Why are these quavers beamed this way?












6















enter image description here



I don't know why the quavers in the bass are beamed across barlines the way they are. Does it signify phrasing or is there another reason for it?






notation beaming







share|improve this question


















  • 1





    I'd guess it's just to make it easier to read.

    – PeterJ
    Feb 11 at 11:16






  • 3





    I've never encounter something like this. It's surely to show the phrases I couldn't see another reason. but I could even be a typo ...

    – Albrecht Hügli
    Feb 11 at 12:24


















6















enter image description here



I don't know why the quavers in the bass are beamed across barlines the way they are. Does it signify phrasing or is there another reason for it?






notation beaming







share|improve this question


















  • 1





    I'd guess it's just to make it easier to read.

    – PeterJ
    Feb 11 at 11:16






  • 3





    I've never encounter something like this. It's surely to show the phrases I couldn't see another reason. but I could even be a typo ...

    – Albrecht Hügli
    Feb 11 at 12:24
















6












6








6








enter image description here



I don't know why the quavers in the bass are beamed across barlines the way they are. Does it signify phrasing or is there another reason for it?






notation beaming







share|improve this question














enter image description here



I don't know why the quavers in the bass are beamed across barlines the way they are. Does it signify phrasing or is there another reason for it?






notation beaming




notation beaming






share|improve this question













share|improve this question











share|improve this question




share|improve this question










asked Feb 11 at 10:30









Shannon DuncanShannon Duncan

854416




854416








  • 1





    I'd guess it's just to make it easier to read.

    – PeterJ
    Feb 11 at 11:16






  • 3





    I've never encounter something like this. It's surely to show the phrases I couldn't see another reason. but I could even be a typo ...

    – Albrecht Hügli
    Feb 11 at 12:24
















  • 1





    I'd guess it's just to make it easier to read.

    – PeterJ
    Feb 11 at 11:16






  • 3





    I've never encounter something like this. It's surely to show the phrases I couldn't see another reason. but I could even be a typo ...

    – Albrecht Hügli
    Feb 11 at 12:24










1




1





I'd guess it's just to make it easier to read.

– PeterJ
Feb 11 at 11:16





I'd guess it's just to make it easier to read.

– PeterJ
Feb 11 at 11:16




3




3





I've never encounter something like this. It's surely to show the phrases I couldn't see another reason. but I could even be a typo ...

– Albrecht Hügli
Feb 11 at 12:24







I've never encounter something like this. It's surely to show the phrases I couldn't see another reason. but I could even be a typo ...

– Albrecht Hügli
Feb 11 at 12:24












2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















5














Yes, it’s a way to signify another level of phrase grouping. Just as your beaming within a bar can indicate groupings of beamed notes beneath the level indicated by the slur, this shows that the composer or editor wanted to indicate this grouping that extends across bar lines.



The beaming itself is already a kind of editorial decision because each quaver has a rest in between, so they could have been notated with flags. But flags plus two levels of slurs for phrasing may have been seen as less readable than using beams, since the symbology for each level of phrasing would be the same instead of different, and by using beams we also satisfy conveying the rhythmic value at the same time.






share|improve this answer



















  • 1





    Beaming is more commonly used these days to indicate metrical structure than phrasing, though it is also used to indicate text underlay in vocal music, a practice which seems to have fallen out of favor in recent decades, to my dismay.

    – phoog
    Feb 11 at 20:21



















4














Looking at the phrase mark itself, it would appear that it is because of phrasing. Although it's not that clear where the phrase mark in bar 3 goes, being at the end of a line. I guess it goes on to be a phrase over 4 bars - bar 3 to the start of bar 6.






share|improve this answer



















  • 1





    True, but most publishers settle for the phrasing mark (overhead curve) as being sufficient. Beaming across a bar line is kind of weird.

    – Carl Witthoft
    Feb 11 at 12:41











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2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes








2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









5














Yes, it’s a way to signify another level of phrase grouping. Just as your beaming within a bar can indicate groupings of beamed notes beneath the level indicated by the slur, this shows that the composer or editor wanted to indicate this grouping that extends across bar lines.



The beaming itself is already a kind of editorial decision because each quaver has a rest in between, so they could have been notated with flags. But flags plus two levels of slurs for phrasing may have been seen as less readable than using beams, since the symbology for each level of phrasing would be the same instead of different, and by using beams we also satisfy conveying the rhythmic value at the same time.






share|improve this answer



















  • 1





    Beaming is more commonly used these days to indicate metrical structure than phrasing, though it is also used to indicate text underlay in vocal music, a practice which seems to have fallen out of favor in recent decades, to my dismay.

    – phoog
    Feb 11 at 20:21
















5














Yes, it’s a way to signify another level of phrase grouping. Just as your beaming within a bar can indicate groupings of beamed notes beneath the level indicated by the slur, this shows that the composer or editor wanted to indicate this grouping that extends across bar lines.



