find any clue. Can anybody give me a hint?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 4




    $begingroup$
    Dear Shannon, Try the case $u = 1$ first. Regards,
    $endgroup$
    – Matt E
    Mar 14 '12 at 2:23






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    See also here.
    $endgroup$
    – Bill Dubuque
    May 3 '12 at 14:43












  • $begingroup$
    See also here for the commutative case.
    $endgroup$
    – Bill Dubuque
    Aug 6 '17 at 15:21














24












24








24


7



$begingroup$



If $ua = au$, where $u$ is a unit and $a$ is a nilpotent, show that $u+a$ is a unit.




I've been working on this problem for an hour that I tried to construct an element $x in R$ such that $x(u+a) = 1 = (u+a)x$. After tried several elements and manipulated $ua = au$, I still couldn't find any clue. Can anybody give me a hint?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$





If $ua = au$, where $u$ is a unit and $a$ is a nilpotent, show that $u+a$ is a unit.




I've been working on this problem for an hour that I tried to construct an element $x in R$ such that $x(u+a) = 1 = (u+a)x$. After tried several elements and manipulated $ua = au$, I still couldn't find any clue. Can anybody give me a hint?







abstract-algebra ring-theory faq






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Jun 26 '17 at 14:20









Trevor Gunn

14.9k32047




14.9k32047










asked Mar 14 '12 at 2:18









ShannonShannon

5433620




5433620








  • 4




    $begingroup$
    Dear Shannon, Try the case $u = 1$ first. Regards,
    $endgroup$
    – Matt E
    Mar 14 '12 at 2:23






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    See also here.
    $endgroup$
    – Bill Dubuque
    May 3 '12 at 14:43












  • $begingroup$
    See also here for the commutative case.
    $endgroup$
    – Bill Dubuque
    Aug 6 '17 at 15:21














  • 4




    $begingroup$
    Dear Shannon, Try the case $u = 1$ first. Regards,
    $endgroup$
    – Matt E
    Mar 14 '12 at 2:23






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    See also here.
    $endgroup$
    – Bill Dubuque
    May 3 '12 at 14:43












  • $begingroup$
    See also here for the commutative case.
    $endgroup$
    – Bill Dubuque
    Aug 6 '17 at 15:21








4




4




$begingroup$
Dear Shannon, Try the case $u = 1$ first. Regards,
$endgroup$
– Matt E
Mar 14 '12 at 2:23




$begingroup$
Dear Shannon, Try the case $u = 1$ first. Regards,
$endgroup$
– Matt E
Mar 14 '12 at 2:23




1




1




$begingroup$
See also here.
$endgroup$
– Bill Dubuque
May 3 '12 at 14:43






$begingroup$
See also here.
$endgroup$
– Bill Dubuque
May 3 '12 at 14:43














$begingroup$
See also here for the commutative case.
$endgroup$
– Bill Dubuque
Aug 6 '17 at 15:21




$begingroup$
See also here for the commutative case.
$endgroup$
– Bill Dubuque
Aug 6 '17 at 15:21










4 Answers
4






active

oldest

votes


















14












$begingroup$

If $u=1$, then you could do it via the identity
$$(1+a)(1-a+a^2-a^3+cdots + (-1)^{n}a^n) = 1 + (-1)^{n}a^{n+1}$$
by selecting $n$ large enough.



If $uv=vu=1$, does $a$ commute with $v$? Is $va$ nilpotent?






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    I had tried your way before I asked. But I used u+a instead of 1+a. I was stuck cause I couldnt conclude 1. Here, 1+a is a special case of u+a, do you have to prove u+a?
    $endgroup$
    – Shannon
    Mar 14 '12 at 2:51






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @Shannon: That's what my last paragraph is about. Multiply $u+a$ by $v$; then you get $1+(va)$... is $va$ nilpotent?
    $endgroup$
    – Arturo Magidin
    Mar 14 '12 at 2:56










  • $begingroup$
    oh, I see. I will work on it. Thank you so much.
    $endgroup$
    – Shannon
    Mar 14 '12 at 3:10










  • $begingroup$
    This identity can be heuristically arrived at, and the whole problem approached directly, by using the infinite series expansion of $1/(1-x)$ with, to start, $x = -a$. Since $a$ is nilpotent, the series reduces to a perfectly acceptable polynomial. Rewriting $1/(u+a)$ into the above form is a simple exercise in high school algebra but leads to the the need to verify the (easy) questions Arturo raises.
    $endgroup$
    – Derek Elkins
    Jan 21 '16 at 4:01



















8












$begingroup$

Let $v$ be the inverse of $u$, and suppose $a^2=0$. Note that
$$(u+a)cdot v(1-va)=(1+va)(1-va)=1-v^2a^2=1-0=1.$$
See if you can generalize this.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$









  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The way you constructed the element is wonderful. I've never thought about this way. Can I ask where did this idea come from?
    $endgroup$
    – Shannon
    Mar 14 '12 at 2:55



















6












$begingroup$

Here's a rather different argument. First, suppose that $R$ is commutative. Suppose $u+a$ is not a unit. Then it is contained in some maximal ideal $Msubset R$. Since $a$ is nilpotent, $ain M$ (since $R/M$ is a field, and any nilpotent element of a field is $0$). Thus $u=(u+a)-ain M$ as well. But $u$ is a unit, so it can't be in any maximal ideal, and this is a contradiction.



If you don't know that $R$ is commutative, let $Ssubseteq R$ be the subring generated by $a$, $u$, and $u^{-1}$. Then $S$ is commutative: the only thing that isn't immediate is that $u^{-1}$ commutes with $a$, and this this can be proven as follows: $$u^{-1}a=u^{-1}auu^{-1}=u^{-1}uau^{-1}=au^{-1}.$$



The argument of the first paragraph now shows that $u+a$ is a unit in $S$, and hence also in $R$.





This argument may seem horribly nonconstructive, due to the use of a maximal ideal (and hence the axiom of choice) and proof by contradiction. However, it can be made to be constructive and gives an explicit inverse for $u+a$ in terms of an inverse for $u$ and and an $n$ such that $a^n=0$.



