Divisor in $mathbb{C}[X]$ $implies$ divisor in $mathbb{R}[X]$?












3












$begingroup$


let $P in mathbb{R}[X]$ be a real polynomial divisible by a polynomial $Q in mathbb{R}[X]$
in $mathbb{C}[X]$. How can I easily show that $P$ is also divisible by $Q$ in $mathbb{R}[X]$?



A simple argument without using higher algebraic theorems is desirable. If I could use instruments of higher algebra, the exercise I have to do in whole would be done in two lines. But I'm not allowed to use. I think there would be an easy argument which I can't see yet because of my mental fogginess that I have sometimes.



Thank you beforehand.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$

















    3












    $begingroup$


    let $P in mathbb{R}[X]$ be a real polynomial divisible by a polynomial $Q in mathbb{R}[X]$
    in $mathbb{C}[X]$. How can I easily show that $P$ is also divisible by $Q$ in $mathbb{R}[X]$?



    A simple argument without using higher algebraic theorems is desirable. If I could use instruments of higher algebra, the exercise I have to do in whole would be done in two lines. But I'm not allowed to use. I think there would be an easy argument which I can't see yet because of my mental fogginess that I have sometimes.



    Thank you beforehand.










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$















      3












      3








      3


      2



      $begingroup$


      let $P in mathbb{R}[X]$ be a real polynomial divisible by a polynomial $Q in mathbb{R}[X]$
      in $mathbb{C}[X]$. How can I easily show that $P$ is also divisible by $Q$ in $mathbb{R}[X]$?



      A simple argument without using higher algebraic theorems is desirable. If I could use instruments of higher algebra, the exercise I have to do in whole would be done in two lines. But I'm not allowed to use. I think there would be an easy argument which I can't see yet because of my mental fogginess that I have sometimes.



      Thank you beforehand.










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      let $P in mathbb{R}[X]$ be a real polynomial divisible by a polynomial $Q in mathbb{R}[X]$
      in $mathbb{C}[X]$. How can I easily show that $P$ is also divisible by $Q$ in $mathbb{R}[X]$?



      A simple argument without using higher algebraic theorems is desirable. If I could use instruments of higher algebra, the exercise I have to do in whole would be done in two lines. But I'm not allowed to use. I think there would be an easy argument which I can't see yet because of my mental fogginess that I have sometimes.



      Thank you beforehand.







      polynomials divisibility






      share|cite|improve this question















      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Apr 22 '14 at 14:21









      Siminore

      30.5k33469




      30.5k33469










      asked Apr 22 '14 at 14:18









      user144912user144912

      161




      161






















          4 Answers
          4






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          7












          $begingroup$

          The division algorithm uses only the field operations on the coefficients of the polynomials. If $P$ and $Q$ have real coefficients, all the computations take place in $mathbb{R}$; so, if $P=QR$, then $Rinmathbb{R}[X]$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            I think this is the best way to see this. This works just the same in more general cases, for example when $mathbb{C}$ and $mathbb{R}$ is replaced by any field extension $E/F$.
            $endgroup$
            – spin
            Apr 22 '14 at 14:40






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            @spin Yes, and it's quite useful when dealing with algebraic extensions.
            $endgroup$
            – egreg
            Apr 22 '14 at 14:40






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Alternatively, using division with remainder in $mathbb R[X]$, we have $P=QR+S$ with $Q,Sinmathbb R[X]$ and $deg S<deg R$. Then if $Rmid P$ in $mathbb C[X]$, we conclude $Rmid S$, hence $S=0$ or $deg Sge deg R$.
            $endgroup$
            – Hagen von Eitzen
            Apr 22 '14 at 14:48










          • $begingroup$
            @HagenvonEitzen It's not “alternative”: the uniqueness of the remainder immediately forces $S=0$, because $P=QR+S$ is also a correct division in $mathbb{C}[X]$.
            $endgroup$
            – egreg
            Apr 22 '14 at 14:52












          • $begingroup$
            @egreg Yes, I only wanted to put this as an alternate formulation, not alternate argument.
            $endgroup$
            – Hagen von Eitzen
            Apr 22 '14 at 15:23



















          6












          $begingroup$

          Say you have $P = QR$ where $R in mathbb{C}[X]$. Then $overline{P} = overline{QR} Rightarrow P = Q bar R$ (this is complex conjugation). If $Q$ is the zero polynomial, then so is $P$ and you are done. Otherwise, there is an infinite number of points $x in mathbb{R}$ where $Q(x)$ is nonzero, and for every such $x$, $bar{R}(x) = frac{bar P(x)}{bar Q(x)} = frac{P(x)}{Q(x)} = R(x)$. The two polynomials $R, bar{R}$ agree on an infinite number of points and are therefore equal. This means that $R$ has real coefficients, and so $Q$ divides $P$ in $mathbb{R}[X]$.





          More generally the technique I used works for any Galois extension. Suppose $K subset F$ is a Galois extension, and that $Q neq 0$ divides $P$ in $F[X]$, ie $P = QR$ with $R in F[X]$, $P, Q in K[X]$. Then for every $g in operatorname{Gal}(F/K)$, $P = Q R = g(P) = g(Q) g(R) = Q g(R)$ (where $g(P)$ is the polynomial where you apply $g$ to every coefficient). Since $Q$ is nonzero and $F[X]$ is an integral domain, it follows that $g(R) = R$ for all $g$, and therefore all the coefficients of $R$ are in $K$ (by general Galois theory).






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$









          • 2




            $begingroup$
            Doesn't $QR = Q bar R$ simply imply $R = bar R$ (for $Q neq 0$)?
            $endgroup$
            – user10676
            Apr 22 '14 at 14:50












          • $begingroup$
            It isn't as simple as one might think, because $mathbb{R}[X]$ is just an (euclidean) ring and not a field which means you can't divide. But I see now the uniqueness of the remainder works well.
            $endgroup$
            – user144912
            Apr 22 '14 at 15:01












          • $begingroup$
            @user144912 I think he is right, because $mathbb{C}[X]$ and $mathbb{R}[X]$ are domain (? I'm not sure about the english terminology), but if $ab=ac$ with $a neq 0$ then $b=c$, no ?
            $endgroup$
            – yago
            Apr 22 '14 at 15:07










          • $begingroup$
            @user10676: For some reason I forgot that $K[X]$ is an integral domain for any field...
            $endgroup$
            – Najib Idrissi
            Apr 22 '14 at 15:17










          • $begingroup$
            @Yann Hadaoui: Yes, he ist right. Forget what I said in the comment before. Multiplication with $Q$ is an injective endomorphism in $(mathbb{C}[X],+)$, which allows to reduce.
            $endgroup$
            – user144912
            Apr 22 '14 at 15:33





















          2












          $begingroup$

          Hint $ $ It follows from the uniqueness of the quotient (and remainder) in the division algorithm (which is the same in $,Bbb R[x],$ and $,Bbb C[x],,$ using the polynomial degree as the Euclidean "size").



