Group of order $pq$ (both primes) where $pnmid q-1,~qnmid p-1$












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This little number theory problem came from an application of Sylow theorem which said for groups of order $pq$, where $p,~q$ are primes and $pnmid q-1,~qnmid p-1$. Then $G$ is cyclic. By Sylow III Thm, $n_p=pk+1mid pq$, but why this implies $n_p=1$? I can't see the clear reason.










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  • 3




    $begingroup$
    Being $gcd(n_p,p)=1$ implies $n_p$ divides $q$
    $endgroup$
    – Chinnapparaj R
    Dec 24 '18 at 4:29
















2












$begingroup$


This little number theory problem came from an application of Sylow theorem which said for groups of order $pq$, where $p,~q$ are primes and $pnmid q-1,~qnmid p-1$. Then $G$ is cyclic. By Sylow III Thm, $n_p=pk+1mid pq$, but why this implies $n_p=1$? I can't see the clear reason.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 3




    $begingroup$
    Being $gcd(n_p,p)=1$ implies $n_p$ divides $q$
    $endgroup$
    – Chinnapparaj R
    Dec 24 '18 at 4:29














2












2








2





$begingroup$


This little number theory problem came from an application of Sylow theorem which said for groups of order $pq$, where $p,~q$ are primes and $pnmid q-1,~qnmid p-1$. Then $G$ is cyclic. By Sylow III Thm, $n_p=pk+1mid pq$, but why this implies $n_p=1$? I can't see the clear reason.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




This little number theory problem came from an application of Sylow theorem which said for groups of order $pq$, where $p,~q$ are primes and $pnmid q-1,~qnmid p-1$. Then $G$ is cyclic. By Sylow III Thm, $n_p=pk+1mid pq$, but why this implies $n_p=1$? I can't see the clear reason.







abstract-algebra group-theory number-theory






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edited Dec 24 '18 at 13:12









Shaun

9,356113684




9,356113684










asked Dec 24 '18 at 4:26









EricEric

1,810615




1,810615








  • 3




    $begingroup$
    Being $gcd(n_p,p)=1$ implies $n_p$ divides $q$
    $endgroup$
    – Chinnapparaj R
    Dec 24 '18 at 4:29














  • 3




    $begingroup$
    Being $gcd(n_p,p)=1$ implies $n_p$ divides $q$
    $endgroup$
    – Chinnapparaj R
    Dec 24 '18 at 4:29








3




3




$begingroup$
Being $gcd(n_p,p)=1$ implies $n_p$ divides $q$
$endgroup$
– Chinnapparaj R
Dec 24 '18 at 4:29




$begingroup$
Being $gcd(n_p,p)=1$ implies $n_p$ divides $q$
$endgroup$
– Chinnapparaj R
Dec 24 '18 at 4:29










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















1












$begingroup$

There is a stronger consequence of the Sylow theorems. If $n = p^Rm$ with $n$ the order of $G$ and $p not | m$, then the amount of $p$-Sylows of $G$ which I will note $n_p$ is $1$ modulo $p$ and $n_p | m$. In this case, we get that $n_p | q$ and so in particular either $n_p = q$ or $n_p = 1$. The former is impossible by hypothesis: if $n_p = pk + 1 = q$, then $q-1 = pk$ and so $p | q-1$.




Hence there is a unique $p$-Sylow. By symmetry there is a unique $q$-Sylow. Both are normal, disjoint, and their product contains at least $pq$ elements: it must be the whole group. If $S_p,S_q$ are such Sylow groups, this tells us that $(s,t) in S_p times S_q mapsto st in G$ is an isomorphism. Consequently, $G simeq S_p times S_q simeq mathbb{Z}_p oplus mathbb{Z}_q stackrel{(CRT)}{simeq} mathbb{Z}_{pq}.$







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  • $begingroup$
    Thank you very much, very clear!
    $endgroup$
    – Eric
    Dec 24 '18 at 6:23











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1












$begingroup$

There is a stronger consequence of the Sylow theorems. If $n = p^Rm$ with $n$ the order of $G$ and $p not | m$, then the amount of $p$-Sylows of $G$ which I will note $n_p$ is $1$ modulo $p$ and $n_p | m$. In this case, we get that $n_p | q$ and so in particular either $n_p = q$ or $n_p = 1$. The former is impossible by hypothesis: if $n_p = pk + 1 = q$, then $q-1 = pk$ and so $p | q-1$.