First, we observe that all that is actually required of the ideal $M$ is that it is a proper ideal which contains $u+a$ and all nilpotent elements of $R$. So we may replace $M$ with the ideal $(u+a)+N$ where $N$ is the nilradical of $R$, and use the fact that if $I=(u+a)$ is a proper ideal in a commutative ring then $I+N$ is still a proper ideal. This is because $R/(I+N)$ is the quotient of $R/I$ by the image of $N$, which is contained in the nilradical of $R/I$. If $I$ is a proper ideal, then $R/I$ is a nonzero ring, so its nilradical is a proper ideal, so $R/(I+N)$ is a nonzero ring and $I+N$ is a proper ideal.



Next, we recast this argument as a direct proof instead of a proof by contradiction. Letting $I=(u+a)$, we observe that $I+N$ is not a proper ideal since $u=(u+a)-ain I+N$ and $u$ is a unit. That is, a nilpotent element (namely $a$) is a unit in the ring $R/I$, which means $R/I$ is the zero ring, which means $I=R$, which means $u+a$ is a unit.



Finally, we chase through the explicit equations witnessing the statements above. Letting $v=u^{-1}$, we know that $v((u+a)-a)=1$ so $$-va=1-v(u+a),$$ witnessing that $a$ is a unit mod $u+a$ (with inverse $-v$). But $a$ is nilpotent, so $a^n=0$ for some $n$, and thus $0$ is also a unit mod $u+a$. We see this explicitly by raising our previous equation to the $n$th power: $$0=(-v)^na^n=(1-v(u+a))^n=1-nv(u+a)+binom{n}{2}v^2(u+a)^2+dots+(-v)^n(u+a)^n,$$ where every term after the first on the right-hand side is divisible by $u+a$. Factoring out this $u+a$, we find that $$1=(u+a)left(nv-binom{n}{2}v^2(u+a)+dots-(-v)^n(u+a)^{n-1}right)$$ and so $$-sum_{k=1}^n binom{n}{k}(-v)^k(u+a)^{k-1}= nv-binom{n}{2}v^2(u+a)+dots-(-v)^n(u+a)^{n-1}$$ is an inverse of $u+a$.



The fact that this complicated formula is hidden in the one-paragraph conceptual argument given at the start of this answer is a nice example of how powerful and convenient the abstract machinery of ring theory can be.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$





















    0












    $begingroup$

    Note that since $u$ is a unit and



    $ua = au, tag 1$



    we may write



    $a = u^{-1}au, tag 2$



    and thus



    $au^{-1} = u^{-1}a; tag 3$



    also, since $a$ is nilpotent there is some $0 < n in Bbb N$ such that



    $a^n = 0, tag 4$



    and thus



    $(u^{-1}a)^n = (au^{-1})^n = a^n (u^{-1})^n = (0) (u^{-1})^n = 0; tag 5$



    we observe that



    $u + a = u(1 + u^{-1}a), tag 6$



    and that, by virtue of (5),



    $(1 + u^{-1}a) displaystyle sum_0^{n - 1} (-u^{-1}a)^k = sum_0^{n - 1} (-u^{-1}a)^k + u^{-1}asum_0^{n - 1} (-u^{-1}a)^k$
    $= displaystyle sum_0^{n - 1} (-1)^k(u^{-1}a)^k + sum_0^{n - 1} (-1)^k(u^{-1}a)^{k + 1}$
    $= 1 + displaystyle sum_1^{n - 1} (-1)^k (u^{-1}a)^k + sum_0^{n - 2} (-1)^k(u^{-1}a)^{k + 1} + (-1)^{n - 1}(-u^{-1}a)^n$
    $= 1 + displaystyle sum_1^{n - 1} (-1)^k (u^{-1}a)^k + sum_1^{n - 1} (-1)^{k - 1}(u^{-1}a)^k = 1 + displaystyle sum_1^{n - 1} ((-1)^k + (-1)^{k - 1})(u^{-1}a)^k = 1; tag 7$



    this shows that



    $(1 + u^{-1}a)^{-1} = displaystyle sum_0^{n - 1} (-u^{-1}a)^k, tag 8$



    and we have demonstrated an explicit inverse for $1 + u^{-1}a$. Thus, by (6),



    $(u + a)^{-1} = (u(1 + u^{-1}a))^{-1} = (1 + u^{-1}a)^{-1} u^{-1}, tag 9$



    that is, $u + a$ is a unit.



    Nota Bene: The result proved above has an application to this question, which asks to show that $I - T$ is invertible for any nilpotent linear operator $T$. Taking $T = a$ and $I = u$ in the above immediately yields the existence of $(I - T)^{-1}$. End of Note.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$













      Your Answer





      StackExchange.ifUsing("editor", function () {
      return StackExchange.using("mathjaxEditing", function () {
      StackExchange.MarkdownEditor.creationCallbacks.add(function (editor, postfix) {
      StackExchange.mathjaxEditing.prepareWmdForMathJax(editor, postfix, [["$", "$"], ["\\(","\\)"]]);
      });
      });
      }, "mathjax-editing");

      StackExchange.ready(function() {
      var channelOptions = {
      tags: "".split(" "),
      id: "69"
      };
      initTagRenderer("".split(" "), "".split(" "), channelOptions);

      StackExchange.using("externalEditor", function() {
      // Have to fire editor after snippets, if snippets enabled
      if (StackExchange.settings.snippets.snippetsEnabled) {
      StackExchange.using("snippets", function() {
      createEditor();
      });
      }
      else {
      createEditor();
      }
      });

      function createEditor() {
      StackExchange.prepareEditor({
      heartbeatType: 'answer',
      autoActivateHeartbeat: false,
      convertImagesToLinks: true,
      noModals: true,
      showLowRepImageUploadWarning: true,
      reputationToPostImages: 10,
      bindNavPrevention: true,
      postfix: "",
      imageUploader: {
      brandingHtml: "Powered by u003ca class="icon-imgur-white" href="https://imgur.com/"u003eu003c/au003e",
      contentPolicyHtml: "User contributions licensed under u003ca href="https://creativecommons.org/licenses/by-sa/3.0/"u003ecc by-sa 3.0 with attribution requiredu003c/au003e u003ca href="https://stackoverflow.com/legal/content-policy"u003e(content policy)u003c/au003e",
      allowUrls: true
      },
      noCode: true, onDemand: true,
      discardSelector: ".discard-answer"
      ,immediatelyShowMarkdownHelp:true
      });


      }
      });














      draft saved

      draft discarded


















      StackExchange.ready(
      function () {
      StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f119904%2funits-and-nilpotents%23new-answer', 'question_page');
      }
      );

      Post as a guest















      Required, but never shown

























      4 Answers
      4






      active

      oldest

      votes








      4 Answers
      4






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

      votes






      active

      oldest

      votes









      14












      $begingroup$

      If $u=1$, then you could do it via the identity
      $$(1+a)(1-a+a^2-a^3+cdots + (-1)^{n}a^n) = 1 + (-1)^{n}a^{n+1}$$
      by selecting $n$ large enough.



