Units and Nilpotents












24












$begingroup$



If $ua = au$, where $u$ is a unit and $a$ is a nilpotent, show that $u+a$ is a unit.




I've been working on this problem for an hour that I tried to construct an element $x in R$ such that $x(u+a) = 1 = (u+a)x$. After tried several elements and manipulated $ua = au$, I still couldn't find any clue. Can anybody give me a hint?










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$endgroup$








  • 4




    $begingroup$
    Dear Shannon, Try the case $u = 1$ first. Regards,
    $endgroup$
    – Matt E
    Mar 14 '12 at 2:23






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    See also here.
    $endgroup$
    – Bill Dubuque
    May 3 '12 at 14:43












  • $begingroup$
    See also here for the commutative case.
    $endgroup$
    – Bill Dubuque
    Aug 6 '17 at 15:21
















24












$begingroup$



If $ua = au$, where $u$ is a unit and $a$ is a nilpotent, show that $u+a$ is a unit.




I've been working on this problem for an hour that I tried to construct an element $x in R$ such that $x(u+a) = 1 = (u+a)x$. After tried several elements and manipulated $ua = au$, I still couldn't find any clue. Can anybody give me a hint?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 4




    $begingroup$
    Dear Shannon, Try the case $u = 1$ first. Regards,
    $endgroup$
    – Matt E
    Mar 14 '12 at 2:23






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    See also here.
    $endgroup$
    – Bill Dubuque
    May 3 '12 at 14:43












  • $begingroup$
    See also here for the commutative case.
    $endgroup$
    – Bill Dubuque
    Aug 6 '17 at 15:21














24












24








24


7



$begingroup$



If $ua = au$, where $u$ is a unit and $a$ is a nilpotent, show that $u+a$ is a unit.




I've been working on this problem for an hour that I tried to construct an element $x in R$ such that $x(u+a) = 1 = (u+a)x$. After tried several elements and manipulated $ua = au$, I still couldn't find any clue. Can anybody give me a hint?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$





If $ua = au$, where $u$ is a unit and $a$ is a nilpotent, show that $u+a$ is a unit.




I've been working on this problem for an hour that I tried to construct an element $x in R$ such that $x(u+a) = 1 = (u+a)x$. After tried several elements and manipulated $ua = au$, I still couldn't find any clue. Can anybody give me a hint?







abstract-algebra ring-theory faq






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edited Jun 26 '17 at 14:20









Trevor Gunn

14.9k32047




14.9k32047










asked Mar 14 '12 at 2:18









ShannonShannon

5433620




5433620








  • 4




    $begingroup$
    Dear Shannon, Try the case $u = 1$ first. Regards,
    $endgroup$
    – Matt E
    Mar 14 '12 at 2:23






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    See also here.
    $endgroup$
    – Bill Dubuque
    May 3 '12 at 14:43












  • $begingroup$
    See also here for the commutative case.
    $endgroup$
    – Bill Dubuque
    Aug 6 '17 at 15:21














  • 4




    $begingroup$
    Dear Shannon, Try the case $u = 1$ first. Regards,
    $endgroup$
    – Matt E
    Mar 14 '12 at 2:23






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    See also here.
    $endgroup$
    – Bill Dubuque
    May 3 '12 at 14:43












  • $begingroup$
    See also here for the commutative case.
    $endgroup$
    – Bill Dubuque
    Aug 6 '17 at 15:21








4




4




$begingroup$
Dear Shannon, Try the case $u = 1$ first. Regards,
$endgroup$
– Matt E
Mar 14 '12 at 2:23




$begingroup$
Dear Shannon, Try the case $u = 1$ first. Regards,
$endgroup$
– Matt E
Mar 14 '12 at 2:23




1




1




$begingroup$
See also here.
$endgroup$
– Bill Dubuque
May 3 '12 at 14:43






$begingroup$
See also here.
$endgroup$
– Bill Dubuque
May 3 '12 at 14:43














$begingroup$
See also here for the commutative case.
$endgroup$
– Bill Dubuque
Aug 6 '17 at 15:21




$begingroup$
See also here for the commutative case.
$endgroup$
– Bill Dubuque
Aug 6 '17 at 15:21










4 Answers
4






active

oldest

votes


















14












$begingroup$

If $u=1$, then you could do it via the identity
$$(1+a)(1-a+a^2-a^3+cdots + (-1)^{n}a^n) = 1 + (-1)^{n}a^{n+1}$$
by selecting $n$ large enough.



If $uv=vu=1$, does $a$ commute with $v$? Is $va$ nilpotent?






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    I had tried your way before I asked. But I used u+a instead of 1+a. I was stuck cause I couldnt conclude 1. Here, 1+a is a special case of u+a, do you have to prove u+a?
    $endgroup$
    – Shannon
    Mar 14 '12 at 2:51






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @Shannon: That's what my last paragraph is about. Multiply $u+a$ by $v$; then you get $1+(va)$... is $va$ nilpotent?
    $endgroup$
    – Arturo Magidin
    Mar 14 '12 at 2:56










  • $begingroup$
    oh, I see. I will work on it. Thank you so much.
    $endgroup$
    – Shannon
    Mar 14 '12 at 3:10










  • $begingroup$
    This identity can be heuristically arrived at, and the whole problem approached directly, by using the infinite series expansion of $1/(1-x)$ with, to start, $x = -a$. Since $a$ is nilpotent, the series reduces to a perfectly acceptable polynomial. Rewriting $1/(u+a)$ into the above form is a simple exercise in high school algebra but leads to the the need to verify the (easy) questions Arturo raises.
    $endgroup$
    – Derek Elkins
    Jan 21 '16 at 4:01



















8












$begingroup$

Let $v$ be the inverse of $u$, and suppose $a^2=0$. Note that
$$(u+a)cdot v(1-va)=(1+va)(1-va)=1-v^2a^2=1-0=1.$$
See if you can generalize this.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$









  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The way you constructed the element is wonderful. I've never thought about this way. Can I ask where did this idea come from?
    $endgroup$
    – Shannon
    Mar 14 '12 at 2:55



















6












$begingroup$

Here's a rather different argument. First, suppose that $R$ is commutative. Suppose $u+a$ is not a unit. Then it is contained in some maximal ideal $Msubset R$. Since $a$ is nilpotent, $ain M$ (since $R/M$ is a field, and any nilpotent element of a field is $0$). Thus $u=(u+a)-ain M$ as well. But $u$ is a unit, so it can't be in any maximal ideal, and this is a contradiction.



