Inductive proof verification












0












$begingroup$


Prove that $x^n>1$ using induction given that $x>1$.
Here was my way of (maybe) proving it:
Step 1: $x^1>1$ which is true going back to what is given.
Step 2: Assume $x^k>1$
Step 3: Prove $x^{k+1}>1$ (If someone could show me how to properly format exponents with operations in them please do so).



$x^{k+1}=xcdot x^k>1 cdot k$



$x cdot x^k>1 cdot k rightarrow x^k>1$
So because I got back to the fact that $x^k>1$, and showed that $x^{k+1}$ is equal to it, am I done?










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$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    You are close, but your logic is a bit off. Induction requires (i) proving for some base case (which you have done), (ii) supposing your statement is true for $n=k$, and then (iii) proving the statement is true for $n= k+1$. So you should be wanting to show $x^{k+1} > 1$ rather than 'getting back to the fact that $x^k > 1$'.
    $endgroup$
    – T. Fo
    Dec 29 '18 at 3:47












  • $begingroup$
    How do you get that $xcdot x^k > 1 cdot k$? That isn't nescessarily true. (So $x = 1.00001$ and $k = 3$ then $x^4 not >3$.) But You should have $xcdot x^k > 1cdot x^k$. And as $x^k > 1$ we have $x^{k+1} > x^k > 1$.
    $endgroup$
    – fleablood
    Dec 29 '18 at 4:06








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    ..... in fact informally you should have $1 < x < x^2 < x^3 <...... < x^k < x^{k+1}$. That may informal and and novice student might think it is "childish" and can't be correct. But it is correct, and that IS the thinking the induction is supposed to evoke.
    $endgroup$
    – fleablood
    Dec 29 '18 at 4:10
















0












$begingroup$


Prove that $x^n>1$ using induction given that $x>1$.
Here was my way of (maybe) proving it:
Step 1: $x^1>1$ which is true going back to what is given.
Step 2: Assume $x^k>1$
Step 3: Prove $x^{k+1}>1$ (If someone could show me how to properly format exponents with operations in them please do so).



$x^{k+1}=xcdot x^k>1 cdot k$



$x cdot x^k>1 cdot k rightarrow x^k>1$
So because I got back to the fact that $x^k>1$, and showed that $x^{k+1}$ is equal to it, am I done?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    You are close, but your logic is a bit off. Induction requires (i) proving for some base case (which you have done), (ii) supposing your statement is true for $n=k$, and then (iii) proving the statement is true for $n= k+1$. So you should be wanting to show $x^{k+1} > 1$ rather than 'getting back to the fact that $x^k > 1$'.
    $endgroup$
    – T. Fo
    Dec 29 '18 at 3:47












  • $begingroup$
    How do you get that $xcdot x^k > 1 cdot k$? That isn't nescessarily true. (So $x = 1.00001$ and $k = 3$ then $x^4 not >3$.) But You should have $xcdot x^k > 1cdot x^k$. And as $x^k > 1$ we have $x^{k+1} > x^k > 1$.
    $endgroup$
    – fleablood
    Dec 29 '18 at 4:06








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    ..... in fact informally you should have $1 < x < x^2 < x^3 <...... < x^k < x^{k+1}$. That may informal and and novice student might think it is "childish" and can't be correct. But it is correct, and that IS the thinking the induction is supposed to evoke.
    $endgroup$
    – fleablood
    Dec 29 '18 at 4:10














0












0








0





$begingroup$


Prove that $x^n>1$ using induction given that $x>1$.
Here was my way of (maybe) proving it:
Step 1: $x^1>1$ which is true going back to what is given.
Step 2: Assume $x^k>1$
Step 3: Prove $x^{k+1}>1$ (If someone could show me how to properly format exponents with operations in them please do so).



$x^{k+1}=xcdot x^k>1 cdot k$



$x cdot x^k>1 cdot k rightarrow x^k>1$
So because I got back to the fact that $x^k>1$, and showed that $x^{k+1}$ is equal to it, am I done?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




Prove that $x^n>1$ using induction given that $x>1$.
Here was my way of (maybe) proving it:
Step 1: $x^1>1$ which is true going back to what is given.
Step 2: Assume $x^k>1$
Step 3: Prove $x^{k+1}>1$ (If someone could show me how to properly format exponents with operations in them please do so).