      If $uv=vu=1$, does $a$ commute with $v$? Is $va$ nilpotent?






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$













      • $begingroup$
        I had tried your way before I asked. But I used u+a instead of 1+a. I was stuck cause I couldnt conclude 1. Here, 1+a is a special case of u+a, do you have to prove u+a?
        $endgroup$
        – Shannon
        Mar 14 '12 at 2:51






      • 1




        $begingroup$
        @Shannon: That's what my last paragraph is about. Multiply $u+a$ by $v$; then you get $1+(va)$... is $va$ nilpotent?
        $endgroup$
        – Arturo Magidin
        Mar 14 '12 at 2:56










      • $begingroup$
        oh, I see. I will work on it. Thank you so much.
        $endgroup$
        – Shannon
        Mar 14 '12 at 3:10










      • $begingroup$
        This identity can be heuristically arrived at, and the whole problem approached directly, by using the infinite series expansion of $1/(1-x)$ with, to start, $x = -a$. Since $a$ is nilpotent, the series reduces to a perfectly acceptable polynomial. Rewriting $1/(u+a)$ into the above form is a simple exercise in high school algebra but leads to the the need to verify the (easy) questions Arturo raises.
        $endgroup$
        – Derek Elkins
        Jan 21 '16 at 4:01
















      14












      $begingroup$

      If $u=1$, then you could do it via the identity
      $$(1+a)(1-a+a^2-a^3+cdots + (-1)^{n}a^n) = 1 + (-1)^{n}a^{n+1}$$
      by selecting $n$ large enough.



      If $uv=vu=1$, does $a$ commute with $v$? Is $va$ nilpotent?






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$













      • $begingroup$
        I had tried your way before I asked. But I used u+a instead of 1+a. I was stuck cause I couldnt conclude 1. Here, 1+a is a special case of u+a, do you have to prove u+a?
        $endgroup$
        – Shannon
        Mar 14 '12 at 2:51






      • 1




        $begingroup$
        @Shannon: That's what my last paragraph is about. Multiply $u+a$ by $v$; then you get $1+(va)$... is $va$ nilpotent?
        $endgroup$
        – Arturo Magidin
        Mar 14 '12 at 2:56










      • $begingroup$
        oh, I see. I will work on it. Thank you so much.
        $endgroup$
        – Shannon
        Mar 14 '12 at 3:10










      • $begingroup$
        This identity can be heuristically arrived at, and the whole problem approached directly, by using the infinite series expansion of $1/(1-x)$ with, to start, $x = -a$. Since $a$ is nilpotent, the series reduces to a perfectly acceptable polynomial. Rewriting $1/(u+a)$ into the above form is a simple exercise in high school algebra but leads to the the need to verify the (easy) questions Arturo raises.
        $endgroup$
        – Derek Elkins
        Jan 21 '16 at 4:01














      14












      14








      14





      $begingroup$

      If $u=1$, then you could do it via the identity
      $$(1+a)(1-a+a^2-a^3+cdots + (-1)^{n}a^n) = 1 + (-1)^{n}a^{n+1}$$
      by selecting $n$ large enough.



      If $uv=vu=1$, does $a$ commute with $v$? Is $va$ nilpotent?






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$



      If $u=1$, then you could do it via the identity
      $$(1+a)(1-a+a^2-a^3+cdots + (-1)^{n}a^n) = 1 + (-1)^{n}a^{n+1}$$
      by selecting $n$ large enough.



      If $uv=vu=1$, does $a$ commute with $v$? Is $va$ nilpotent?







      share|cite|improve this answer














      share|cite|improve this answer



      share|cite|improve this answer








      edited Mar 25 '15 at 13:28









      AMPerrine

      2,90822026




      2,90822026










      answered Mar 14 '12 at 2:26









      Arturo MagidinArturo Magidin

      265k34590919




      265k34590919












      • $begingroup$
        I had tried your way before I asked. But I used u+a instead of 1+a. I was stuck cause I couldnt conclude 1. Here, 1+a is a special case of u+a, do you have to prove u+a?
        $endgroup$
        – Shannon
        Mar 14 '12 at 2:51






      • 1




        $begingroup$
        @Shannon: That's what my last paragraph is about. Multiply $u+a$ by $v$; then you get $1+(va)$... is $va$ nilpotent?
        $endgroup$
        – Arturo Magidin
        Mar 14 '12 at 2:56










      • $begingroup$
        oh, I see. I will work on it. Thank you so much.
        $endgroup$
        – Shannon
        Mar 14 '12 at 3:10










      • $begingroup$
        This identity can be heuristically arrived at, and the whole problem approached directly, by using the infinite series expansion of $1/(1-x)$ with, to start, $x = -a$. Since $a$ is nilpotent, the series reduces to a perfectly acceptable polynomial. Rewriting $1/(u+a)$ into the above form is a simple exercise in high school algebra but leads to the the need to verify the (easy) questions Arturo raises.
        $endgroup$
        – Derek Elkins
        Jan 21 '16 at 4:01


















      • $begingroup$
        I had tried your way before I asked. But I used u+a instead of 1+a. I was stuck cause I couldnt conclude 1. Here, 1+a is a special case of u+a, do you have to prove u+a?
        $endgroup$
        – Shannon
        Mar 14 '12 at 2:51