If you don't know that $R$ is commutative, let $Ssubseteq R$ be the subring generated by $a$, $u$, and $u^{-1}$. Then $S$ is commutative: the only thing that isn't immediate is that $u^{-1}$ commutes with $a$, and this this can be proven as follows: $$u^{-1}a=u^{-1}auu^{-1}=u^{-1}uau^{-1}=au^{-1}.$$



The argument of the first paragraph now shows that $u+a$ is a unit in $S$, and hence also in $R$.





This argument may seem horribly nonconstructive, due to the use of a maximal ideal (and hence the axiom of choice) and proof by contradiction. However, it can be made to be constructive and gives an explicit inverse for $u+a$ in terms of an inverse for $u$ and and an $n$ such that $a^n=0$.



First, we observe that all that is actually required of the ideal $M$ is that it is a proper ideal which contains $u+a$ and all nilpotent elements of $R$. So we may replace $M$ with the ideal $(u+a)+N$ where $N$ is the nilradical of $R$, and use the fact that if $I=(u+a)$ is a proper ideal in a commutative ring then $I+N$ is still a proper ideal. This is because $R/(I+N)$ is the quotient of $R/I$ by the image of $N$, which is contained in the nilradical of $R/I$. If $I$ is a proper ideal, then $R/I$ is a nonzero ring, so its nilradical is a proper ideal, so $R/(I+N)$ is a nonzero ring and $I+N$ is a proper ideal.



Next, we recast this argument as a direct proof instead of a proof by contradiction. Letting $I=(u+a)$, we observe that $I+N$ is not a proper ideal since $u=(u+a)-ain I+N$ and $u$ is a unit. That is, a nilpotent element (namely $a$) is a unit in the ring $R/I$, which means $R/I$ is the zero ring, which means $I=R$, which means $u+a$ is a unit.



Finally, we chase through the explicit equations witnessing the statements above. Letting $v=u^{-1}$, we know that $v((u+a)-a)=1$ so $$-va=1-v(u+a),$$ witnessing that $a$ is a unit mod $u+a$ (with inverse $-v$). But $a$ is nilpotent, so $a^n=0$ for some $n$, and thus $0$ is also a unit mod $u+a$. We see this explicitly by raising our previous equation to the $n$th power: $$0=(-v)^na^n=(1-v(u+a))^n=1-nv(u+a)+binom{n}{2}v^2(u+a)^2+dots+(-v)^n(u+a)^n,$$ where every term after the first on the right-hand side is divisible by $u+a$. Factoring out this $u+a$, we find that $$1=(u+a)left(nv-binom{n}{2}v^2(u+a)+dots-(-v)^n(u+a)^{n-1}right)$$ and so $$-sum_{k=1}^n binom{n}{k}(-v)^k(u+a)^{k-1}= nv-binom{n}{2}v^2(u+a)+dots-(-v)^n(u+a)^{n-1}$$ is an inverse of $u+a$.



The fact that this complicated formula is hidden in the one-paragraph conceptual argument given at the start of this answer is a nice example of how powerful and convenient the abstract machinery of ring theory can be.






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$endgroup$





















    0












    $begingroup$

    Note that since $u$ is a unit and



    $ua = au, tag 1$



    we may write



    $a = u^{-1}au, tag 2$



    and thus



    $au^{-1} = u^{-1}a; tag 3$



    also, since $a$ is nilpotent there is some $0 < n in Bbb N$ such that



    $a^n = 0, tag 4$



    and thus



    $(u^{-1}a)^n = (au^{-1})^n = a^n (u^{-1})^n = (0) (u^{-1})^n = 0; tag 5$



    we observe that



    $u + a = u(1 + u^{-1}a), tag 6$



    and that, by virtue of (5),



    $(1 + u^{-1}a) displaystyle sum_0^{n - 1} (-u^{-1}a)^k = sum_0^{n - 1} (-u^{-1}a)^k + u^{-1}asum_0^{n - 1} (-u^{-1}a)^k$
    $= displaystyle sum_0^{n - 1} (-1)^k(u^{-1}a)^k + sum_0^{n - 1} (-1)^k(u^{-1}a)^{k + 1}$
    $= 1 + displaystyle sum_1^{n - 1} (-1)^k (u^{-1}a)^k + sum_0^{n - 2} (-1)^k(u^{-1}a)^{k + 1} + (-1)^{n - 1}(-u^{-1}a)^n$
    $= 1 + displaystyle sum_1^{n - 1} (-1)^k (u^{-1}a)^k + sum_1^{n - 1} (-1)^{k - 1}(u^{-1}a)^k = 1 + displaystyle sum_1^{n - 1} ((-1)^k + (-1)^{k - 1})(u^{-1}a)^k = 1; tag 7$



    this shows that



    $(1 + u^{-1}a)^{-1} = displaystyle sum_0^{n - 1} (-u^{-1}a)^k, tag 8$



    and we have demonstrated an explicit inverse for $1 + u^{-1}a$. Thus, by (6),



    $(u + a)^{-1} = (u(1 + u^{-1}a))^{-1} = (1 + u^{-1}a)^{-1} u^{-1}, tag 9$



    that is, $u + a$ is a unit.



    Nota Bene: The result proved above has an application to this question, which asks to show that $I - T$ is invertible for any nilpotent linear operator $T$. Taking $T = a$ and $I = u$ in the above immediately yields the existence of $(I - T)^{-1}$. End of Note.