          Therefore, since dividing $,P,$ by $,Q,$ in $,Bbb C[x],$ leaves remainder $,0,,$ by uniqueness, the remainder must also be $,0,$ in $,Bbb R[x].,$ Thus $ Qmid P, $ in $,Bbb C[x] $ $Rightarrow$ $ Q | P $ in $,Bbb R[x].$



          This is but one of many examples of the power of uniqueness theorems for proving equalities.



          Remark $ $ More generally, $ $ it follows from persistence of Euclidean gcds in extension domains since, by Bezout, the gcd may be specified (up to unit factor) via the solvability of a system of (linear) equations over $D,,$ and such solutions persist in extension domains of $D,,$ i.e. roots in $D,$ persist as roots in $Esupset D.,$ Note $, Qnmid P,$ in $,Bbb R[x],$ iff their gcd $,(Q,P) = AQ+BP:$ has smaller degree than $,Q.,$ If so, the Bezout equation persists as a witness that $,Qnmid P,$ in $,Bbb C[x]$.



          Such uniqueness is a characteristic property of polynomial domains over fields. Namely, if $D$ is a Euclidean domain with division algorithm having unique quotient and remainder, then either $D$ is a field or $D = F[x]$ for a field $F.,$ For proofs see e.g.



          M. A. Jodeit, Uniqueness in the division algorithm, Amer. Math. Monthly 74 (1967), 835-836.



          T. S. Rhai, A characterization of polynomial domains over a field, Amer. Math. Monthly 69 (1962), 984-986.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$





















            0












            $begingroup$

            This can also be done by contradiction as follows:



            Suppose that $P=QR$ where $P$ and $Q$ are in $mathbb{R}[x]$ and $R$ is in $mathbb{C}[x]setminusmathbb{R}[x]$. Let us write
            $$
            R=sum_{i=0}^kr_ix^i.
            $$

            Since $R$ is not a polynomial with real coefficients, there is some $r_i$ which is not real. Let $j$ be the largest index where $r_i$ is not real. Then,
            $$
            R=left(sum_{i=0}^{j-1}r_ix^iright)+r_jx^j+left(sum_{i=j+1}^kr_ix^iright).
            $$

            I claim that, for $x$ sufficiently large, $R(x)$ is not a real number.




            • For any real number $x$, the third summand is real since all of the coefficients are real.


            • For all nonzero real numbers $x$, $r_jx^j$ is not a real number since $r_j$ is not real.


            • For all real numbers $x$ sufficiently large, the first summand is less than the imaginary part of $r_jx^j$. For a sketch, let $r$ be the maximum of the absolute values of the $r_i$'s. Then, using a geometric sum, the absolute value of the first sum is bounded from above by
              $$
              rleft(frac{x^j-1}{x-1}right).
              $$

              A short calculation will show that if $x$ is sufficiently large,
              $$
              rleft(frac{x^j-1}{x-1}right)<Im(r_j)x^j.
              $$



            Combining all of this results in the conclusion that the imaginary part of $r_jx^j$ cannot fully cancel, so $R(x)$ is not real.



            This leads directly to our contradiction. After fixing $x$ sufficiently large from above, note that $P(x)$ and $Q(x)$ are real numbers (and we may choose $x$ sufficiently large so that these are nonzero). We then have $P(x)=Q(x)R(x)$, but it is impossible for this equality to hold while $P(x)$ and $Q(x)$ are real, but $R(x)$ is not.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$













              Your Answer





              StackExchange.ifUsing("editor", function () {
              return StackExchange.using("mathjaxEditing", function () {
              StackExchange.MarkdownEditor.creationCallbacks.add(function (editor, postfix) {
              StackExchange.mathjaxEditing.prepareWmdForMathJax(editor, postfix, [["$", "$"], ["\\(","\\)"]]);
              });
              });
              }, "mathjax-editing");

              StackExchange.ready(function() {
              var channelOptions = {
              tags: "".split(" "),
              id: "69"
              };
              initTagRenderer("".split(" "), "".split(" "), channelOptions);

              StackExchange.using("externalEditor", function() {
              // Have to fire editor after snippets, if snippets enabled
              if (StackExchange.settings.snippets.snippetsEnabled) {
              StackExchange.using("snippets", function() {
              createEditor();
              });
              }
              else {
              createEditor();
              }
              });

              function createEditor() {
              StackExchange.prepareEditor({
              heartbeatType: 'answer',
              autoActivateHeartbeat: false,
              convertImagesToLinks: true,
              noModals: true,
              showLowRepImageUploadWarning: true,
              reputationToPostImages: 10,
              bindNavPrevention: true,
              postfix: "",
              imageUploader: {
              brandingHtml: "Powered by u003ca class="icon-imgur-white" href="https://imgur.com/"u003eu003c/au003e",
              contentPolicyHtml: "User contributions licensed under u003ca href="https://creativecommons.org/licenses/by-sa/3.0/"u003ecc by-sa 3.0 with attribution requiredu003c/au003e u003ca href="https://stackoverflow.com/legal/content-policy"u003e(content policy)u003c/au003e",
              allowUrls: true
              },
              noCode: true, onDemand: true,
              discardSelector: ".discard-answer"
              ,immediatelyShowMarkdownHelp:true
              });


              }
              });














              draft saved

              draft discarded


















              StackExchange.ready(
              function () {
              StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f764488%2fdivisor-in-mathbbcx-implies-divisor-in-mathbbrx%23new-answer', 'question_page');
              }
              );

              Post as a guest















              Required, but never shown

























              4 Answers
              4






              active

              oldest

              votes








              4 Answers
              4






              active

              oldest

              votes









              active

              oldest

              votes






              active

              oldest

              votes









              7












              $begingroup$

              The division algorithm uses only the field operations on the coefficients of the polynomials. If $P$ and $Q$ have real coefficients, all the computations take place in $mathbb{R}$; so, if $P=QR$, then $Rinmathbb{R}[X]$.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$