$x^{k+1}=xcdot x^k>1 cdot k$



$x cdot x^k>1 cdot k rightarrow x^k>1$
So because I got back to the fact that $x^k>1$, and showed that $x^{k+1}$ is equal to it, am I done?







proof-verification proof-writing induction






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Dec 29 '18 at 4:09









Bram28

63.8k44793




63.8k44793










asked Dec 29 '18 at 3:37









Jon dueJon due

948




948








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    You are close, but your logic is a bit off. Induction requires (i) proving for some base case (which you have done), (ii) supposing your statement is true for $n=k$, and then (iii) proving the statement is true for $n= k+1$. So you should be wanting to show $x^{k+1} > 1$ rather than 'getting back to the fact that $x^k > 1$'.
    $endgroup$
    – T. Fo
    Dec 29 '18 at 3:47












  • $begingroup$
    How do you get that $xcdot x^k > 1 cdot k$? That isn't nescessarily true. (So $x = 1.00001$ and $k = 3$ then $x^4 not >3$.) But You should have $xcdot x^k > 1cdot x^k$. And as $x^k > 1$ we have $x^{k+1} > x^k > 1$.
    $endgroup$
    – fleablood
    Dec 29 '18 at 4:06








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    ..... in fact informally you should have $1 < x < x^2 < x^3 <...... < x^k < x^{k+1}$. That may informal and and novice student might think it is "childish" and can't be correct. But it is correct, and that IS the thinking the induction is supposed to evoke.
    $endgroup$
    – fleablood
    Dec 29 '18 at 4:10














  • 1




    $begingroup$
    You are close, but your logic is a bit off. Induction requires (i) proving for some base case (which you have done), (ii) supposing your statement is true for $n=k$, and then (iii) proving the statement is true for $n= k+1$. So you should be wanting to show $x^{k+1} > 1$ rather than 'getting back to the fact that $x^k > 1$'.
    $endgroup$
    – T. Fo
    Dec 29 '18 at 3:47












  • $begingroup$
    How do you get that $xcdot x^k > 1 cdot k$? That isn't nescessarily true. (So $x = 1.00001$ and $k = 3$ then $x^4 not >3$.) But You should have $xcdot x^k > 1cdot x^k$. And as $x^k > 1$ we have $x^{k+1} > x^k > 1$.
    $endgroup$
    – fleablood
    Dec 29 '18 at 4:06








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    ..... in fact informally you should have $1 < x < x^2 < x^3 <...... < x^k < x^{k+1}$. That may informal and and novice student might think it is "childish" and can't be correct. But it is correct, and that IS the thinking the induction is supposed to evoke.
    $endgroup$
    – fleablood
    Dec 29 '18 at 4:10








1




1




$begingroup$
You are close, but your logic is a bit off. Induction requires (i) proving for some base case (which you have done), (ii) supposing your statement is true for $n=k$, and then (iii) proving the statement is true for $n= k+1$. So you should be wanting to show $x^{k+1} > 1$ rather than 'getting back to the fact that $x^k > 1$'.
$endgroup$
– T. Fo
Dec 29 '18 at 3:47






$begingroup$
You are close, but your logic is a bit off. Induction requires (i) proving for some base case (which you have done), (ii) supposing your statement is true for $n=k$, and then (iii) proving the statement is true for $n= k+1$. So you should be wanting to show $x^{k+1} > 1$ rather than 'getting back to the fact that $x^k > 1$'.
$endgroup$
– T. Fo
Dec 29 '18 at 3:47














$begingroup$
How do you get that $xcdot x^k > 1 cdot k$? That isn't nescessarily true. (So $x = 1.00001$ and $k = 3$ then $x^4 not >3$.) But You should have $xcdot x^k > 1cdot x^k$. And as $x^k > 1$ we have $x^{k+1} > x^k > 1$.
$endgroup$
– fleablood
Dec 29 '18 at 4:06






$begingroup$
How do you get that $xcdot x^k > 1 cdot k$? That isn't nescessarily true. (So $x = 1.00001$ and $k = 3$ then $x^4 not >3$.) But You should have $xcdot x^k > 1cdot x^k$. And as $x^k > 1$ we have $x^{k+1} > x^k > 1$.
$endgroup$
– fleablood
Dec 29 '18 at 4:06






1




1




$begingroup$
..... in fact informally you should have $1 < x < x^2 < x^3 <...... < x^k < x^{k+1}$. That may informal and and novice student might think it is "childish" and can't be correct. But it is correct, and that IS the thinking the induction is supposed to evoke.
$endgroup$
– fleablood
Dec 29 '18 at 4:10




$begingroup$
..... in fact informally you should have $1 < x < x^2 < x^3 <...... < x^k < x^{k+1}$. That may informal and and novice student might think it is "childish" and can't be correct. But it is correct, and that IS the thinking the induction is supposed to evoke.
$endgroup$
– fleablood
Dec 29 '18 at 4:10










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

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3












$begingroup$

This is not right. First, what is the $k$ doing in the $1 * k$ term?



Second, and much, much, more importantly, you are going the wrong way around. You are effectively trying to go from $x^{k+1}>1$ to $x^k >1$, but you need to go just the other way around: you need to show that if $x^k>1$, then $x^{k+1}>1$



This is a very common mistake that people make with induction proofs. They start with what needs to be shown, and then show that what follows from that is something is true. Often the proof ends with some trivially true statement like $1=1$ or, as in your case, the inductive hypothesis.



However, notice that showing this shows absolutely nothing: of course $1=1$! So? Does the fact that some statement $P$ implies $1=1$ mean that statement $P$ is true? No, because you can derive $1=1$ from any statement, including false ones.