      • 1




        $begingroup$
        @Shannon: That's what my last paragraph is about. Multiply $u+a$ by $v$; then you get $1+(va)$... is $va$ nilpotent?
        $endgroup$
        – Arturo Magidin
        Mar 14 '12 at 2:56










      • $begingroup$
        oh, I see. I will work on it. Thank you so much.
        $endgroup$
        – Shannon
        Mar 14 '12 at 3:10










      • $begingroup$
        This identity can be heuristically arrived at, and the whole problem approached directly, by using the infinite series expansion of $1/(1-x)$ with, to start, $x = -a$. Since $a$ is nilpotent, the series reduces to a perfectly acceptable polynomial. Rewriting $1/(u+a)$ into the above form is a simple exercise in high school algebra but leads to the the need to verify the (easy) questions Arturo raises.
        $endgroup$
        – Derek Elkins
        Jan 21 '16 at 4:01
















      $begingroup$
      I had tried your way before I asked. But I used u+a instead of 1+a. I was stuck cause I couldnt conclude 1. Here, 1+a is a special case of u+a, do you have to prove u+a?
      $endgroup$
      – Shannon
      Mar 14 '12 at 2:51




      $begingroup$
      I had tried your way before I asked. But I used u+a instead of 1+a. I was stuck cause I couldnt conclude 1. Here, 1+a is a special case of u+a, do you have to prove u+a?
      $endgroup$
      – Shannon
      Mar 14 '12 at 2:51




      1




      1




      $begingroup$
      @Shannon: That's what my last paragraph is about. Multiply $u+a$ by $v$; then you get $1+(va)$... is $va$ nilpotent?
      $endgroup$
      – Arturo Magidin
      Mar 14 '12 at 2:56




      $begingroup$
      @Shannon: That's what my last paragraph is about. Multiply $u+a$ by $v$; then you get $1+(va)$... is $va$ nilpotent?
      $endgroup$
      – Arturo Magidin
      Mar 14 '12 at 2:56












      $begingroup$
      oh, I see. I will work on it. Thank you so much.
      $endgroup$
      – Shannon
      Mar 14 '12 at 3:10




      $begingroup$
      oh, I see. I will work on it. Thank you so much.
      $endgroup$
      – Shannon
      Mar 14 '12 at 3:10












      $begingroup$
      This identity can be heuristically arrived at, and the whole problem approached directly, by using the infinite series expansion of $1/(1-x)$ with, to start, $x = -a$. Since $a$ is nilpotent, the series reduces to a perfectly acceptable polynomial. Rewriting $1/(u+a)$ into the above form is a simple exercise in high school algebra but leads to the the need to verify the (easy) questions Arturo raises.
      $endgroup$
      – Derek Elkins
      Jan 21 '16 at 4:01




      $begingroup$
      This identity can be heuristically arrived at, and the whole problem approached directly, by using the infinite series expansion of $1/(1-x)$ with, to start, $x = -a$. Since $a$ is nilpotent, the series reduces to a perfectly acceptable polynomial. Rewriting $1/(u+a)$ into the above form is a simple exercise in high school algebra but leads to the the need to verify the (easy) questions Arturo raises.
      $endgroup$
      – Derek Elkins
      Jan 21 '16 at 4:01











      8












      $begingroup$

      Let $v$ be the inverse of $u$, and suppose $a^2=0$. Note that
      $$(u+a)cdot v(1-va)=(1+va)(1-va)=1-v^2a^2=1-0=1.$$
      See if you can generalize this.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$









      • 1




        $begingroup$
        The way you constructed the element is wonderful. I've never thought about this way. Can I ask where did this idea come from?
        $endgroup$
        – Shannon
        Mar 14 '12 at 2:55
















      8












      $begingroup$

      Let $v$ be the inverse of $u$, and suppose $a^2=0$. Note that
      $$(u+a)cdot v(1-va)=(1+va)(1-va)=1-v^2a^2=1-0=1.$$
      See if you can generalize this.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$









      • 1




        $begingroup$
        The way you constructed the element is wonderful. I've never thought about this way. Can I ask where did this idea come from?
        $endgroup$
        – Shannon
        Mar 14 '12 at 2:55














      8












      8








      8





      $begingroup$

      Let $v$ be the inverse of $u$, and suppose $a^2=0$. Note that
      $$(u+a)cdot v(1-va)=(1+va)(1-va)=1-v^2a^2=1-0=1.$$
      See if you can generalize this.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$



      Let $v$ be the inverse of $u$, and suppose $a^2=0$. Note that
      $$(u+a)cdot v(1-va)=(1+va)(1-va)=1-v^2a^2=1-0=1.$$
      See if you can generalize this.







      share|cite|improve this answer












      share|cite|improve this answer



      share|cite|improve this answer










      answered Mar 14 '12 at 2:23









      Zev ChonolesZev Chonoles

      110k16230429




      110k16230429








      • 1




        $begingroup$
        The way you constructed the element is wonderful. I've never thought about this way. Can I ask where did this idea come from?
        $endgroup$
        – Shannon
        Mar 14 '12 at 2:55














      • 1




        $begingroup$
        The way you constructed the element is wonderful. I've never thought about this way. Can I ask where did this idea come from?
        $endgroup$
        – Shannon
        Mar 14 '12 at 2:55








      1




      1




      $begingroup$
      The way you constructed the element is wonderful. I've never thought about this way. Can I ask where did this idea come from?
      $endgroup$
      – Shannon
      Mar 14 '12 at 2:55




      $begingroup$
      The way you constructed the element is wonderful. I've never thought about this way. Can I ask where did this idea come from?
      $endgroup$
      – Shannon
      Mar 14 '12 at 2:55











      6












      $begingroup$

      Here's a rather different argument. First, suppose that $R$ is commutative. Suppose $u+a$ is not a unit. Then it is contained in some maximal ideal $Msubset R$. Since $a$ is nilpotent, $ain M$ (since $R/M$ is a field, and any nilpotent element of a field is $0$). Thus $u=(u+a)-ain M$ as well. But $u$ is a unit, so it can't be in any maximal ideal, and this is a contradiction.