              • $begingroup$
                I think this is the best way to see this. This works just the same in more general cases, for example when $mathbb{C}$ and $mathbb{R}$ is replaced by any field extension $E/F$.
                $endgroup$
                – spin
                Apr 22 '14 at 14:40






              • 1




                $begingroup$
                @spin Yes, and it's quite useful when dealing with algebraic extensions.
                $endgroup$
                – egreg
                Apr 22 '14 at 14:40






              • 1




                $begingroup$
                Alternatively, using division with remainder in $mathbb R[X]$, we have $P=QR+S$ with $Q,Sinmathbb R[X]$ and $deg S<deg R$. Then if $Rmid P$ in $mathbb C[X]$, we conclude $Rmid S$, hence $S=0$ or $deg Sge deg R$.
                $endgroup$
                – Hagen von Eitzen
                Apr 22 '14 at 14:48










              • $begingroup$
                @HagenvonEitzen It's not “alternative”: the uniqueness of the remainder immediately forces $S=0$, because $P=QR+S$ is also a correct division in $mathbb{C}[X]$.
                $endgroup$
                – egreg
                Apr 22 '14 at 14:52












              • $begingroup$
                @egreg Yes, I only wanted to put this as an alternate formulation, not alternate argument.
                $endgroup$
                – Hagen von Eitzen
                Apr 22 '14 at 15:23
















              7












              $begingroup$

              The division algorithm uses only the field operations on the coefficients of the polynomials. If $P$ and $Q$ have real coefficients, all the computations take place in $mathbb{R}$; so, if $P=QR$, then $Rinmathbb{R}[X]$.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$













              • $begingroup$
                I think this is the best way to see this. This works just the same in more general cases, for example when $mathbb{C}$ and $mathbb{R}$ is replaced by any field extension $E/F$.
                $endgroup$
                – spin
                Apr 22 '14 at 14:40






              • 1




                $begingroup$
                @spin Yes, and it's quite useful when dealing with algebraic extensions.
                $endgroup$
                – egreg
                Apr 22 '14 at 14:40






              • 1




                $begingroup$
                Alternatively, using division with remainder in $mathbb R[X]$, we have $P=QR+S$ with $Q,Sinmathbb R[X]$ and $deg S<deg R$. Then if $Rmid P$ in $mathbb C[X]$, we conclude $Rmid S$, hence $S=0$ or $deg Sge deg R$.
                $endgroup$
                – Hagen von Eitzen
                Apr 22 '14 at 14:48










              • $begingroup$
                @HagenvonEitzen It's not “alternative”: the uniqueness of the remainder immediately forces $S=0$, because $P=QR+S$ is also a correct division in $mathbb{C}[X]$.
                $endgroup$
                – egreg
                Apr 22 '14 at 14:52












              • $begingroup$
                @egreg Yes, I only wanted to put this as an alternate formulation, not alternate argument.
                $endgroup$
                – Hagen von Eitzen
                Apr 22 '14 at 15:23














              7












              7








              7





              $begingroup$

              The division algorithm uses only the field operations on the coefficients of the polynomials. If $P$ and $Q$ have real coefficients, all the computations take place in $mathbb{R}$; so, if $P=QR$, then $Rinmathbb{R}[X]$.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$



              The division algorithm uses only the field operations on the coefficients of the polynomials. If $P$ and $Q$ have real coefficients, all the computations take place in $mathbb{R}$; so, if $P=QR$, then $Rinmathbb{R}[X]$.







              share|cite|improve this answer












              share|cite|improve this answer



              share|cite|improve this answer










              answered Apr 22 '14 at 14:37









              egregegreg

              184k1486205




              184k1486205












              • $begingroup$
                I think this is the best way to see this. This works just the same in more general cases, for example when $mathbb{C}$ and $mathbb{R}$ is replaced by any field extension $E/F$.
                $endgroup$
                – spin
                Apr 22 '14 at 14:40






              • 1




                $begingroup$
                @spin Yes, and it's quite useful when dealing with algebraic extensions.
                $endgroup$
                – egreg
                Apr 22 '14 at 14:40






              • 1




                $begingroup$
                Alternatively, using division with remainder in $mathbb R[X]$, we have $P=QR+S$ with $Q,Sinmathbb R[X]$ and $deg S<deg R$. Then if $Rmid P$ in $mathbb C[X]$, we conclude $Rmid S$, hence $S=0$ or $deg Sge deg R$.
                $endgroup$
                – Hagen von Eitzen
                Apr 22 '14 at 14:48










              • $begingroup$
                @HagenvonEitzen It's not “alternative”: the uniqueness of the remainder immediately forces $S=0$, because $P=QR+S$ is also a correct division in $mathbb{C}[X]$.
                $endgroup$
                – egreg
                Apr 22 '14 at 14:52












              • $begingroup$
                @egreg Yes, I only wanted to put this as an alternate formulation, not alternate argument.
                $endgroup$
                – Hagen von Eitzen
                Apr 22 '14 at 15:23


















              • $begingroup$
                I think this is the best way to see this. This works just the same in more general cases, for example when $mathbb{C}$ and $mathbb{R}$ is replaced by any field extension $E/F$.
                $endgroup$
                – spin
                Apr 22 '14 at 14:40






              • 1




                $begingroup$
                @spin Yes, and it's quite useful when dealing with algebraic extensions.
                $endgroup$
                – egreg
                Apr 22 '14 at 14:40






              • 1




                $begingroup$
                Alternatively, using division with remainder in $mathbb R[X]$, we have $P=QR+S$ with $Q,Sinmathbb R[X]$ and $deg S<deg R$. Then if $Rmid P$ in $mathbb C[X]$, we conclude $Rmid S$, hence $S=0$ or $deg Sge deg R$.
                $endgroup$
                – Hagen von Eitzen
                Apr 22 '14 at 14:48










              • $begingroup$
                @HagenvonEitzen It's not “alternative”: the uniqueness of the remainder immediately forces $S=0$, because $P=QR+S$ is also a correct division in $mathbb{C}[X]$.
                $endgroup$
                – egreg
                Apr 22 '14 at 14:52












              • $begingroup$
                @egreg Yes, I only wanted to put this as an alternate formulation, not alternate argument.
                $endgroup$
                – Hagen von Eitzen
                Apr 22 '14 at 15:23
















              $begingroup$
              I think this is the best way to see this. This works just the same in more general cases, for example when $mathbb{C}$ and $mathbb{R}$ is replaced by any field extension $E/F$.
              $endgroup$
              – spin
              Apr 22 '14 at 14:40