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      4 Answers
      4






      active

      oldest

      votes








      4 Answers
      4






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

      votes






      active

      oldest

      votes









      14












      $begingroup$

      If $u=1$, then you could do it via the identity
      $$(1+a)(1-a+a^2-a^3+cdots + (-1)^{n}a^n) = 1 + (-1)^{n}a^{n+1}$$
      by selecting $n$ large enough.



      If $uv=vu=1$, does $a$ commute with $v$? Is $va$ nilpotent?






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$













      • $begingroup$
        I had tried your way before I asked. But I used u+a instead of 1+a. I was stuck cause I couldnt conclude 1. Here, 1+a is a special case of u+a, do you have to prove u+a?
        $endgroup$
        – Shannon
        Mar 14 '12 at 2:51






      • 1




        $begingroup$
        @Shannon: That's what my last paragraph is about. Multiply $u+a$ by $v$; then you get $1+(va)$... is $va$ nilpotent?
        $endgroup$
        – Arturo Magidin
        Mar 14 '12 at 2:56










      • $begingroup$
        oh, I see. I will work on it. Thank you so much.
        $endgroup$
        – Shannon
        Mar 14 '12 at 3:10










      • $begingroup$
        This identity can be heuristically arrived at, and the whole problem approached directly, by using the infinite series expansion of $1/(1-x)$ with, to start, $x = -a$. Since $a$ is nilpotent, the series reduces to a perfectly acceptable polynomial. Rewriting $1/(u+a)$ into the above form is a simple exercise in high school algebra but leads to the the need to verify the (easy) questions Arturo raises.
        $endgroup$
        – Derek Elkins
        Jan 21 '16 at 4:01
















      14












      $begingroup$

      If $u=1$, then you could do it via the identity
      $$(1+a)(1-a+a^2-a^3+cdots + (-1)^{n}a^n) = 1 + (-1)^{n}a^{n+1}$$
      by selecting $n$ large enough.



      If $uv=vu=1$, does $a$ commute with $v$? Is $va$ nilpotent?






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$













      • $begingroup$
        I had tried your way before I asked. But I used u+a instead of 1+a. I was stuck cause I couldnt conclude 1. Here, 1+a is a special case of u+a, do you have to prove u+a?
        $endgroup$
        – Shannon
        Mar 14 '12 at 2:51






      • 1




        $begingroup$
        @Shannon: That's what my last paragraph is about. Multiply $u+a$ by $v$; then you get $1+(va)$... is $va$ nilpotent?
        $endgroup$
        – Arturo Magidin
        Mar 14 '12 at 2:56










      • $begingroup$
        oh, I see. I will work on it. Thank you so much.
        $endgroup$
        – Shannon
        Mar 14 '12 at 3:10










      • $begingroup$
        This identity can be heuristically arrived at, and the whole problem approached directly, by using the infinite series expansion of $1/(1-x)$ with, to start, $x = -a$. Since $a$ is nilpotent, the series reduces to a perfectly acceptable polynomial. Rewriting $1/(u+a)$ into the above form is a simple exercise in high school algebra but leads to the the need to verify the (easy) questions Arturo raises.
        $endgroup$
        – Derek Elkins
        Jan 21 '16 at 4:01














      14












      14








      14





      $begingroup$

      If $u=1$, then you could do it via the identity
      $$(1+a)(1-a+a^2-a^3+cdots + (-1)^{n}a^n) = 1 + (-1)^{n}a^{n+1}$$
      by selecting $n$ large enough.



      If $uv=vu=1$, does $a$ commute with $v$? Is $va$ nilpotent?






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$



      If $u=1$, then you could do it via the identity
      $$(1+a)(1-a+a^2-a^3+cdots + (-1)^{n}a^n) = 1 + (-1)^{n}a^{n+1}$$
      by selecting $n$ large enough.



      If $uv=vu=1$, does $a$ commute with $v$? Is $va$ nilpotent?







      share|cite|improve this answer














      share|cite|improve this answer



      share|cite|improve this answer








      edited Mar 25 '15 at 13:28









      AMPerrine

      2,90822026




      2,90822026










      answered Mar 14 '12 at 2:26









      Arturo MagidinArturo Magidin

      265k34590919




      265k34590919












      • $begingroup$
        I had tried your way before I asked. But I used u+a instead of 1+a. I was stuck cause I couldnt conclude 1. Here, 1+a is a special case of u+a, do you have to prove u+a?
        $endgroup$
        – Shannon
        Mar 14 '12 at 2:51






      • 1




        $begingroup$
        @Shannon: That's what my last paragraph is about. Multiply $u+a$ by $v$; then you get $1+(va)$... is $va$ nilpotent?
        $endgroup$
        – Arturo Magidin
        Mar 14 '12 at 2:56










      • $begingroup$
        oh, I see. I will work on it. Thank you so much.
        $endgroup$
        – Shannon
        Mar 14 '12 at 3:10










      • $begingroup$
        This identity can be heuristically arrived at, and the whole problem approached directly, by using the infinite series expansion of $1/(1-x)$ with, to start, $x = -a$. Since $a$ is nilpotent, the series reduces to a perfectly acceptable polynomial. Rewriting $1/(u+a)$ into the above form is a simple exercise in high school algebra but leads to the the need to verify the (easy) questions Arturo raises.
        $endgroup$
        – Derek Elkins
        Jan 21 '16 at 4:01


















      • $begingroup$
        I had tried your way before I asked. But I used u+a instead of 1+a. I was stuck cause I couldnt conclude 1. Here, 1+a is a special case of u+a, do you have to prove u+a?
        $endgroup$
        – Shannon
        Mar 14 '12 at 2:51






      • 1




        $begingroup$
        @Shannon: That's what my last paragraph is about. Multiply $u+a$ by $v$; then you get $1+(va)$... is $va$ nilpotent?
        $endgroup$
        – Arturo Magidin
        Mar 14 '12 at 2:56