      If you don't know that $R$ is commutative, let $Ssubseteq R$ be the subring generated by $a$, $u$, and $u^{-1}$. Then $S$ is commutative: the only thing that isn't immediate is that $u^{-1}$ commutes with $a$, and this this can be proven as follows: $$u^{-1}a=u^{-1}auu^{-1}=u^{-1}uau^{-1}=au^{-1}.$$



      The argument of the first paragraph now shows that $u+a$ is a unit in $S$, and hence also in $R$.





      This argument may seem horribly nonconstructive, due to the use of a maximal ideal (and hence the axiom of choice) and proof by contradiction. However, it can be made to be constructive and gives an explicit inverse for $u+a$ in terms of an inverse for $u$ and and an $n$ such that $a^n=0$.



      First, we observe that all that is actually required of the ideal $M$ is that it is a proper ideal which contains $u+a$ and all nilpotent elements of $R$. So we may replace $M$ with the ideal $(u+a)+N$ where $N$ is the nilradical of $R$, and use the fact that if $I=(u+a)$ is a proper ideal in a commutative ring then $I+N$ is still a proper ideal. This is because $R/(I+N)$ is the quotient of $R/I$ by the image of $N$, which is contained in the nilradical of $R/I$. If $I$ is a proper ideal, then $R/I$ is a nonzero ring, so its nilradical is a proper ideal, so $R/(I+N)$ is a nonzero ring and $I+N$ is a proper ideal.



      Next, we recast this argument as a direct proof instead of a proof by contradiction. Letting $I=(u+a)$, we observe that $I+N$ is not a proper ideal since $u=(u+a)-ain I+N$ and $u$ is a unit. That is, a nilpotent element (namely $a$) is a unit in the ring $R/I$, which means $R/I$ is the zero ring, which means $I=R$, which means $u+a$ is a unit.



      Finally, we chase through the explicit equations witnessing the statements above. Letting $v=u^{-1}$, we know that $v((u+a)-a)=1$ so $$-va=1-v(u+a),$$ witnessing that $a$ is a unit mod $u+a$ (with inverse $-v$). But $a$ is nilpotent, so $a^n=0$ for some $n$, and thus $0$ is also a unit mod $u+a$. We see this explicitly by raising our previous equation to the $n$th power: $$0=(-v)^na^n=(1-v(u+a))^n=1-nv(u+a)+binom{n}{2}v^2(u+a)^2+dots+(-v)^n(u+a)^n,$$ where every term after the first on the right-hand side is divisible by $u+a$. Factoring out this $u+a$, we find that $$1=(u+a)left(nv-binom{n}{2}v^2(u+a)+dots-(-v)^n(u+a)^{n-1}right)$$ and so $$-sum_{k=1}^n binom{n}{k}(-v)^k(u+a)^{k-1}= nv-binom{n}{2}v^2(u+a)+dots-(-v)^n(u+a)^{n-1}$$ is an inverse of $u+a$.



      The fact that this complicated formula is hidden in the one-paragraph conceptual argument given at the start of this answer is a nice example of how powerful and convenient the abstract machinery of ring theory can be.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$


















        6












        $begingroup$

        Here's a rather different argument. First, suppose that $R$ is commutative. Suppose $u+a$ is not a unit. Then it is contained in some maximal ideal $Msubset R$. Since $a$ is nilpotent, $ain M$ (since $R/M$ is a field, and any nilpotent element of a field is $0$). Thus $u=(u+a)-ain M$ as well. But $u$ is a unit, so it can't be in any maximal ideal, and this is a contradiction.



        If you don't know that $R$ is commutative, let $Ssubseteq R$ be the subring generated by $a$, $u$, and $u^{-1}$. Then $S$ is commutative: the only thing that isn't immediate is that $u^{-1}$ commutes with $a$, and this this can be proven as follows: $$u^{-1}a=u^{-1}auu^{-1}=u^{-1}uau^{-1}=au^{-1}.$$



        The argument of the first paragraph now shows that $u+a$ is a unit in $S$, and hence also in $R$.





        This argument may seem horribly nonconstructive, due to the use of a maximal ideal (and hence the axiom of choice) and proof by contradiction. However, it can be made to be constructive and gives an explicit inverse for $u+a$ in terms of an inverse for $u$ and and an $n$ such that $a^n=0$.



        First, we observe that all that is actually required of the ideal $M$ is that it is a proper ideal which contains $u+a$ and all nilpotent elements of $R$. So we may replace $M$ with the ideal $(u+a)+N$ where $N$ is the nilradical of $R$, and use the fact that if $I=(u+a)$ is a proper ideal in a commutative ring then $I+N$ is still a proper ideal. This is because $R/(I+N)$ is the quotient of $R/I$ by the image of $N$, which is contained in the nilradical of $R/I$. If $I$ is a proper ideal, then $R/I$ is a nonzero ring, so its nilradical is a proper ideal, so $R/(I+N)$ is a nonzero ring and $I+N$ is a proper ideal.



        Next, we recast this argument as a direct proof instead of a proof by contradiction. Letting $I=(u+a)$, we observe that $I+N$ is not a proper ideal since $u=(u+a)-ain I+N$ and $u$ is a unit. That is, a nilpotent element (namely $a$) is a unit in the ring $R/I$, which means $R/I$ is the zero ring, which means $I=R$, which means $u+a$ is a unit.



        Finally, we chase through the explicit equations witnessing the statements above. Letting $v=u^{-1}$, we know that $v((u+a)-a)=1$ so $$-va=1-v(u+a),$$ witnessing that $a$ is a unit mod $u+a$ (with inverse $-v$). But $a$ is nilpotent, so $a^n=0$ for some $n$, and thus $0$ is also a unit mod $u+a$. We see this explicitly by raising our previous equation to the $n$th power: $$0=(-v)^na^n=(1-v(u+a))^n=1-nv(u+a)+binom{n}{2}v^2(u+a)^2+dots+(-v)^n(u+a)^n,$$ where every term after the first on the right-hand side is divisible by $u+a$. Factoring out this $u+a$, we find that $$1=(u+a)left(nv-binom{n}{2}v^2(u+a)+dots-(-v)^n(u+a)^{n-1}right)$$ and so $$-sum_{k=1}^n binom{n}{k}(-v)^k(u+a)^{k-1}= nv-binom{n}{2}v^2(u+a)+dots-(-v)^n(u+a)^{n-1}$$ is an inverse of $u+a$.