The beaming itself is already a kind of editorial decision because each quaver has a rest in between, so they could have been notated with flags. But flags plus two levels of slurs for phrasing may have been seen as less readable than using beams, since the symbology for each level of phrasing would be the same instead of different, and by using beams we also satisfy conveying the rhythmic value at the same time.






share|improve this answer



















  • 1





    Beaming is more commonly used these days to indicate metrical structure than phrasing, though it is also used to indicate text underlay in vocal music, a practice which seems to have fallen out of favor in recent decades, to my dismay.

    – phoog
    Feb 11 at 20:21














5












5








5







Yes, it’s a way to signify another level of phrase grouping. Just as your beaming within a bar can indicate groupings of beamed notes beneath the level indicated by the slur, this shows that the composer or editor wanted to indicate this grouping that extends across bar lines.



The beaming itself is already a kind of editorial decision because each quaver has a rest in between, so they could have been notated with flags. But flags plus two levels of slurs for phrasing may have been seen as less readable than using beams, since the symbology for each level of phrasing would be the same instead of different, and by using beams we also satisfy conveying the rhythmic value at the same time.






share|improve this answer













Yes, it’s a way to signify another level of phrase grouping. Just as your beaming within a bar can indicate groupings of beamed notes beneath the level indicated by the slur, this shows that the composer or editor wanted to indicate this grouping that extends across bar lines.



The beaming itself is already a kind of editorial decision because each quaver has a rest in between, so they could have been notated with flags. But flags plus two levels of slurs for phrasing may have been seen as less readable than using beams, since the symbology for each level of phrasing would be the same instead of different, and by using beams we also satisfy conveying the rhythmic value at the same time.







share|improve this answer












share|improve this answer



share|improve this answer










answered Feb 11 at 13:48









NReilinghNReilingh

31.2k287153




31.2k287153








  • 1





    Beaming is more commonly used these days to indicate metrical structure than phrasing, though it is also used to indicate text underlay in vocal music, a practice which seems to have fallen out of favor in recent decades, to my dismay.

    – phoog
    Feb 11 at 20:21














  • 1





    Beaming is more commonly used these days to indicate metrical structure than phrasing, though it is also used to indicate text underlay in vocal music, a practice which seems to have fallen out of favor in recent decades, to my dismay.

    – phoog
    Feb 11 at 20:21








1




1





Beaming is more commonly used these days to indicate metrical structure than phrasing, though it is also used to indicate text underlay in vocal music, a practice which seems to have fallen out of favor in recent decades, to my dismay.

– phoog
Feb 11 at 20:21





Beaming is more commonly used these days to indicate metrical structure than phrasing, though it is also used to indicate text underlay in vocal music, a practice which seems to have fallen out of favor in recent decades, to my dismay.

– phoog
Feb 11 at 20:21











4














Looking at the phrase mark itself, it would appear that it is because of phrasing. Although it's not that clear where the phrase mark in bar 3 goes, being at the end of a line. I guess it goes on to be a phrase over 4 bars - bar 3 to the start of bar 6.






share|improve this answer



















  • 1





    True, but most publishers settle for the phrasing mark (overhead curve) as being sufficient. Beaming across a bar line is kind of weird.

    – Carl Witthoft
    Feb 11 at 12:41
















4














Looking at the phrase mark itself, it would appear that it is because of phrasing. Although it's not that clear where the phrase mark in bar 3 goes, being at the end of a line. I guess it goes on to be a phrase over 4 bars - bar 3 to the start of bar 6.






share|improve this answer



















  • 1





    True, but most publishers settle for the phrasing mark (overhead curve) as being sufficient. Beaming across a bar line is kind of weird.

    – Carl Witthoft
    Feb 11 at 12:41














4












4








4







Looking at the phrase mark itself, it would appear that it is because of phrasing. Although it's not that clear where the phrase mark in bar 3 goes, being at the end of a line. I guess it goes on to be a phrase over 4 bars - bar 3 to the start of bar 6.






share|improve this answer













Looking at the phrase mark itself, it would appear that it is because of phrasing. Although it's not that clear where the phrase mark in bar 3 goes, being at the end of a line. I guess it goes on to be a phrase over 4 bars - bar 3 to the start of bar 6.







share|improve this answer












share|improve this answer



share|improve this answer










answered Feb 11 at 10:43









TimTim

102k10107259




102k10107259








  • 1





    True, but most publishers settle for the phrasing mark (overhead curve) as being sufficient. Beaming across a bar line is kind of weird.

    – Carl Witthoft
    Feb 11 at 12:41














  • 1





    True, but most publishers settle for the phrasing mark (overhead curve) as being sufficient. Beaming across a bar line is kind of weird.

    – Carl Witthoft
    Feb 11 at 12:41








1




1





True, but most publishers settle for the phrasing mark (overhead curve) as being sufficient. Beaming across a bar line is kind of weird.

– Carl Witthoft
Feb 11 at 12:41





True, but most publishers settle for the phrasing mark (overhead curve) as being sufficient. Beaming across a bar line is kind of weird.

– Carl Witthoft
Feb 11 at 12:41


















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