Differentiability of a function that is $x^2$ on rational and 0 on irrational. [closed]












-2












$begingroup$


Let f = $begin{cases}x^2,& x inmathbb{Q}\
0,& xin mathbb{R}setminus mathbb{Q}end{cases}$



Is $f$ differentiable at $x = 0$?










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$endgroup$



closed as off-topic by Saad, KReiser, Brahadeesh, NCh, RRL Dec 3 '18 at 5:22


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." – Saad, KReiser, Brahadeesh, NCh, RRL

If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.


















    -2












    $begingroup$


    Let f = $begin{cases}x^2,& x inmathbb{Q}\
    0,& xin mathbb{R}setminus mathbb{Q}end{cases}$



    Is $f$ differentiable at $x = 0$?










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$



    closed as off-topic by Saad, KReiser, Brahadeesh, NCh, RRL Dec 3 '18 at 5:22


    This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


    • "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." – Saad, KReiser, Brahadeesh, NCh, RRL

    If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.
















      -2












      -2








      -2


      0



      $begingroup$


      Let f = $begin{cases}x^2,& x inmathbb{Q}\
      0,& xin mathbb{R}setminus mathbb{Q}end{cases}$



      Is $f$ differentiable at $x = 0$?










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      Let f = $begin{cases}x^2,& x inmathbb{Q}\
      0,& xin mathbb{R}setminus mathbb{Q}end{cases}$



      Is $f$ differentiable at $x = 0$?







      calculus real-analysis derivatives






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      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Dec 2 '18 at 1:44









      qbert

      22.1k32460




      22.1k32460










      asked Dec 2 '18 at 1:27









      HarshitHarshit

      11




      11




      closed as off-topic by Saad, KReiser, Brahadeesh, NCh, RRL Dec 3 '18 at 5:22


      This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


      • "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." – Saad, KReiser, Brahadeesh, NCh, RRL

      If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.




      closed as off-topic by Saad, KReiser, Brahadeesh, NCh, RRL Dec 3 '18 at 5:22


      This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


      • "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." – Saad, KReiser, Brahadeesh, NCh, RRL

      If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.






















          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          7












          $begingroup$

          Just compute the limit: for $x_nto 0$ (obviously $x_nne 0$) a sequence,
          $$
          lim_{nto infty}f(x_n)/x_n=begin{cases}0,& x_nin mathbb{Q}\
          x_n,&x_nin mathbb{R}setminus mathbb{Q} \
          end{cases}
          $$

          In either case, the limit is $0$.



          If you like your epsilons and deltas, fix $epsilon>0$. Then choose $delta=sqrt{epsilon}$. Then, if $0<|x|<delta$, we have
          $$
          |f(x)/x|<epsilon
          $$

          since again, the $f(x)/x$ is either $0$ or $x$. So the derivative exists and is $0$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$





















            1












            $begingroup$

            It's very easy to show that if $g$ is a bounded function defined on an interval containing zero then $f(x):=x^2g(x)$ is differentiable at $x=0$ and $f'(0)=0$. Now choose
            $$g(x) = begin{cases}1,& x inmathbb{Q};\
            0,& xin mathbb{R}setminus mathbb{Q}.end{cases}$$






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$




















              2 Answers
              2






              active

              oldest

              votes








              2 Answers
              2






              active

              oldest

              votes









              active

              oldest

              votes






              active

              oldest

              votes









              7












              $begingroup$

              Just compute the limit: for $x_nto 0$ (obviously $x_nne 0$) a sequence,
              $$
              lim_{nto infty}f(x_n)/x_n=begin{cases}0,& x_nin mathbb{Q}\
              x_n,&x_nin mathbb{R}setminus mathbb{Q} \
              end{cases}
              $$

              In either case, the limit is $0$.



              If you like your epsilons and deltas, fix $epsilon>0$. Then choose $delta=sqrt{epsilon}$. Then, if $0<|x|<delta$, we have
              $$
              |f(x)/x|<epsilon
              $$

              since again, the $f(x)/x$ is either $0$ or $x$. So the derivative exists and is $0$.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$


















                7












                $begingroup$

                Just compute the limit: for $x_nto 0$ (obviously $x_nne 0$) a sequence,
                $$
                lim_{nto infty}f(x_n)/x_n=begin{cases}0,& x_nin mathbb{Q}\
                x_n,&x_nin mathbb{R}setminus mathbb{Q} \
                end{cases}
                $$

                In either case, the limit is $0$.