        The fact that this complicated formula is hidden in the one-paragraph conceptual argument given at the start of this answer is a nice example of how powerful and convenient the abstract machinery of ring theory can be.






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$
















          6












          6








          6





          $begingroup$

          Here's a rather different argument. First, suppose that $R$ is commutative. Suppose $u+a$ is not a unit. Then it is contained in some maximal ideal $Msubset R$. Since $a$ is nilpotent, $ain M$ (since $R/M$ is a field, and any nilpotent element of a field is $0$). Thus $u=(u+a)-ain M$ as well. But $u$ is a unit, so it can't be in any maximal ideal, and this is a contradiction.



          If you don't know that $R$ is commutative, let $Ssubseteq R$ be the subring generated by $a$, $u$, and $u^{-1}$. Then $S$ is commutative: the only thing that isn't immediate is that $u^{-1}$ commutes with $a$, and this this can be proven as follows: $$u^{-1}a=u^{-1}auu^{-1}=u^{-1}uau^{-1}=au^{-1}.$$



          The argument of the first paragraph now shows that $u+a$ is a unit in $S$, and hence also in $R$.





          This argument may seem horribly nonconstructive, due to the use of a maximal ideal (and hence the axiom of choice) and proof by contradiction. However, it can be made to be constructive and gives an explicit inverse for $u+a$ in terms of an inverse for $u$ and and an $n$ such that $a^n=0$.



          First, we observe that all that is actually required of the ideal $M$ is that it is a proper ideal which contains $u+a$ and all nilpotent elements of $R$. So we may replace $M$ with the ideal $(u+a)+N$ where $N$ is the nilradical of $R$, and use the fact that if $I=(u+a)$ is a proper ideal in a commutative ring then $I+N$ is still a proper ideal. This is because $R/(I+N)$ is the quotient of $R/I$ by the image of $N$, which is contained in the nilradical of $R/I$. If $I$ is a proper ideal, then $R/I$ is a nonzero ring, so its nilradical is a proper ideal, so $R/(I+N)$ is a nonzero ring and $I+N$ is a proper ideal.



          Next, we recast this argument as a direct proof instead of a proof by contradiction. Letting $I=(u+a)$, we observe that $I+N$ is not a proper ideal since $u=(u+a)-ain I+N$ and $u$ is a unit. That is, a nilpotent element (namely $a$) is a unit in the ring $R/I$, which means $R/I$ is the zero ring, which means $I=R$, which means $u+a$ is a unit.



          Finally, we chase through the explicit equations witnessing the statements above. Letting $v=u^{-1}$, we know that $v((u+a)-a)=1$ so $$-va=1-v(u+a),$$ witnessing that $a$ is a unit mod $u+a$ (with inverse $-v$). But $a$ is nilpotent, so $a^n=0$ for some $n$, and thus $0$ is also a unit mod $u+a$. We see this explicitly by raising our previous equation to the $n$th power: $$0=(-v)^na^n=(1-v(u+a))^n=1-nv(u+a)+binom{n}{2}v^2(u+a)^2+dots+(-v)^n(u+a)^n,$$ where every term after the first on the right-hand side is divisible by $u+a$. Factoring out this $u+a$, we find that $$1=(u+a)left(nv-binom{n}{2}v^2(u+a)+dots-(-v)^n(u+a)^{n-1}right)$$ and so $$-sum_{k=1}^n binom{n}{k}(-v)^k(u+a)^{k-1}= nv-binom{n}{2}v^2(u+a)+dots-(-v)^n(u+a)^{n-1}$$ is an inverse of $u+a$.



          The fact that this complicated formula is hidden in the one-paragraph conceptual argument given at the start of this answer is a nice example of how powerful and convenient the abstract machinery of ring theory can be.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$



          Here's a rather different argument. First, suppose that $R$ is commutative. Suppose $u+a$ is not a unit. Then it is contained in some maximal ideal $Msubset R$. Since $a$ is nilpotent, $ain M$ (since $R/M$ is a field, and any nilpotent element of a field is $0$). Thus $u=(u+a)-ain M$ as well. But $u$ is a unit, so it can't be in any maximal ideal, and this is a contradiction.



          If you don't know that $R$ is commutative, let $Ssubseteq R$ be the subring generated by $a$, $u$, and $u^{-1}$. Then $S$ is commutative: the only thing that isn't immediate is that $u^{-1}$ commutes with $a$, and this this can be proven as follows: $$u^{-1}a=u^{-1}auu^{-1}=u^{-1}uau^{-1}=au^{-1}.$$



          The argument of the first paragraph now shows that $u+a$ is a unit in $S$, and hence also in $R$.





          This argument may seem horribly nonconstructive, due to the use of a maximal ideal (and hence the axiom of choice) and proof by contradiction. However, it can be made to be constructive and gives an explicit inverse for $u+a$ in terms of an inverse for $u$ and and an $n$ such that $a^n=0$.



          First, we observe that all that is actually required of the ideal $M$ is that it is a proper ideal which contains $u+a$ and all nilpotent elements of $R$. So we may replace $M$ with the ideal $(u+a)+N$ where $N$ is the nilradical of $R$, and use the fact that if $I=(u+a)$ is a proper ideal in a commutative ring then $I+N$ is still a proper ideal. This is because $R/(I+N)$ is the quotient of $R/I$ by the image of $N$, which is contained in the nilradical of $R/I$. If $I$ is a proper ideal, then $R/I$ is a nonzero ring, so its nilradical is a proper ideal, so $R/(I+N)$ is a nonzero ring and $I+N$ is a proper ideal.



          Next, we recast this argument as a direct proof instead of a proof by contradiction. Letting $I=(u+a)$, we observe that $I+N$ is not a proper ideal since $u=(u+a)-ain I+N$ and $u$ is a unit. That is, a nilpotent element (namely $a$) is a unit in the ring $R/I$, which means $R/I$ is the zero ring, which means $I=R$, which means $u+a$ is a unit.