      • $begingroup$
        oh, I see. I will work on it. Thank you so much.
        $endgroup$
        – Shannon
        Mar 14 '12 at 3:10










      • $begingroup$
        This identity can be heuristically arrived at, and the whole problem approached directly, by using the infinite series expansion of $1/(1-x)$ with, to start, $x = -a$. Since $a$ is nilpotent, the series reduces to a perfectly acceptable polynomial. Rewriting $1/(u+a)$ into the above form is a simple exercise in high school algebra but leads to the the need to verify the (easy) questions Arturo raises.
        $endgroup$
        – Derek Elkins
        Jan 21 '16 at 4:01
















      $begingroup$
      I had tried your way before I asked. But I used u+a instead of 1+a. I was stuck cause I couldnt conclude 1. Here, 1+a is a special case of u+a, do you have to prove u+a?
      $endgroup$
      – Shannon
      Mar 14 '12 at 2:51




      $begingroup$
      I had tried your way before I asked. But I used u+a instead of 1+a. I was stuck cause I couldnt conclude 1. Here, 1+a is a special case of u+a, do you have to prove u+a?
      $endgroup$
      – Shannon
      Mar 14 '12 at 2:51




      1




      1




      $begingroup$
      @Shannon: That's what my last paragraph is about. Multiply $u+a$ by $v$; then you get $1+(va)$... is $va$ nilpotent?
      $endgroup$
      – Arturo Magidin
      Mar 14 '12 at 2:56




      $begingroup$
      @Shannon: That's what my last paragraph is about. Multiply $u+a$ by $v$; then you get $1+(va)$... is $va$ nilpotent?
      $endgroup$
      – Arturo Magidin
      Mar 14 '12 at 2:56












      $begingroup$
      oh, I see. I will work on it. Thank you so much.
      $endgroup$
      – Shannon
      Mar 14 '12 at 3:10




      $begingroup$
      oh, I see. I will work on it. Thank you so much.
      $endgroup$
      – Shannon
      Mar 14 '12 at 3:10












      $begingroup$
      This identity can be heuristically arrived at, and the whole problem approached directly, by using the infinite series expansion of $1/(1-x)$ with, to start, $x = -a$. Since $a$ is nilpotent, the series reduces to a perfectly acceptable polynomial. Rewriting $1/(u+a)$ into the above form is a simple exercise in high school algebra but leads to the the need to verify the (easy) questions Arturo raises.
      $endgroup$
      – Derek Elkins
      Jan 21 '16 at 4:01




      $begingroup$
      This identity can be heuristically arrived at, and the whole problem approached directly, by using the infinite series expansion of $1/(1-x)$ with, to start, $x = -a$. Since $a$ is nilpotent, the series reduces to a perfectly acceptable polynomial. Rewriting $1/(u+a)$ into the above form is a simple exercise in high school algebra but leads to the the need to verify the (easy) questions Arturo raises.
      $endgroup$
      – Derek Elkins
      Jan 21 '16 at 4:01











      8












      $begingroup$

      Let $v$ be the inverse of $u$, and suppose $a^2=0$. Note that
      $$(u+a)cdot v(1-va)=(1+va)(1-va)=1-v^2a^2=1-0=1.$$
      See if you can generalize this.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$









      • 1




        $begingroup$
        The way you constructed the element is wonderful. I've never thought about this way. Can I ask where did this idea come from?
        $endgroup$
        – Shannon
        Mar 14 '12 at 2:55
















      8












      $begingroup$

      Let $v$ be the inverse of $u$, and suppose $a^2=0$. Note that
      $$(u+a)cdot v(1-va)=(1+va)(1-va)=1-v^2a^2=1-0=1.$$
      See if you can generalize this.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$









      • 1




        $begingroup$
        The way you constructed the element is wonderful. I've never thought about this way. Can I ask where did this idea come from?
        $endgroup$
        – Shannon
        Mar 14 '12 at 2:55














      8












      8








      8





      $begingroup$

      Let $v$ be the inverse of $u$, and suppose $a^2=0$. Note that
      $$(u+a)cdot v(1-va)=(1+va)(1-va)=1-v^2a^2=1-0=1.$$
      See if you can generalize this.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$



      Let $v$ be the inverse of $u$, and suppose $a^2=0$. Note that
      $$(u+a)cdot v(1-va)=(1+va)(1-va)=1-v^2a^2=1-0=1.$$
      See if you can generalize this.







      share|cite|improve this answer












      share|cite|improve this answer



      share|cite|improve this answer










      answered Mar 14 '12 at 2:23









      Zev ChonolesZev Chonoles

      110k16230429




      110k16230429








      • 1




        $begingroup$
        The way you constructed the element is wonderful. I've never thought about this way. Can I ask where did this idea come from?
        $endgroup$
        – Shannon
        Mar 14 '12 at 2:55














      • 1




        $begingroup$
        The way you constructed the element is wonderful. I've never thought about this way. Can I ask where did this idea come from?
        $endgroup$
        – Shannon
        Mar 14 '12 at 2:55








      1




      1




      $begingroup$
      The way you constructed the element is wonderful. I've never thought about this way. Can I ask where did this idea come from?
      $endgroup$
      – Shannon
      Mar 14 '12 at 2:55




      $begingroup$
      The way you constructed the element is wonderful. I've never thought about this way. Can I ask where did this idea come from?
      $endgroup$
      – Shannon
      Mar 14 '12 at 2:55











      6












      $begingroup$

      Here's a rather different argument. First, suppose that $R$ is commutative. Suppose $u+a$ is not a unit. Then it is contained in some maximal ideal $Msubset R$. Since $a$ is nilpotent, $ain M$ (since $R/M$ is a field, and any nilpotent element of a field is $0$). Thus $u=(u+a)-ain M$ as well. But $u$ is a unit, so it can't be in any maximal ideal, and this is a contradiction.