              $begingroup$
              I think this is the best way to see this. This works just the same in more general cases, for example when $mathbb{C}$ and $mathbb{R}$ is replaced by any field extension $E/F$.
              $endgroup$
              – spin
              Apr 22 '14 at 14:40




              1




              1




              $begingroup$
              @spin Yes, and it's quite useful when dealing with algebraic extensions.
              $endgroup$
              – egreg
              Apr 22 '14 at 14:40




              $begingroup$
              @spin Yes, and it's quite useful when dealing with algebraic extensions.
              $endgroup$
              – egreg
              Apr 22 '14 at 14:40




              1




              1




              $begingroup$
              Alternatively, using division with remainder in $mathbb R[X]$, we have $P=QR+S$ with $Q,Sinmathbb R[X]$ and $deg S<deg R$. Then if $Rmid P$ in $mathbb C[X]$, we conclude $Rmid S$, hence $S=0$ or $deg Sge deg R$.
              $endgroup$
              – Hagen von Eitzen
              Apr 22 '14 at 14:48




              $begingroup$
              Alternatively, using division with remainder in $mathbb R[X]$, we have $P=QR+S$ with $Q,Sinmathbb R[X]$ and $deg S<deg R$. Then if $Rmid P$ in $mathbb C[X]$, we conclude $Rmid S$, hence $S=0$ or $deg Sge deg R$.
              $endgroup$
              – Hagen von Eitzen
              Apr 22 '14 at 14:48












              $begingroup$
              @HagenvonEitzen It's not “alternative”: the uniqueness of the remainder immediately forces $S=0$, because $P=QR+S$ is also a correct division in $mathbb{C}[X]$.
              $endgroup$
              – egreg
              Apr 22 '14 at 14:52






              $begingroup$
              @HagenvonEitzen It's not “alternative”: the uniqueness of the remainder immediately forces $S=0$, because $P=QR+S$ is also a correct division in $mathbb{C}[X]$.
              $endgroup$
              – egreg
              Apr 22 '14 at 14:52














              $begingroup$
              @egreg Yes, I only wanted to put this as an alternate formulation, not alternate argument.
              $endgroup$
              – Hagen von Eitzen
              Apr 22 '14 at 15:23




              $begingroup$
              @egreg Yes, I only wanted to put this as an alternate formulation, not alternate argument.
              $endgroup$
              – Hagen von Eitzen
              Apr 22 '14 at 15:23











              6












              $begingroup$

              Say you have $P = QR$ where $R in mathbb{C}[X]$. Then $overline{P} = overline{QR} Rightarrow P = Q bar R$ (this is complex conjugation). If $Q$ is the zero polynomial, then so is $P$ and you are done. Otherwise, there is an infinite number of points $x in mathbb{R}$ where $Q(x)$ is nonzero, and for every such $x$, $bar{R}(x) = frac{bar P(x)}{bar Q(x)} = frac{P(x)}{Q(x)} = R(x)$. The two polynomials $R, bar{R}$ agree on an infinite number of points and are therefore equal. This means that $R$ has real coefficients, and so $Q$ divides $P$ in $mathbb{R}[X]$.





              More generally the technique I used works for any Galois extension. Suppose $K subset F$ is a Galois extension, and that $Q neq 0$ divides $P$ in $F[X]$, ie $P = QR$ with $R in F[X]$, $P, Q in K[X]$. Then for every $g in operatorname{Gal}(F/K)$, $P = Q R = g(P) = g(Q) g(R) = Q g(R)$ (where $g(P)$ is the polynomial where you apply $g$ to every coefficient). Since $Q$ is nonzero and $F[X]$ is an integral domain, it follows that $g(R) = R$ for all $g$, and therefore all the coefficients of $R$ are in $K$ (by general Galois theory).






              share|cite|improve this answer











              $endgroup$









              • 2




                $begingroup$
                Doesn't $QR = Q bar R$ simply imply $R = bar R$ (for $Q neq 0$)?
                $endgroup$
                – user10676
                Apr 22 '14 at 14:50












              • $begingroup$
                It isn't as simple as one might think, because $mathbb{R}[X]$ is just an (euclidean) ring and not a field which means you can't divide. But I see now the uniqueness of the remainder works well.
                $endgroup$
                – user144912
                Apr 22 '14 at 15:01












              • $begingroup$
                @user144912 I think he is right, because $mathbb{C}[X]$ and $mathbb{R}[X]$ are domain (? I'm not sure about the english terminology), but if $ab=ac$ with $a neq 0$ then $b=c$, no ?
                $endgroup$
                – yago
                Apr 22 '14 at 15:07










              • $begingroup$
                @user10676: For some reason I forgot that $K[X]$ is an integral domain for any field...
                $endgroup$
                – Najib Idrissi
                Apr 22 '14 at 15:17










              • $begingroup$
                @Yann Hadaoui: Yes, he ist right. Forget what I said in the comment before. Multiplication with $Q$ is an injective endomorphism in $(mathbb{C}[X],+)$, which allows to reduce.
                $endgroup$
                – user144912
                Apr 22 '14 at 15:33


















              6












              $begingroup$

              Say you have $P = QR$ where $R in mathbb{C}[X]$. Then $overline{P} = overline{QR} Rightarrow P = Q bar R$ (this is complex conjugation). If $Q$ is the zero polynomial, then so is $P$ and you are done. Otherwise, there is an infinite number of points $x in mathbb{R}$ where $Q(x)$ is nonzero, and for every such $x$, $bar{R}(x) = frac{bar P(x)}{bar Q(x)} = frac{P(x)}{Q(x)} = R(x)$. The two polynomials $R, bar{R}$ agree on an infinite number of points and are therefore equal. This means that $R$ has real coefficients, and so $Q$ divides $P$ in $mathbb{R}[X]$.