          Finally, we chase through the explicit equations witnessing the statements above. Letting $v=u^{-1}$, we know that $v((u+a)-a)=1$ so $$-va=1-v(u+a),$$ witnessing that $a$ is a unit mod $u+a$ (with inverse $-v$). But $a$ is nilpotent, so $a^n=0$ for some $n$, and thus $0$ is also a unit mod $u+a$. We see this explicitly by raising our previous equation to the $n$th power: $$0=(-v)^na^n=(1-v(u+a))^n=1-nv(u+a)+binom{n}{2}v^2(u+a)^2+dots+(-v)^n(u+a)^n,$$ where every term after the first on the right-hand side is divisible by $u+a$. Factoring out this $u+a$, we find that $$1=(u+a)left(nv-binom{n}{2}v^2(u+a)+dots-(-v)^n(u+a)^{n-1}right)$$ and so $$-sum_{k=1}^n binom{n}{k}(-v)^k(u+a)^{k-1}= nv-binom{n}{2}v^2(u+a)+dots-(-v)^n(u+a)^{n-1}$$ is an inverse of $u+a$.



          The fact that this complicated formula is hidden in the one-paragraph conceptual argument given at the start of this answer is a nice example of how powerful and convenient the abstract machinery of ring theory can be.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Nov 2 '17 at 8:40

























          answered Dec 16 '15 at 8:28









          Eric WofseyEric Wofsey

          190k14216348




          190k14216348























              0












              $begingroup$

              Note that since $u$ is a unit and



              $ua = au, tag 1$



              we may write



              $a = u^{-1}au, tag 2$



              and thus



              $au^{-1} = u^{-1}a; tag 3$



              also, since $a$ is nilpotent there is some $0 < n in Bbb N$ such that



              $a^n = 0, tag 4$



              and thus



              $(u^{-1}a)^n = (au^{-1})^n = a^n (u^{-1})^n = (0) (u^{-1})^n = 0; tag 5$



              we observe that



              $u + a = u(1 + u^{-1}a), tag 6$



              and that, by virtue of (5),



              $(1 + u^{-1}a) displaystyle sum_0^{n - 1} (-u^{-1}a)^k = sum_0^{n - 1} (-u^{-1}a)^k + u^{-1}asum_0^{n - 1} (-u^{-1}a)^k$
              $= displaystyle sum_0^{n - 1} (-1)^k(u^{-1}a)^k + sum_0^{n - 1} (-1)^k(u^{-1}a)^{k + 1}$
              $= 1 + displaystyle sum_1^{n - 1} (-1)^k (u^{-1}a)^k + sum_0^{n - 2} (-1)^k(u^{-1}a)^{k + 1} + (-1)^{n - 1}(-u^{-1}a)^n$
              $= 1 + displaystyle sum_1^{n - 1} (-1)^k (u^{-1}a)^k + sum_1^{n - 1} (-1)^{k - 1}(u^{-1}a)^k = 1 + displaystyle sum_1^{n - 1} ((-1)^k + (-1)^{k - 1})(u^{-1}a)^k = 1; tag 7$



              this shows that



              $(1 + u^{-1}a)^{-1} = displaystyle sum_0^{n - 1} (-u^{-1}a)^k, tag 8$



              and we have demonstrated an explicit inverse for $1 + u^{-1}a$. Thus, by (6),



              $(u + a)^{-1} = (u(1 + u^{-1}a))^{-1} = (1 + u^{-1}a)^{-1} u^{-1}, tag 9$



              that is, $u + a$ is a unit.



              Nota Bene: The result proved above has an application to this question, which asks to show that $I - T$ is invertible for any nilpotent linear operator $T$. Taking $T = a$ and $I = u$ in the above immediately yields the existence of $(I - T)^{-1}$. End of Note.






              share|cite|improve this answer











              $endgroup$


















                0












                $begingroup$

                Note that since $u$ is a unit and



                $ua = au, tag 1$



                we may write



                $a = u^{-1}au, tag 2$



                and thus



                $au^{-1} = u^{-1}a; tag 3$



                also, since $a$ is nilpotent there is some $0 < n in Bbb N$ such that



                $a^n = 0, tag 4$



                and thus



                $(u^{-1}a)^n = (au^{-1})^n = a^n (u^{-1})^n = (0) (u^{-1})^n = 0; tag 5$



                we observe that



                $u + a = u(1 + u^{-1}a), tag 6$



                and that, by virtue of (5),



                $(1 + u^{-1}a) displaystyle sum_0^{n - 1} (-u^{-1}a)^k = sum_0^{n - 1} (-u^{-1}a)^k + u^{-1}asum_0^{n - 1} (-u^{-1}a)^k$
                $= displaystyle sum_0^{n - 1} (-1)^k(u^{-1}a)^k + sum_0^{n - 1} (-1)^k(u^{-1}a)^{k + 1}$
                $= 1 + displaystyle sum_1^{n - 1} (-1)^k (u^{-1}a)^k + sum_0^{n - 2} (-1)^k(u^{-1}a)^{k + 1} + (-1)^{n - 1}(-u^{-1}a)^n$
                $= 1 + displaystyle sum_1^{n - 1} (-1)^k (u^{-1}a)^k + sum_1^{n - 1} (-1)^{k - 1}(u^{-1}a)^k = 1 + displaystyle sum_1^{n - 1} ((-1)^k + (-1)^{k - 1})(u^{-1}a)^k = 1; tag 7$



                this shows that



                $(1 + u^{-1}a)^{-1} = displaystyle sum_0^{n - 1} (-u^{-1}a)^k, tag 8$



                and we have demonstrated an explicit inverse for $1 + u^{-1}a$. Thus, by (6),



                $(u + a)^{-1} = (u(1 + u^{-1}a))^{-1} = (1 + u^{-1}a)^{-1} u^{-1}, tag 9$



                that is, $u + a$ is a unit.