      If you don't know that $R$ is commutative, let $Ssubseteq R$ be the subring generated by $a$, $u$, and $u^{-1}$. Then $S$ is commutative: the only thing that isn't immediate is that $u^{-1}$ commutes with $a$, and this this can be proven as follows: $$u^{-1}a=u^{-1}auu^{-1}=u^{-1}uau^{-1}=au^{-1}.$$



      The argument of the first paragraph now shows that $u+a$ is a unit in $S$, and hence also in $R$.





      This argument may seem horribly nonconstructive, due to the use of a maximal ideal (and hence the axiom of choice) and proof by contradiction. However, it can be made to be constructive and gives an explicit inverse for $u+a$ in terms of an inverse for $u$ and and an $n$ such that $a^n=0$.



      First, we observe that all that is actually required of the ideal $M$ is that it is a proper ideal which contains $u+a$ and all nilpotent elements of $R$. So we may replace $M$ with the ideal $(u+a)+N$ where $N$ is the nilradical of $R$, and use the fact that if $I=(u+a)$ is a proper ideal in a commutative ring then $I+N$ is still a proper ideal. This is because $R/(I+N)$ is the quotient of $R/I$ by the image of $N$, which is contained in the nilradical of $R/I$. If $I$ is a proper ideal, then $R/I$ is a nonzero ring, so its nilradical is a proper ideal, so $R/(I+N)$ is a nonzero ring and $I+N$ is a proper ideal.



      Next, we recast this argument as a direct proof instead of a proof by contradiction. Letting $I=(u+a)$, we observe that $I+N$ is not a proper ideal since $u=(u+a)-ain I+N$ and $u$ is a unit. That is, a nilpotent element (namely $a$) is a unit in the ring $R/I$, which means $R/I$ is the zero ring, which means $I=R$, which means $u+a$ is a unit.



      Finally, we chase through the explicit equations witnessing the statements above. Letting $v=u^{-1}$, we know that $v((u+a)-a)=1$ so $$-va=1-v(u+a),$$ witnessing that $a$ is a unit mod $u+a$ (with inverse $-v$). But $a$ is nilpotent, so $a^n=0$ for some $n$, and thus $0$ is also a unit mod $u+a$. We see this explicitly by raising our previous equation to the $n$th power: $$0=(-v)^na^n=(1-v(u+a))^n=1-nv(u+a)+binom{n}{2}v^2(u+a)^2+dots+(-v)^n(u+a)^n,$$ where every term after the first on the right-hand side is divisible by $u+a$. Factoring out this $u+a$, we find that $$1=(u+a)left(nv-binom{n}{2}v^2(u+a)+dots-(-v)^n(u+a)^{n-1}right)$$ and so $$-sum_{k=1}^n binom{n}{k}(-v)^k(u+a)^{k-1}= nv-binom{n}{2}v^2(u+a)+dots-(-v)^n(u+a)^{n-1}$$ is an inverse of $u+a$.



      The fact that this complicated formula is hidden in the one-paragraph conceptual argument given at the start of this answer is a nice example of how powerful and convenient the abstract machinery of ring theory can be.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$


















        6












        $begingroup$

        Here's a rather different argument. First, suppose that $R$ is commutative. Suppose $u+a$ is not a unit. Then it is contained in some maximal ideal $Msubset R$. Since $a$ is nilpotent, $ain M$ (since $R/M$ is a field, and any nilpotent element of a field is $0$). Thus $u=(u+a)-ain M$ as well. But $u$ is a unit, so it can't be in any maximal ideal, and this is a contradiction.



        If you don't know that $R$ is commutative, let $Ssubseteq R$ be the subring generated by $a$, $u$, and $u^{-1}$. Then $S$ is commutative: the only thing that isn't immediate is that $u^{-1}$ commutes with $a$, and this this can be proven as follows: $$u^{-1}a=u^{-1}auu^{-1}=u^{-1}uau^{-1}=au^{-1}.$$



        The argument of the first paragraph now shows that $u+a$ is a unit in $S$, and hence also in $R$.





        This argument may seem horribly nonconstructive, due to the use of a maximal ideal (and hence the axiom of choice) and proof by contradiction. However, it can be made to be constructive and gives an explicit inverse for $u+a$ in terms of an inverse for $u$ and and an $n$ such that $a^n=0$.



        First, we observe that all that is actually required of the ideal $M$ is that it is a proper ideal which contains $u+a$ and all nilpotent elements of $R$. So we may replace $M$ with the ideal $(u+a)+N$ where $N$ is the nilradical of $R$, and use the fact that if $I=(u+a)$ is a proper ideal in a commutative ring then $I+N$ is still a proper ideal. This is because $R/(I+N)$ is the quotient of $R/I$ by the image of $N$, which is contained in the nilradical of $R/I$. If $I$ is a proper ideal, then $R/I$ is a nonzero ring, so its nilradical is a proper ideal, so $R/(I+N)$ is a nonzero ring and $I+N$ is a proper ideal.



        Next, we recast this argument as a direct proof instead of a proof by contradiction. Letting $I=(u+a)$, we observe that $I+N$ is not a proper ideal since $u=(u+a)-ain I+N$ and $u$ is a unit. That is, a nilpotent element (namely $a$) is a unit in the ring $R/I$, which means $R/I$ is the zero ring, which means $I=R$, which means $u+a$ is a unit.