Hence there is a unique $p$-Sylow. By symmetry there is a unique $q$-Sylow. Both are normal, disjoint, and their product contains at least $pq$ elements: it must be the whole group. If $S_p,S_q$ are such Sylow groups, this tells us that $(s,t) in S_p times S_q mapsto st in G$ is an isomorphism. Consequently, $G simeq S_p times S_q simeq mathbb{Z}_p oplus mathbb{Z}_q stackrel{(CRT)}{simeq} mathbb{Z}_{pq}.$







share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Thank you very much, very clear!
    $endgroup$
    – Eric
    Dec 24 '18 at 6:23
















1












$begingroup$

There is a stronger consequence of the Sylow theorems. If $n = p^Rm$ with $n$ the order of $G$ and $p not | m$, then the amount of $p$-Sylows of $G$ which I will note $n_p$ is $1$ modulo $p$ and $n_p | m$. In this case, we get that $n_p | q$ and so in particular either $n_p = q$ or $n_p = 1$. The former is impossible by hypothesis: if $n_p = pk + 1 = q$, then $q-1 = pk$ and so $p | q-1$.




Hence there is a unique $p$-Sylow. By symmetry there is a unique $q$-Sylow. Both are normal, disjoint, and their product contains at least $pq$ elements: it must be the whole group. If $S_p,S_q$ are such Sylow groups, this tells us that $(s,t) in S_p times S_q mapsto st in G$ is an isomorphism. Consequently, $G simeq S_p times S_q simeq mathbb{Z}_p oplus mathbb{Z}_q stackrel{(CRT)}{simeq} mathbb{Z}_{pq}.$







share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Thank you very much, very clear!
    $endgroup$
    – Eric
    Dec 24 '18 at 6:23














1












1








1





$begingroup$

There is a stronger consequence of the Sylow theorems. If $n = p^Rm$ with $n$ the order of $G$ and $p not | m$, then the amount of $p$-Sylows of $G$ which I will note $n_p$ is $1$ modulo $p$ and $n_p | m$. In this case, we get that $n_p | q$ and so in particular either $n_p = q$ or $n_p = 1$. The former is impossible by hypothesis: if $n_p = pk + 1 = q$, then $q-1 = pk$ and so $p | q-1$.




Hence there is a unique $p$-Sylow. By symmetry there is a unique $q$-Sylow. Both are normal, disjoint, and their product contains at least $pq$ elements: it must be the whole group. If $S_p,S_q$ are such Sylow groups, this tells us that $(s,t) in S_p times S_q mapsto st in G$ is an isomorphism. Consequently, $G simeq S_p times S_q simeq mathbb{Z}_p oplus mathbb{Z}_q stackrel{(CRT)}{simeq} mathbb{Z}_{pq}.$







share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$



There is a stronger consequence of the Sylow theorems. If $n = p^Rm$ with $n$ the order of $G$ and $p not | m$, then the amount of $p$-Sylows of $G$ which I will note $n_p$ is $1$ modulo $p$ and $n_p | m$. In this case, we get that $n_p | q$ and so in particular either $n_p = q$ or $n_p = 1$. The former is impossible by hypothesis: if $n_p = pk + 1 = q$, then $q-1 = pk$ and so $p | q-1$.




Hence there is a unique $p$-Sylow. By symmetry there is a unique $q$-Sylow. Both are normal, disjoint, and their product contains at least $pq$ elements: it must be the whole group. If $S_p,S_q$ are such Sylow groups, this tells us that $(s,t) in S_p times S_q mapsto st in G$ is an isomorphism. Consequently, $G simeq S_p times S_q simeq mathbb{Z}_p oplus mathbb{Z}_q stackrel{(CRT)}{simeq} mathbb{Z}_{pq}.$








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edited Dec 24 '18 at 4:51

























answered Dec 24 '18 at 4:32









Guido A.Guido A.

7,8701730




7,8701730












  • $begingroup$
    Thank you very much, very clear!
    $endgroup$
    – Eric
    Dec 24 '18 at 6:23


















  • $begingroup$
    Thank you very much, very clear!
    $endgroup$
    – Eric
    Dec 24 '18 at 6:23
















$begingroup$
Thank you very much, very clear!
$endgroup$
– Eric
Dec 24 '18 at 6:23




$begingroup$
Thank you very much, very clear!
$endgroup$
– Eric
Dec 24 '18 at 6:23


















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