                Nota Bene: The result proved above has an application to this question, which asks to show that $I - T$ is invertible for any nilpotent linear operator $T$. Taking $T = a$ and $I = u$ in the above immediately yields the existence of $(I - T)^{-1}$. End of Note.






                share|cite|improve this answer











                $endgroup$
















                  0












                  0








                  0





                  $begingroup$

                  Note that since $u$ is a unit and



                  $ua = au, tag 1$



                  we may write



                  $a = u^{-1}au, tag 2$



                  and thus



                  $au^{-1} = u^{-1}a; tag 3$



                  also, since $a$ is nilpotent there is some $0 < n in Bbb N$ such that



                  $a^n = 0, tag 4$



                  and thus



                  $(u^{-1}a)^n = (au^{-1})^n = a^n (u^{-1})^n = (0) (u^{-1})^n = 0; tag 5$



                  we observe that



                  $u + a = u(1 + u^{-1}a), tag 6$



                  and that, by virtue of (5),



                  $(1 + u^{-1}a) displaystyle sum_0^{n - 1} (-u^{-1}a)^k = sum_0^{n - 1} (-u^{-1}a)^k + u^{-1}asum_0^{n - 1} (-u^{-1}a)^k$
                  $= displaystyle sum_0^{n - 1} (-1)^k(u^{-1}a)^k + sum_0^{n - 1} (-1)^k(u^{-1}a)^{k + 1}$
                  $= 1 + displaystyle sum_1^{n - 1} (-1)^k (u^{-1}a)^k + sum_0^{n - 2} (-1)^k(u^{-1}a)^{k + 1} + (-1)^{n - 1}(-u^{-1}a)^n$
                  $= 1 + displaystyle sum_1^{n - 1} (-1)^k (u^{-1}a)^k + sum_1^{n - 1} (-1)^{k - 1}(u^{-1}a)^k = 1 + displaystyle sum_1^{n - 1} ((-1)^k + (-1)^{k - 1})(u^{-1}a)^k = 1; tag 7$



                  this shows that



                  $(1 + u^{-1}a)^{-1} = displaystyle sum_0^{n - 1} (-u^{-1}a)^k, tag 8$



                  and we have demonstrated an explicit inverse for $1 + u^{-1}a$. Thus, by (6),



                  $(u + a)^{-1} = (u(1 + u^{-1}a))^{-1} = (1 + u^{-1}a)^{-1} u^{-1}, tag 9$



                  that is, $u + a$ is a unit.



                  Nota Bene: The result proved above has an application to this question, which asks to show that $I - T$ is invertible for any nilpotent linear operator $T$. Taking $T = a$ and $I = u$ in the above immediately yields the existence of $(I - T)^{-1}$. End of Note.






                  share|cite|improve this answer











                  $endgroup$



                  Note that since $u$ is a unit and



                  $ua = au, tag 1$



                  we may write



                  $a = u^{-1}au, tag 2$



                  and thus



                  $au^{-1} = u^{-1}a; tag 3$



                  also, since $a$ is nilpotent there is some $0 < n in Bbb N$ such that



                  $a^n = 0, tag 4$



                  and thus



                  $(u^{-1}a)^n = (au^{-1})^n = a^n (u^{-1})^n = (0) (u^{-1})^n = 0; tag 5$



                  we observe that



                  $u + a = u(1 + u^{-1}a), tag 6$



                  and that, by virtue of (5),



                  $(1 + u^{-1}a) displaystyle sum_0^{n - 1} (-u^{-1}a)^k = sum_0^{n - 1} (-u^{-1}a)^k + u^{-1}asum_0^{n - 1} (-u^{-1}a)^k$
                  $= displaystyle sum_0^{n - 1} (-1)^k(u^{-1}a)^k + sum_0^{n - 1} (-1)^k(u^{-1}a)^{k + 1}$
                  $= 1 + displaystyle sum_1^{n - 1} (-1)^k (u^{-1}a)^k + sum_0^{n - 2} (-1)^k(u^{-1}a)^{k + 1} + (-1)^{n - 1}(-u^{-1}a)^n$
                  $= 1 + displaystyle sum_1^{n - 1} (-1)^k (u^{-1}a)^k + sum_1^{n - 1} (-1)^{k - 1}(u^{-1}a)^k = 1 + displaystyle sum_1^{n - 1} ((-1)^k + (-1)^{k - 1})(u^{-1}a)^k = 1; tag 7$



                  this shows that



                  $(1 + u^{-1}a)^{-1} = displaystyle sum_0^{n - 1} (-u^{-1}a)^k, tag 8$



                  and we have demonstrated an explicit inverse for $1 + u^{-1}a$. Thus, by (6),



                  $(u + a)^{-1} = (u(1 + u^{-1}a))^{-1} = (1 + u^{-1}a)^{-1} u^{-1}, tag 9$



                  that is, $u + a$ is a unit.



                  Nota Bene: The result proved above has an application to this question, which asks to show that $I - T$ is invertible for any nilpotent linear operator $T$. Taking $T = a$ and $I = u$ in the above immediately yields the existence of $(I - T)^{-1}$. End of Note.







                  share|cite|improve this answer














                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer








                  edited Dec 29 '18 at 0:34

























                  answered Dec 29 '18 at 0:20









                  Robert LewisRobert Lewis

                  48.3k23167




                  48.3k23167






























                      draft saved

                      draft discarded




















































                      Thanks for contributing an answer to Mathematics Stack Exchange!


                      • Please be sure to answer the question. Provide details and share your research!

                      But avoid



                      • Asking for help, clarification, or responding to other answers.

                      • Making statements based on opinion; back them up with references or personal experience.


                      Use MathJax to format equations. MathJax reference.


                      To learn more, see our tips on writing great answers.




                      draft saved


                      draft discarded














                      StackExchange.ready(
                      function () {
                      StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f119904%2funits-and-nilpotents%23new-answer', 'question_page');
                      }
                      );

                      Post as a guest















                      Required, but never shown





















































                      Required, but never shown














                      Required, but never shown












                      Required, but never shown







                      Required, but never shown

































                      Required, but never shown














                      Required, but never shown












                      Required, but never shown







                      Required, but never shown







                      Popular posts from this blog

                      Probability when a professor distributes a quiz and homework assignment to a class of n students.

                      Aardman Animations

                      Are they similar matrix