              More generally the technique I used works for any Galois extension. Suppose $K subset F$ is a Galois extension, and that $Q neq 0$ divides $P$ in $F[X]$, ie $P = QR$ with $R in F[X]$, $P, Q in K[X]$. Then for every $g in operatorname{Gal}(F/K)$, $P = Q R = g(P) = g(Q) g(R) = Q g(R)$ (where $g(P)$ is the polynomial where you apply $g$ to every coefficient). Since $Q$ is nonzero and $F[X]$ is an integral domain, it follows that $g(R) = R$ for all $g$, and therefore all the coefficients of $R$ are in $K$ (by general Galois theory).






              share|cite|improve this answer











              $endgroup$









              • 2




                $begingroup$
                Doesn't $QR = Q bar R$ simply imply $R = bar R$ (for $Q neq 0$)?
                $endgroup$
                – user10676
                Apr 22 '14 at 14:50












              • $begingroup$
                It isn't as simple as one might think, because $mathbb{R}[X]$ is just an (euclidean) ring and not a field which means you can't divide. But I see now the uniqueness of the remainder works well.
                $endgroup$
                – user144912
                Apr 22 '14 at 15:01












              • $begingroup$
                @user144912 I think he is right, because $mathbb{C}[X]$ and $mathbb{R}[X]$ are domain (? I'm not sure about the english terminology), but if $ab=ac$ with $a neq 0$ then $b=c$, no ?
                $endgroup$
                – yago
                Apr 22 '14 at 15:07










              • $begingroup$
                @user10676: For some reason I forgot that $K[X]$ is an integral domain for any field...
                $endgroup$
                – Najib Idrissi
                Apr 22 '14 at 15:17










              • $begingroup$
                @Yann Hadaoui: Yes, he ist right. Forget what I said in the comment before. Multiplication with $Q$ is an injective endomorphism in $(mathbb{C}[X],+)$, which allows to reduce.
                $endgroup$
                – user144912
                Apr 22 '14 at 15:33
















              6












              6








              6





              $begingroup$

              Say you have $P = QR$ where $R in mathbb{C}[X]$. Then $overline{P} = overline{QR} Rightarrow P = Q bar R$ (this is complex conjugation). If $Q$ is the zero polynomial, then so is $P$ and you are done. Otherwise, there is an infinite number of points $x in mathbb{R}$ where $Q(x)$ is nonzero, and for every such $x$, $bar{R}(x) = frac{bar P(x)}{bar Q(x)} = frac{P(x)}{Q(x)} = R(x)$. The two polynomials $R, bar{R}$ agree on an infinite number of points and are therefore equal. This means that $R$ has real coefficients, and so $Q$ divides $P$ in $mathbb{R}[X]$.





              More generally the technique I used works for any Galois extension. Suppose $K subset F$ is a Galois extension, and that $Q neq 0$ divides $P$ in $F[X]$, ie $P = QR$ with $R in F[X]$, $P, Q in K[X]$. Then for every $g in operatorname{Gal}(F/K)$, $P = Q R = g(P) = g(Q) g(R) = Q g(R)$ (where $g(P)$ is the polynomial where you apply $g$ to every coefficient). Since $Q$ is nonzero and $F[X]$ is an integral domain, it follows that $g(R) = R$ for all $g$, and therefore all the coefficients of $R$ are in $K$ (by general Galois theory).






              share|cite|improve this answer











              $endgroup$



              Say you have $P = QR$ where $R in mathbb{C}[X]$. Then $overline{P} = overline{QR} Rightarrow P = Q bar R$ (this is complex conjugation). If $Q$ is the zero polynomial, then so is $P$ and you are done. Otherwise, there is an infinite number of points $x in mathbb{R}$ where $Q(x)$ is nonzero, and for every such $x$, $bar{R}(x) = frac{bar P(x)}{bar Q(x)} = frac{P(x)}{Q(x)} = R(x)$. The two polynomials $R, bar{R}$ agree on an infinite number of points and are therefore equal. This means that $R$ has real coefficients, and so $Q$ divides $P$ in $mathbb{R}[X]$.





              More generally the technique I used works for any Galois extension. Suppose $K subset F$ is a Galois extension, and that $Q neq 0$ divides $P$ in $F[X]$, ie $P = QR$ with $R in F[X]$, $P, Q in K[X]$. Then for every $g in operatorname{Gal}(F/K)$, $P = Q R = g(P) = g(Q) g(R) = Q g(R)$ (where $g(P)$ is the polynomial where you apply $g$ to every coefficient). Since $Q$ is nonzero and $F[X]$ is an integral domain, it follows that $g(R) = R$ for all $g$, and therefore all the coefficients of $R$ are in $K$ (by general Galois theory).







              share|cite|improve this answer














              share|cite|improve this answer



              share|cite|improve this answer








              edited Apr 22 '14 at 15:15

























              answered Apr 22 '14 at 14:25









              Najib IdrissiNajib Idrissi

              41.7k473140




              41.7k473140








              • 2




                $begingroup$
                Doesn't $QR = Q bar R$ simply imply $R = bar R$ (for $Q neq 0$)?
                $endgroup$
                – user10676
                Apr 22 '14 at 14:50












              • $begingroup$
                It isn't as simple as one might think, because $mathbb{R}[X]$ is just an (euclidean) ring and not a field which means you can't divide. But I see now the uniqueness of the remainder works well.
                $endgroup$
                – user144912
                Apr 22 '14 at 15:01












              • $begingroup$
                @user144912 I think he is right, because $mathbb{C}[X]$ and $mathbb{R}[X]$ are domain (? I'm not sure about the english terminology), but if $ab=ac$ with $a neq 0$ then $b=c$, no ?
                $endgroup$
                – yago
                Apr 22 '14 at 15:07










              • $begingroup$
                @user10676: For some reason I forgot that $K[X]$ is an integral domain for any field...
                $endgroup$
                – Najib Idrissi
                Apr 22 '14 at 15:17










              • $begingroup$
                @Yann Hadaoui: Yes, he ist right. Forget what I said in the comment before. Multiplication with $Q$ is an injective endomorphism in $(mathbb{C}[X],+)$, which allows to reduce.
                $endgroup$
                – user144912
                Apr 22 '14 at 15:33
















              • 2




                $begingroup$
                Doesn't $QR = Q bar R$ simply imply $R = bar R$ (for $Q neq 0$)?
                $endgroup$
                – user10676
                Apr 22 '14 at 14:50












              • $begingroup$
                It isn't as simple as one might think, because $mathbb{R}[X]$ is just an (euclidean) ring and not a field which means you can't divide. But I see now the uniqueness of the remainder works well.
                $endgroup$
                – user144912
                Apr 22 '14 at 15:01












              • $begingroup$
                @user144912 I think he is right, because $mathbb{C}[X]$ and $mathbb{R}[X]$ are domain (? I'm not sure about the english terminology), but if $ab=ac$ with $a neq 0$ then $b=c$, no ?
                $endgroup$
                – yago
                Apr 22 '14 at 15:07










              • $begingroup$
                @user10676: For some reason I forgot that $K[X]$ is an integral domain for any field...
                $endgroup$
                – Najib Idrissi
                Apr 22 '14 at 15:17