        Finally, we chase through the explicit equations witnessing the statements above. Letting $v=u^{-1}$, we know that $v((u+a)-a)=1$ so $$-va=1-v(u+a),$$ witnessing that $a$ is a unit mod $u+a$ (with inverse $-v$). But $a$ is nilpotent, so $a^n=0$ for some $n$, and thus $0$ is also a unit mod $u+a$. We see this explicitly by raising our previous equation to the $n$th power: $$0=(-v)^na^n=(1-v(u+a))^n=1-nv(u+a)+binom{n}{2}v^2(u+a)^2+dots+(-v)^n(u+a)^n,$$ where every term after the first on the right-hand side is divisible by $u+a$. Factoring out this $u+a$, we find that $$1=(u+a)left(nv-binom{n}{2}v^2(u+a)+dots-(-v)^n(u+a)^{n-1}right)$$ and so $$-sum_{k=1}^n binom{n}{k}(-v)^k(u+a)^{k-1}= nv-binom{n}{2}v^2(u+a)+dots-(-v)^n(u+a)^{n-1}$$ is an inverse of $u+a$.



        The fact that this complicated formula is hidden in the one-paragraph conceptual argument given at the start of this answer is a nice example of how powerful and convenient the abstract machinery of ring theory can be.






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$
















          6












          6








          6





          $begingroup$

          Here's a rather different argument. First, suppose that $R$ is commutative. Suppose $u+a$ is not a unit. Then it is contained in some maximal ideal $Msubset R$. Since $a$ is nilpotent, $ain M$ (since $R/M$ is a field, and any nilpotent element of a field is $0$). Thus $u=(u+a)-ain M$ as well. But $u$ is a unit, so it can't be in any maximal ideal, and this is a contradiction.



          If you don't know that $R$ is commutative, let $Ssubseteq R$ be the subring generated by $a$, $u$, and $u^{-1}$. Then $S$ is commutative: the only thing that isn't immediate is that $u^{-1}$ commutes with $a$, and this this can be proven as follows: $$u^{-1}a=u^{-1}auu^{-1}=u^{-1}uau^{-1}=au^{-1}.$$



          The argument of the first paragraph now shows that $u+a$ is a unit in $S$, and hence also in $R$.





          This argument may seem horribly nonconstructive, due to the use of a maximal ideal (and hence the axiom of choice) and proof by contradiction. However, it can be made to be constructive and gives an explicit inverse for $u+a$ in terms of an inverse for $u$ and and an $n$ such that $a^n=0$.



          First, we observe that all that is actually required of the ideal $M$ is that it is a proper ideal which contains $u+a$ and all nilpotent elements of $R$. So we may replace $M$ with the ideal $(u+a)+N$ where $N$ is the nilradical of $R$, and use the fact that if $I=(u+a)$ is a proper ideal in a commutative ring then $I+N$ is still a proper ideal. This is because $R/(I+N)$ is the quotient of $R/I$ by the image of $N$, which is contained in the nilradical of $R/I$. If $I$ is a proper ideal, then $R/I$ is a nonzero ring, so its nilradical is a proper ideal, so $R/(I+N)$ is a nonzero ring and $I+N$ is a proper ideal.



          Next, we recast this argument as a direct proof instead of a proof by contradiction. Letting $I=(u+a)$, we observe that $I+N$ is not a proper ideal since $u=(u+a)-ain I+N$ and $u$ is a unit. That is, a nilpotent element (namely $a$) is a unit in the ring $R/I$, which means $R/I$ is the zero ring, which means $I=R$, which means $u+a$ is a unit.



          Finally, we chase through the explicit equations witnessing the statements above. Letting $v=u^{-1}$, we know that $v((u+a)-a)=1$ so $$-va=1-v(u+a),$$ witnessing that $a$ is a unit mod $u+a$ (with inverse $-v$). But $a$ is nilpotent, so $a^n=0$ for some $n$, and thus $0$ is also a unit mod $u+a$. We see this explicitly by raising our previous equation to the $n$th power: $$0=(-v)^na^n=(1-v(u+a))^n=1-nv(u+a)+binom{n}{2}v^2(u+a)^2+dots+(-v)^n(u+a)^n,$$ where every term after the first on the right-hand side is divisible by $u+a$. Factoring out this $u+a$, we find that $$1=(u+a)left(nv-binom{n}{2}v^2(u+a)+dots-(-v)^n(u+a)^{n-1}right)$$ and so $$-sum_{k=1}^n binom{n}{k}(-v)^k(u+a)^{k-1}= nv-binom{n}{2}v^2(u+a)+dots-(-v)^n(u+a)^{n-1}$$ is an inverse of $u+a$.



          The fact that this complicated formula is hidden in the one-paragraph conceptual argument given at the start of this answer is a nice example of how powerful and convenient the abstract machinery of ring theory can be.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$



          Here's a rather different argument. First, suppose that $R$ is commutative. Suppose $u+a$ is not a unit. Then it is contained in some maximal ideal $Msubset R$. Since $a$ is nilpotent, $ain M$ (since $R/M$ is a field, and any nilpotent element of a field is $0$). Thus $u=(u+a)-ain M$ as well. But $u$ is a unit, so it can't be in any maximal ideal, and this is a contradiction.



          If you don't know that $R$ is commutative, let $Ssubseteq R$ be the subring generated by $a$, $u$, and $u^{-1}$. Then $S$ is commutative: the only thing that isn't immediate is that $u^{-1}$ commutes with $a$, and this this can be proven as follows: $$u^{-1}a=u^{-1}auu^{-1}=u^{-1}uau^{-1}=au^{-1}.$$



          The argument of the first paragraph now shows that $u+a$ is a unit in $S$, and hence also in $R$.





          This argument may seem horribly nonconstructive, due to the use of a maximal ideal (and hence the axiom of choice) and proof by contradiction. However, it can be made to be constructive and gives an explicit inverse for $u+a$ in terms of an inverse for $u$ and and an $n$ such that $a^n=0$.



          First, we observe that all that is actually required of the ideal $M$ is that it is a proper ideal which contains $u+a$ and all nilpotent elements of $R$. So we may replace $M$ with the ideal $(u+a)+N$ where $N$ is the nilradical of $R$, and use the fact that if $I=(u+a)$ is a proper ideal in a commutative ring then $I+N$ is still a proper ideal. This is because $R/(I+N)$ is the quotient of $R/I$ by the image of $N$, which is contained in the nilradical of $R/I$. If $I$ is a proper ideal, then $R/I$ is a nonzero ring, so its nilradical is a proper ideal, so $R/(I+N)$ is a nonzero ring and $I+N$ is a proper ideal.