Likewise, if you assume that $x^k>1$, and then show that $x^{k+1}>1$ implies that $x^k>1$, you havent't shown that $x^{k+1}>1$ at all: once you assumed $x^k>1$, any statement implies $x^k>1$, and so in fact nothing can be concluded about the truth of $x^{k+1}>1$






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    1 Answer
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    1 Answer
    1






    active

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    active

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    active

    oldest

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    3












    $begingroup$

    This is not right. First, what is the $k$ doing in the $1 * k$ term?



    Second, and much, much, more importantly, you are going the wrong way around. You are effectively trying to go from $x^{k+1}>1$ to $x^k >1$, but you need to go just the other way around: you need to show that if $x^k>1$, then $x^{k+1}>1$



    This is a very common mistake that people make with induction proofs. They start with what needs to be shown, and then show that what follows from that is something is true. Often the proof ends with some trivially true statement like $1=1$ or, as in your case, the inductive hypothesis.



    However, notice that showing this shows absolutely nothing: of course $1=1$! So? Does the fact that some statement $P$ implies $1=1$ mean that statement $P$ is true? No, because you can derive $1=1$ from any statement, including false ones.



    Likewise, if you assume that $x^k>1$, and then show that $x^{k+1}>1$ implies that $x^k>1$, you havent't shown that $x^{k+1}>1$ at all: once you assumed $x^k>1$, any statement implies $x^k>1$, and so in fact nothing can be concluded about the truth of $x^{k+1}>1$






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$


















      3












      $begingroup$

      This is not right. First, what is the $k$ doing in the $1 * k$ term?



      Second, and much, much, more importantly, you are going the wrong way around. You are effectively trying to go from $x^{k+1}>1$ to $x^k >1$, but you need to go just the other way around: you need to show that if $x^k>1$, then $x^{k+1}>1$



      This is a very common mistake that people make with induction proofs. They start with what needs to be shown, and then show that what follows from that is something is true. Often the proof ends with some trivially true statement like $1=1$ or, as in your case, the inductive hypothesis.



      However, notice that showing this shows absolutely nothing: of course $1=1$! So? Does the fact that some statement $P$ implies $1=1$ mean that statement $P$ is true? No, because you can derive $1=1$ from any statement, including false ones.



      Likewise, if you assume that $x^k>1$, and then show that $x^{k+1}>1$ implies that $x^k>1$, you havent't shown that $x^{k+1}>1$ at all: once you assumed $x^k>1$, any statement implies $x^k>1$, and so in fact nothing can be concluded about the truth of $x^{k+1}>1$






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$
















        3












        3








        3





        $begingroup$

        This is not right. First, what is the $k$ doing in the $1 * k$ term?



        Second, and much, much, more importantly, you are going the wrong way around. You are effectively trying to go from $x^{k+1}>1$ to $x^k >1$, but you need to go just the other way around: you need to show that if $x^k>1$, then $x^{k+1}>1$



        This is a very common mistake that people make with induction proofs. They start with what needs to be shown, and then show that what follows from that is something is true. Often the proof ends with some trivially true statement like $1=1$ or, as in your case, the inductive hypothesis.



        However, notice that showing this shows absolutely nothing: of course $1=1$! So? Does the fact that some statement $P$ implies $1=1$ mean that statement $P$ is true? No, because you can derive $1=1$ from any statement, including false ones.



        Likewise, if you assume that $x^k>1$, and then show that $x^{k+1}>1$ implies that $x^k>1$, you havent't shown that $x^{k+1}>1$ at all: once you assumed $x^k>1$, any statement implies $x^k>1$, and so in fact nothing can be concluded about the truth of $x^{k+1}>1$






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$



        This is not right. First, what is the $k$ doing in the $1 * k$ term?



        Second, and much, much, more importantly, you are going the wrong way around. You are effectively trying to go from $x^{k+1}>1$ to $x^k >1$, but you need to go just the other way around: you need to show that if $x^k>1$, then $x^{k+1}>1$



        This is a very common mistake that people make with induction proofs. They start with what needs to be shown, and then show that what follows from that is something is true. Often the proof ends with some trivially true statement like $1=1$ or, as in your case, the inductive hypothesis.



        However, notice that showing this shows absolutely nothing: of course $1=1$! So? Does the fact that some statement $P$ implies $1=1$ mean that statement $P$ is true? No, because you can derive $1=1$ from any statement, including false ones.



        Likewise, if you assume that $x^k>1$, and then show that $x^{k+1}>1$ implies that $x^k>1$, you havent't shown that $x^{k+1}>1$ at all: once you assumed $x^k>1$, any statement implies $x^k>1$, and so in fact nothing can be concluded about the truth of $x^{k+1}>1$







        share|cite|improve this answer














        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer








        edited Dec 29 '18 at 4:07

























        answered Dec 29 '18 at 3:58









        Bram28Bram28

        63.8k44793




        63.8k44793






























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