              • $begingroup$
                @Yann Hadaoui: Yes, he ist right. Forget what I said in the comment before. Multiplication with $Q$ is an injective endomorphism in $(mathbb{C}[X],+)$, which allows to reduce.
                $endgroup$
                – user144912
                Apr 22 '14 at 15:33










              2




              2




              $begingroup$
              Doesn't $QR = Q bar R$ simply imply $R = bar R$ (for $Q neq 0$)?
              $endgroup$
              – user10676
              Apr 22 '14 at 14:50






              $begingroup$
              Doesn't $QR = Q bar R$ simply imply $R = bar R$ (for $Q neq 0$)?
              $endgroup$
              – user10676
              Apr 22 '14 at 14:50














              $begingroup$
              It isn't as simple as one might think, because $mathbb{R}[X]$ is just an (euclidean) ring and not a field which means you can't divide. But I see now the uniqueness of the remainder works well.
              $endgroup$
              – user144912
              Apr 22 '14 at 15:01






              $begingroup$
              It isn't as simple as one might think, because $mathbb{R}[X]$ is just an (euclidean) ring and not a field which means you can't divide. But I see now the uniqueness of the remainder works well.
              $endgroup$
              – user144912
              Apr 22 '14 at 15:01














              $begingroup$
              @user144912 I think he is right, because $mathbb{C}[X]$ and $mathbb{R}[X]$ are domain (? I'm not sure about the english terminology), but if $ab=ac$ with $a neq 0$ then $b=c$, no ?
              $endgroup$
              – yago
              Apr 22 '14 at 15:07




              $begingroup$
              @user144912 I think he is right, because $mathbb{C}[X]$ and $mathbb{R}[X]$ are domain (? I'm not sure about the english terminology), but if $ab=ac$ with $a neq 0$ then $b=c$, no ?
              $endgroup$
              – yago
              Apr 22 '14 at 15:07












              $begingroup$
              @user10676: For some reason I forgot that $K[X]$ is an integral domain for any field...
              $endgroup$
              – Najib Idrissi
              Apr 22 '14 at 15:17




              $begingroup$
              @user10676: For some reason I forgot that $K[X]$ is an integral domain for any field...
              $endgroup$
              – Najib Idrissi
              Apr 22 '14 at 15:17












              $begingroup$
              @Yann Hadaoui: Yes, he ist right. Forget what I said in the comment before. Multiplication with $Q$ is an injective endomorphism in $(mathbb{C}[X],+)$, which allows to reduce.
              $endgroup$
              – user144912
              Apr 22 '14 at 15:33






              $begingroup$
              @Yann Hadaoui: Yes, he ist right. Forget what I said in the comment before. Multiplication with $Q$ is an injective endomorphism in $(mathbb{C}[X],+)$, which allows to reduce.
              $endgroup$
              – user144912
              Apr 22 '14 at 15:33













              2












              $begingroup$

              Hint $ $ It follows from the uniqueness of the quotient (and remainder) in the division algorithm (which is the same in $,Bbb R[x],$ and $,Bbb C[x],,$ using the polynomial degree as the Euclidean "size").



              Therefore, since dividing $,P,$ by $,Q,$ in $,Bbb C[x],$ leaves remainder $,0,,$ by uniqueness, the remainder must also be $,0,$ in $,Bbb R[x].,$ Thus $ Qmid P, $ in $,Bbb C[x] $ $Rightarrow$ $ Q | P $ in $,Bbb R[x].$



              This is but one of many examples of the power of uniqueness theorems for proving equalities.



              Remark $ $ More generally, $ $ it follows from persistence of Euclidean gcds in extension domains since, by Bezout, the gcd may be specified (up to unit factor) via the solvability of a system of (linear) equations over $D,,$ and such solutions persist in extension domains of $D,,$ i.e. roots in $D,$ persist as roots in $Esupset D.,$ Note $, Qnmid P,$ in $,Bbb R[x],$ iff their gcd $,(Q,P) = AQ+BP:$ has smaller degree than $,Q.,$ If so, the Bezout equation persists as a witness that $,Qnmid P,$ in $,Bbb C[x]$.



              Such uniqueness is a characteristic property of polynomial domains over fields. Namely, if $D$ is a Euclidean domain with division algorithm having unique quotient and remainder, then either $D$ is a field or $D = F[x]$ for a field $F.,$ For proofs see e.g.



              M. A. Jodeit, Uniqueness in the division algorithm, Amer. Math. Monthly 74 (1967), 835-836.



              T. S. Rhai, A characterization of polynomial domains over a field, Amer. Math. Monthly 69 (1962), 984-986.






              share|cite|improve this answer











              $endgroup$


















                2












                $begingroup$

                Hint $ $ It follows from the uniqueness of the quotient (and remainder) in the division algorithm (which is the same in $,Bbb R[x],$ and $,Bbb C[x],,$ using the polynomial degree as the Euclidean "size").



                Therefore, since dividing $,P,$ by $,Q,$ in $,Bbb C[x],$ leaves remainder $,0,,$ by uniqueness, the remainder must also be $,0,$ in $,Bbb R[x].,$ Thus $ Qmid P, $ in $,Bbb C[x] $ $Rightarrow$ $ Q | P $ in $,Bbb R[x].$



                This is but one of many examples of the power of uniqueness theorems for proving equalities.



                Remark $ $ More generally, $ $ it follows from persistence of Euclidean gcds in extension domains since, by Bezout, the gcd may be specified (up to unit factor) via the solvability of a system of (linear) equations over $D,,$ and such solutions persist in extension domains of $D,,$ i.e. roots in $D,$ persist as roots in $Esupset D.,$ Note $, Qnmid P,$ in $,Bbb R[x],$ iff their gcd $,(Q,P) = AQ+BP:$ has smaller degree than $,Q.,$ If so, the Bezout equation persists as a witness that $,Qnmid P,$ in $,Bbb C[x]$.



                Such uniqueness is a characteristic property of polynomial domains over fields. Namely, if $D$ is a Euclidean domain with division algorithm having unique quotient and remainder, then either $D$ is a field or $D = F[x]$ for a field $F.,$ For proofs see e.g.



                M. A. Jodeit, Uniqueness in the division algorithm, Amer. Math. Monthly 74 (1967), 835-836.



                T. S. Rhai, A characterization of polynomial domains over a field, Amer. Math. Monthly 69 (1962), 984-986.






                share|cite|improve this answer











                $endgroup$
















                  2












                  2








                  2





                  $begingroup$

                  Hint $ $ It follows from the uniqueness of the quotient (and remainder) in the division algorithm (which is the same in $,Bbb R[x],$ and $,Bbb C[x],,$ using the polynomial degree as the Euclidean "size").