          Next, we recast this argument as a direct proof instead of a proof by contradiction. Letting $I=(u+a)$, we observe that $I+N$ is not a proper ideal since $u=(u+a)-ain I+N$ and $u$ is a unit. That is, a nilpotent element (namely $a$) is a unit in the ring $R/I$, which means $R/I$ is the zero ring, which means $I=R$, which means $u+a$ is a unit.



          Finally, we chase through the explicit equations witnessing the statements above. Letting $v=u^{-1}$, we know that $v((u+a)-a)=1$ so $$-va=1-v(u+a),$$ witnessing that $a$ is a unit mod $u+a$ (with inverse $-v$). But $a$ is nilpotent, so $a^n=0$ for some $n$, and thus $0$ is also a unit mod $u+a$. We see this explicitly by raising our previous equation to the $n$th power: $$0=(-v)^na^n=(1-v(u+a))^n=1-nv(u+a)+binom{n}{2}v^2(u+a)^2+dots+(-v)^n(u+a)^n,$$ where every term after the first on the right-hand side is divisible by $u+a$. Factoring out this $u+a$, we find that $$1=(u+a)left(nv-binom{n}{2}v^2(u+a)+dots-(-v)^n(u+a)^{n-1}right)$$ and so $$-sum_{k=1}^n binom{n}{k}(-v)^k(u+a)^{k-1}= nv-binom{n}{2}v^2(u+a)+dots-(-v)^n(u+a)^{n-1}$$ is an inverse of $u+a$.



          The fact that this complicated formula is hidden in the one-paragraph conceptual argument given at the start of this answer is a nice example of how powerful and convenient the abstract machinery of ring theory can be.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Nov 2 '17 at 8:40

























          answered Dec 16 '15 at 8:28









          Eric WofseyEric Wofsey

          190k14216348




          190k14216348























              0












              $begingroup$

              Note that since $u$ is a unit and



              $ua = au, tag 1$



              we may write



              $a = u^{-1}au, tag 2$



              and thus



              $au^{-1} = u^{-1}a; tag 3$



              also, since $a$ is nilpotent there is some $0 < n in Bbb N$ such that



              $a^n = 0, tag 4$



              and thus



              $(u^{-1}a)^n = (au^{-1})^n = a^n (u^{-1})^n = (0) (u^{-1})^n = 0; tag 5$



              we observe that



              $u + a = u(1 + u^{-1}a), tag 6$



              and that, by virtue of (5),



              $(1 + u^{-1}a) displaystyle sum_0^{n - 1} (-u^{-1}a)^k = sum_0^{n - 1} (-u^{-1}a)^k + u^{-1}asum_0^{n - 1} (-u^{-1}a)^k$
              $= displaystyle sum_0^{n - 1} (-1)^k(u^{-1}a)^k + sum_0^{n - 1} (-1)^k(u^{-1}a)^{k + 1}$
              $= 1 + displaystyle sum_1^{n - 1} (-1)^k (u^{-1}a)^k + sum_0^{n - 2} (-1)^k(u^{-1}a)^{k + 1} + (-1)^{n - 1}(-u^{-1}a)^n$
              $= 1 + displaystyle sum_1^{n - 1} (-1)^k (u^{-1}a)^k + sum_1^{n - 1} (-1)^{k - 1}(u^{-1}a)^k = 1 + displaystyle sum_1^{n - 1} ((-1)^k + (-1)^{k - 1})(u^{-1}a)^k = 1; tag 7$



              this shows that



              $(1 + u^{-1}a)^{-1} = displaystyle sum_0^{n - 1} (-u^{-1}a)^k, tag 8$



              and we have demonstrated an explicit inverse for $1 + u^{-1}a$. Thus, by (6),



              $(u + a)^{-1} = (u(1 + u^{-1}a))^{-1} = (1 + u^{-1}a)^{-1} u^{-1}, tag 9$



              that is, $u + a$ is a unit.



              Nota Bene: The result proved above has an application to this question, which asks to show that $I - T$ is invertible for any nilpotent linear operator $T$. Taking $T = a$ and $I = u$ in the above immediately yields the existence of $(I - T)^{-1}$. End of Note.






              share|cite|improve this answer











              $endgroup$


















                0












                $begingroup$

                Note that since $u$ is a unit and



                $ua = au, tag 1$



                we may write



                $a = u^{-1}au, tag 2$



                and thus



                $au^{-1} = u^{-1}a; tag 3$



                also, since $a$ is nilpotent there is some $0 < n in Bbb N$ such that



                $a^n = 0, tag 4$



                and thus



                $(u^{-1}a)^n = (au^{-1})^n = a^n (u^{-1})^n = (0) (u^{-1})^n = 0; tag 5$



                we observe that



                $u + a = u(1 + u^{-1}a), tag 6$



                and that, by virtue of (5),



                $(1 + u^{-1}a) displaystyle sum_0^{n - 1} (-u^{-1}a)^k = sum_0^{n - 1} (-u^{-1}a)^k + u^{-1}asum_0^{n - 1} (-u^{-1}a)^k$
                $= displaystyle sum_0^{n - 1} (-1)^k(u^{-1}a)^k + sum_0^{n - 1} (-1)^k(u^{-1}a)^{k + 1}$
                $= 1 + displaystyle sum_1^{n - 1} (-1)^k (u^{-1}a)^k + sum_0^{n - 2} (-1)^k(u^{-1}a)^{k + 1} + (-1)^{n - 1}(-u^{-1}a)^n$
                $= 1 + displaystyle sum_1^{n - 1} (-1)^k (u^{-1}a)^k + sum_1^{n - 1} (-1)^{k - 1}(u^{-1}a)^k = 1 + displaystyle sum_1^{n - 1} ((-1)^k + (-1)^{k - 1})(u^{-1}a)^k = 1; tag 7$



                this shows that



                $(1 + u^{-1}a)^{-1} = displaystyle sum_0^{n - 1} (-u^{-1}a)^k, tag 8$



                and we have demonstrated an explicit inverse for $1 + u^{-1}a$. Thus, by (6),



                $(u + a)^{-1} = (u(1 + u^{-1}a))^{-1} = (1 + u^{-1}a)^{-1} u^{-1}, tag 9$



                that is, $u + a$ is a unit.