                If you like your epsilons and deltas, fix $epsilon>0$. Then choose $delta=sqrt{epsilon}$. Then, if $0<|x|<delta$, we have
                $$
                |f(x)/x|<epsilon
                $$

                since again, the $f(x)/x$ is either $0$ or $x$. So the derivative exists and is $0$.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$
















                  7












                  7








                  7





                  $begingroup$

                  Just compute the limit: for $x_nto 0$ (obviously $x_nne 0$) a sequence,
                  $$
                  lim_{nto infty}f(x_n)/x_n=begin{cases}0,& x_nin mathbb{Q}\
                  x_n,&x_nin mathbb{R}setminus mathbb{Q} \
                  end{cases}
                  $$

                  In either case, the limit is $0$.



                  If you like your epsilons and deltas, fix $epsilon>0$. Then choose $delta=sqrt{epsilon}$. Then, if $0<|x|<delta$, we have
                  $$
                  |f(x)/x|<epsilon
                  $$

                  since again, the $f(x)/x$ is either $0$ or $x$. So the derivative exists and is $0$.






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$



                  Just compute the limit: for $x_nto 0$ (obviously $x_nne 0$) a sequence,
                  $$
                  lim_{nto infty}f(x_n)/x_n=begin{cases}0,& x_nin mathbb{Q}\
                  x_n,&x_nin mathbb{R}setminus mathbb{Q} \
                  end{cases}
                  $$

                  In either case, the limit is $0$.



                  If you like your epsilons and deltas, fix $epsilon>0$. Then choose $delta=sqrt{epsilon}$. Then, if $0<|x|<delta$, we have
                  $$
                  |f(x)/x|<epsilon
                  $$

                  since again, the $f(x)/x$ is either $0$ or $x$. So the derivative exists and is $0$.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Dec 2 '18 at 1:32









                  qbertqbert

                  22.1k32460




                  22.1k32460























                      1












                      $begingroup$

                      It's very easy to show that if $g$ is a bounded function defined on an interval containing zero then $f(x):=x^2g(x)$ is differentiable at $x=0$ and $f'(0)=0$. Now choose
                      $$g(x) = begin{cases}1,& x inmathbb{Q};\
                      0,& xin mathbb{R}setminus mathbb{Q}.end{cases}$$






                      share|cite|improve this answer









                      $endgroup$


















                        1












                        $begingroup$

                        It's very easy to show that if $g$ is a bounded function defined on an interval containing zero then $f(x):=x^2g(x)$ is differentiable at $x=0$ and $f'(0)=0$. Now choose
                        $$g(x) = begin{cases}1,& x inmathbb{Q};\
                        0,& xin mathbb{R}setminus mathbb{Q}.end{cases}$$






                        share|cite|improve this answer









                        $endgroup$
















                          1












                          1








                          1





                          $begingroup$

                          It's very easy to show that if $g$ is a bounded function defined on an interval containing zero then $f(x):=x^2g(x)$ is differentiable at $x=0$ and $f'(0)=0$. Now choose
                          $$g(x) = begin{cases}1,& x inmathbb{Q};\
                          0,& xin mathbb{R}setminus mathbb{Q}.end{cases}$$






                          share|cite|improve this answer









                          $endgroup$



                          It's very easy to show that if $g$ is a bounded function defined on an interval containing zero then $f(x):=x^2g(x)$ is differentiable at $x=0$ and $f'(0)=0$. Now choose
                          $$g(x) = begin{cases}1,& x inmathbb{Q};\
                          0,& xin mathbb{R}setminus mathbb{Q}.end{cases}$$







                          share|cite|improve this answer












                          share|cite|improve this answer



                          share|cite|improve this answer










                          answered Dec 2 '18 at 15:02









                          Michael HoppeMichael Hoppe

                          10.8k31834




                          10.8k31834















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