                  Therefore, since dividing $,P,$ by $,Q,$ in $,Bbb C[x],$ leaves remainder $,0,,$ by uniqueness, the remainder must also be $,0,$ in $,Bbb R[x].,$ Thus $ Qmid P, $ in $,Bbb C[x] $ $Rightarrow$ $ Q | P $ in $,Bbb R[x].$



                  This is but one of many examples of the power of uniqueness theorems for proving equalities.



                  Remark $ $ More generally, $ $ it follows from persistence of Euclidean gcds in extension domains since, by Bezout, the gcd may be specified (up to unit factor) via the solvability of a system of (linear) equations over $D,,$ and such solutions persist in extension domains of $D,,$ i.e. roots in $D,$ persist as roots in $Esupset D.,$ Note $, Qnmid P,$ in $,Bbb R[x],$ iff their gcd $,(Q,P) = AQ+BP:$ has smaller degree than $,Q.,$ If so, the Bezout equation persists as a witness that $,Qnmid P,$ in $,Bbb C[x]$.



                  Such uniqueness is a characteristic property of polynomial domains over fields. Namely, if $D$ is a Euclidean domain with division algorithm having unique quotient and remainder, then either $D$ is a field or $D = F[x]$ for a field $F.,$ For proofs see e.g.



                  M. A. Jodeit, Uniqueness in the division algorithm, Amer. Math. Monthly 74 (1967), 835-836.



                  T. S. Rhai, A characterization of polynomial domains over a field, Amer. Math. Monthly 69 (1962), 984-986.






                  share|cite|improve this answer











                  $endgroup$



                  Hint $ $ It follows from the uniqueness of the quotient (and remainder) in the division algorithm (which is the same in $,Bbb R[x],$ and $,Bbb C[x],,$ using the polynomial degree as the Euclidean "size").



                  Therefore, since dividing $,P,$ by $,Q,$ in $,Bbb C[x],$ leaves remainder $,0,,$ by uniqueness, the remainder must also be $,0,$ in $,Bbb R[x].,$ Thus $ Qmid P, $ in $,Bbb C[x] $ $Rightarrow$ $ Q | P $ in $,Bbb R[x].$



                  This is but one of many examples of the power of uniqueness theorems for proving equalities.



                  Remark $ $ More generally, $ $ it follows from persistence of Euclidean gcds in extension domains since, by Bezout, the gcd may be specified (up to unit factor) via the solvability of a system of (linear) equations over $D,,$ and such solutions persist in extension domains of $D,,$ i.e. roots in $D,$ persist as roots in $Esupset D.,$ Note $, Qnmid P,$ in $,Bbb R[x],$ iff their gcd $,(Q,P) = AQ+BP:$ has smaller degree than $,Q.,$ If so, the Bezout equation persists as a witness that $,Qnmid P,$ in $,Bbb C[x]$.



                  Such uniqueness is a characteristic property of polynomial domains over fields. Namely, if $D$ is a Euclidean domain with division algorithm having unique quotient and remainder, then either $D$ is a field or $D = F[x]$ for a field $F.,$ For proofs see e.g.



                  M. A. Jodeit, Uniqueness in the division algorithm, Amer. Math. Monthly 74 (1967), 835-836.



                  T. S. Rhai, A characterization of polynomial domains over a field, Amer. Math. Monthly 69 (1962), 984-986.







                  share|cite|improve this answer














                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer








                  edited Apr 13 '17 at 12:21









                  Community

                  1




                  1










                  answered Apr 22 '14 at 14:51









                  Bill DubuqueBill Dubuque

                  212k29195651




                  212k29195651























                      0












                      $begingroup$

                      This can also be done by contradiction as follows:



                      Suppose that $P=QR$ where $P$ and $Q$ are in $mathbb{R}[x]$ and $R$ is in $mathbb{C}[x]setminusmathbb{R}[x]$. Let us write
                      $$
                      R=sum_{i=0}^kr_ix^i.
                      $$

                      Since $R$ is not a polynomial with real coefficients, there is some $r_i$ which is not real. Let $j$ be the largest index where $r_i$ is not real. Then,
                      $$
                      R=left(sum_{i=0}^{j-1}r_ix^iright)+r_jx^j+left(sum_{i=j+1}^kr_ix^iright).
                      $$

                      I claim that, for $x$ sufficiently large, $R(x)$ is not a real number.




                      • For any real number $x$, the third summand is real since all of the coefficients are real.


                      • For all nonzero real numbers $x$, $r_jx^j$ is not a real number since $r_j$ is not real.


                      • For all real numbers $x$ sufficiently large, the first summand is less than the imaginary part of $r_jx^j$. For a sketch, let $r$ be the maximum of the absolute values of the $r_i$'s. Then, using a geometric sum, the absolute value of the first sum is bounded from above by
                        $$
                        rleft(frac{x^j-1}{x-1}right).
                        $$

                        A short calculation will show that if $x$ is sufficiently large,
                        $$
                        rleft(frac{x^j-1}{x-1}right)<Im(r_j)x^j.
                        $$



                      Combining all of this results in the conclusion that the imaginary part of $r_jx^j$ cannot fully cancel, so $R(x)$ is not real.



                      This leads directly to our contradiction. After fixing $x$ sufficiently large from above, note that $P(x)$ and $Q(x)$ are real numbers (and we may choose $x$ sufficiently large so that these are nonzero). We then have $P(x)=Q(x)R(x)$, but it is impossible for this equality to hold while $P(x)$ and $Q(x)$ are real, but $R(x)$ is not.






                      share|cite|improve this answer









                      $endgroup$


















                        0












                        $begingroup$

                        This can also be done by contradiction as follows:



                        Suppose that $P=QR$ where $P$ and $Q$ are in $mathbb{R}[x]$ and $R$ is in $mathbb{C}[x]setminusmathbb{R}[x]$. Let us write
                        $$
                        R=sum_{i=0}^kr_ix^i.
                        $$

                        Since $R$ is not a polynomial with real coefficients, there is some $r_i$ which is not real. Let $j$ be the largest index where $r_i$ is not real. Then,
                        $$
                        R=left(sum_{i=0}^{j-1}r_ix^iright)+r_jx^j+left(sum_{i=j+1}^kr_ix^iright).
                        $$

                        I claim that, for $x$ sufficiently large, $R(x)$ is not a real number.