                Nota Bene: The result proved above has an application to this question, which asks to show that $I - T$ is invertible for any nilpotent linear operator $T$. Taking $T = a$ and $I = u$ in the above immediately yields the existence of $(I - T)^{-1}$. End of Note.






                share|cite|improve this answer











                $endgroup$
















                  0












                  0








                  0





                  $begingroup$

                  Note that since $u$ is a unit and



                  $ua = au, tag 1$



                  we may write



                  $a = u^{-1}au, tag 2$



                  and thus



                  $au^{-1} = u^{-1}a; tag 3$



                  also, since $a$ is nilpotent there is some $0 < n in Bbb N$ such that



                  $a^n = 0, tag 4$



                  and thus



                  $(u^{-1}a)^n = (au^{-1})^n = a^n (u^{-1})^n = (0) (u^{-1})^n = 0; tag 5$



                  we observe that



                  $u + a = u(1 + u^{-1}a), tag 6$



                  and that, by virtue of (5),



                  $(1 + u^{-1}a) displaystyle sum_0^{n - 1} (-u^{-1}a)^k = sum_0^{n - 1} (-u^{-1}a)^k + u^{-1}asum_0^{n - 1} (-u^{-1}a)^k$
                  $= displaystyle sum_0^{n - 1} (-1)^k(u^{-1}a)^k + sum_0^{n - 1} (-1)^k(u^{-1}a)^{k + 1}$
                  $= 1 + displaystyle sum_1^{n - 1} (-1)^k (u^{-1}a)^k + sum_0^{n - 2} (-1)^k(u^{-1}a)^{k + 1} + (-1)^{n - 1}(-u^{-1}a)^n$
                  $= 1 + displaystyle sum_1^{n - 1} (-1)^k (u^{-1}a)^k + sum_1^{n - 1} (-1)^{k - 1}(u^{-1}a)^k = 1 + displaystyle sum_1^{n - 1} ((-1)^k + (-1)^{k - 1})(u^{-1}a)^k = 1; tag 7$



                  this shows that



                  $(1 + u^{-1}a)^{-1} = displaystyle sum_0^{n - 1} (-u^{-1}a)^k, tag 8$



                  and we have demonstrated an explicit inverse for $1 + u^{-1}a$. Thus, by (6),



                  $(u + a)^{-1} = (u(1 + u^{-1}a))^{-1} = (1 + u^{-1}a)^{-1} u^{-1}, tag 9$



                  that is, $u + a$ is a unit.



                  Nota Bene: The result proved above has an application to this question, which asks to show that $I - T$ is invertible for any nilpotent linear operator $T$. Taking $T = a$ and $I = u$ in the above immediately yields the existence of $(I - T)^{-1}$. End of Note.






                  share|cite|improve this answer











                  $endgroup$



                  Note that since $u$ is a unit and



                  $ua = au, tag 1$



                  we may write



                  $a = u^{-1}au, tag 2$



                  and thus



                  $au^{-1} = u^{-1}a; tag 3$



                  also, since $a$ is nilpotent there is some $0 < n in Bbb N$ such that



                  $a^n = 0, tag 4$



                  and thus



                  $(u^{-1}a)^n = (au^{-1})^n = a^n (u^{-1})^n = (0) (u^{-1})^n = 0; tag 5$



                  we observe that



                  $u + a = u(1 + u^{-1}a), tag 6$



                  and that, by virtue of (5),



                  $(1 + u^{-1}a) displaystyle sum_0^{n - 1} (-u^{-1}a)^k = sum_0^{n - 1} (-u^{-1}a)^k + u^{-1}asum_0^{n - 1} (-u^{-1}a)^k$
                  $= displaystyle sum_0^{n - 1} (-1)^k(u^{-1}a)^k + sum_0^{n - 1} (-1)^k(u^{-1}a)^{k + 1}$
                  $= 1 + displaystyle sum_1^{n - 1} (-1)^k (u^{-1}a)^k + sum_0^{n - 2} (-1)^k(u^{-1}a)^{k + 1} + (-1)^{n - 1}(-u^{-1}a)^n$
                  $= 1 + displaystyle sum_1^{n - 1} (-1)^k (u^{-1}a)^k + sum_1^{n - 1} (-1)^{k - 1}(u^{-1}a)^k = 1 + displaystyle sum_1^{n - 1} ((-1)^k + (-1)^{k - 1})(u^{-1}a)^k = 1; tag 7$



                  this shows that



                  $(1 + u^{-1}a)^{-1} = displaystyle sum_0^{n - 1} (-u^{-1}a)^k, tag 8$



                  and we have demonstrated an explicit inverse for $1 + u^{-1}a$. Thus, by (6),



                  $(u + a)^{-1} = (u(1 + u^{-1}a))^{-1} = (1 + u^{-1}a)^{-1} u^{-1}, tag 9$



                  that is, $u + a$ is a unit.



                  Nota Bene: The result proved above has an application to this question, which asks to show that $I - T$ is invertible for any nilpotent linear operator $T$. Taking $T = a$ and $I = u$ in the above immediately yields the existence of $(I - T)^{-1}$. End of Note.







                  share|cite|improve this answer














                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer








                  edited Dec 29 '18 at 0:34

























                  answered Dec 29 '18 at 0:20









                  Robert LewisRobert Lewis

                  48.3k23167




                  48.3k23167






























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