                        • For any real number $x$, the third summand is real since all of the coefficients are real.


                        • For all nonzero real numbers $x$, $r_jx^j$ is not a real number since $r_j$ is not real.


                        • For all real numbers $x$ sufficiently large, the first summand is less than the imaginary part of $r_jx^j$. For a sketch, let $r$ be the maximum of the absolute values of the $r_i$'s. Then, using a geometric sum, the absolute value of the first sum is bounded from above by
                          $$
                          rleft(frac{x^j-1}{x-1}right).
                          $$

                          A short calculation will show that if $x$ is sufficiently large,
                          $$
                          rleft(frac{x^j-1}{x-1}right)<Im(r_j)x^j.
                          $$



                        Combining all of this results in the conclusion that the imaginary part of $r_jx^j$ cannot fully cancel, so $R(x)$ is not real.



                        This leads directly to our contradiction. After fixing $x$ sufficiently large from above, note that $P(x)$ and $Q(x)$ are real numbers (and we may choose $x$ sufficiently large so that these are nonzero). We then have $P(x)=Q(x)R(x)$, but it is impossible for this equality to hold while $P(x)$ and $Q(x)$ are real, but $R(x)$ is not.






                        share|cite|improve this answer









                        $endgroup$
















                          0












                          0








                          0





                          $begingroup$

                          This can also be done by contradiction as follows:



                          Suppose that $P=QR$ where $P$ and $Q$ are in $mathbb{R}[x]$ and $R$ is in $mathbb{C}[x]setminusmathbb{R}[x]$. Let us write
                          $$
                          R=sum_{i=0}^kr_ix^i.
                          $$

                          Since $R$ is not a polynomial with real coefficients, there is some $r_i$ which is not real. Let $j$ be the largest index where $r_i$ is not real. Then,
                          $$
                          R=left(sum_{i=0}^{j-1}r_ix^iright)+r_jx^j+left(sum_{i=j+1}^kr_ix^iright).
                          $$

                          I claim that, for $x$ sufficiently large, $R(x)$ is not a real number.




                          • For any real number $x$, the third summand is real since all of the coefficients are real.


                          • For all nonzero real numbers $x$, $r_jx^j$ is not a real number since $r_j$ is not real.


                          • For all real numbers $x$ sufficiently large, the first summand is less than the imaginary part of $r_jx^j$. For a sketch, let $r$ be the maximum of the absolute values of the $r_i$'s. Then, using a geometric sum, the absolute value of the first sum is bounded from above by
                            $$
                            rleft(frac{x^j-1}{x-1}right).
                            $$

                            A short calculation will show that if $x$ is sufficiently large,
                            $$
                            rleft(frac{x^j-1}{x-1}right)<Im(r_j)x^j.
                            $$



                          Combining all of this results in the conclusion that the imaginary part of $r_jx^j$ cannot fully cancel, so $R(x)$ is not real.



                          This leads directly to our contradiction. After fixing $x$ sufficiently large from above, note that $P(x)$ and $Q(x)$ are real numbers (and we may choose $x$ sufficiently large so that these are nonzero). We then have $P(x)=Q(x)R(x)$, but it is impossible for this equality to hold while $P(x)$ and $Q(x)$ are real, but $R(x)$ is not.






                          share|cite|improve this answer









                          $endgroup$



                          This can also be done by contradiction as follows:



                          Suppose that $P=QR$ where $P$ and $Q$ are in $mathbb{R}[x]$ and $R$ is in $mathbb{C}[x]setminusmathbb{R}[x]$. Let us write
                          $$
                          R=sum_{i=0}^kr_ix^i.
                          $$

                          Since $R$ is not a polynomial with real coefficients, there is some $r_i$ which is not real. Let $j$ be the largest index where $r_i$ is not real. Then,
                          $$
                          R=left(sum_{i=0}^{j-1}r_ix^iright)+r_jx^j+left(sum_{i=j+1}^kr_ix^iright).
                          $$

                          I claim that, for $x$ sufficiently large, $R(x)$ is not a real number.




                          • For any real number $x$, the third summand is real since all of the coefficients are real.


                          • For all nonzero real numbers $x$, $r_jx^j$ is not a real number since $r_j$ is not real.


                          • For all real numbers $x$ sufficiently large, the first summand is less than the imaginary part of $r_jx^j$. For a sketch, let $r$ be the maximum of the absolute values of the $r_i$'s. Then, using a geometric sum, the absolute value of the first sum is bounded from above by
                            $$
                            rleft(frac{x^j-1}{x-1}right).
                            $$

                            A short calculation will show that if $x$ is sufficiently large,
                            $$
                            rleft(frac{x^j-1}{x-1}right)<Im(r_j)x^j.
                            $$



                          Combining all of this results in the conclusion that the imaginary part of $r_jx^j$ cannot fully cancel, so $R(x)$ is not real.



                          This leads directly to our contradiction. After fixing $x$ sufficiently large from above, note that $P(x)$ and $Q(x)$ are real numbers (and we may choose $x$ sufficiently large so that these are nonzero). We then have $P(x)=Q(x)R(x)$, but it is impossible for this equality to hold while $P(x)$ and $Q(x)$ are real, but $R(x)$ is not.







                          share|cite|improve this answer












                          share|cite|improve this answer



                          share|cite|improve this answer










                          answered Dec 24 '18 at 2:27









                          Michael BurrMichael Burr

                          27k23262




                          27k23262






























                              draft saved

                              draft discarded




















































                              Thanks for contributing an answer to Mathematics Stack Exchange!


                              • Please be sure to answer the question. Provide details and share your research!

                              But avoid



                              • Asking for help, clarification, or responding to other answers.

                              • Making statements based on opinion; back them up with references or personal experience.


                              Use MathJax to format equations. MathJax reference.


                              To learn more, see our tips on writing great answers.




                              draft saved


                              draft discarded














                              StackExchange.ready(
                              function () {
                              StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f764488%2fdivisor-in-mathbbcx-implies-divisor-in-mathbbrx%23new-answer', 'question_page');
                              }
                              );

                              Post as a guest















                              Required, but never shown





















































                              Required, but never shown














                              Required, but never shown












                              Required, but never shown







                              Required, but never shown

































                              Required, but never shown














                              Required, but never shown












                              Required, but never shown







                              Required, but never shown







                              Popular posts from this blog

                              Aardman Animations

                              Are they similar matrix

                              “minimization” problem in Euclidean space related to orthonormal basis