Prove that union, intersection and difference of measurable sets is measurable using specific definition of...












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I found a lot of questions with the similar title on the forum, but not all of them are properly answered and those, which are, differ significantly from mine.



I work in the closed interval $[0,1]$. I use the following definition of Lebesgue measurability:



$mathbf{Def. 1}$ The set E is called measurable iff $$lambda^{*}(E)+lambda^{*}([0,1]backslash E)=1,$$ where $lambda^{*}$ is the outer lebesgue measure, i.e. $lambda^{*}(E)=inf_{Usupset E}lambda(U)$, where $U$ is an open set.



I can prove that this definition is equivalent to the following:



$mathbf{Def. 2}$ The set E is called measurable iff $forall epsilon >0 exists U_{epsilon} ,F_{epsilon}$ - open and closed sets respectively, such that $F_{epsilon} subset E subset U_{epsilon} lambda^{*}(U_{epsilon})-lambda^{*}(F_{epsilon})<epsilon$.



$sigma$-additivity for $lambda$ is also proven (for a measurable set $E$: $lambda(E)=lambda^{*}(E))$ :



If ${E_n}$ - a collection of measurable sets and $E_kcap E_l = varnothing$ then $lambda left (bigcup_{n=1}^{infty}E_n right)=sum_{n=1}^infty{lambda(E_n)}$.



And here is my question:



a) If $A$ and $B$ are measurable sets (they may intersect) prove that $Acup B, Acap B, Abackslash B$ are measurable using $mathbf{ Def. 1}$ or $mathbf{ Def. 2}$.



b) Prove that countable intersection and countable union of the measurable sets is measurable.



I'd appreciate your help, guys.










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    2














    I found a lot of questions with the similar title on the forum, but not all of them are properly answered and those, which are, differ significantly from mine.



    I work in the closed interval $[0,1]$. I use the following definition of Lebesgue measurability:



    $mathbf{Def. 1}$ The set E is called measurable iff $$lambda^{*}(E)+lambda^{*}([0,1]backslash E)=1,$$ where $lambda^{*}$ is the outer lebesgue measure, i.e. $lambda^{*}(E)=inf_{Usupset E}lambda(U)$, where $U$ is an open set.



    I can prove that this definition is equivalent to the following:



    $mathbf{Def. 2}$ The set E is called measurable iff $forall epsilon >0 exists U_{epsilon} ,F_{epsilon}$ - open and closed sets respectively, such that $F_{epsilon} subset E subset U_{epsilon} lambda^{*}(U_{epsilon})-lambda^{*}(F_{epsilon})<epsilon$.



    $sigma$-additivity for $lambda$ is also proven (for a measurable set $E$: $lambda(E)=lambda^{*}(E))$ :



    If ${E_n}$ - a collection of measurable sets and $E_kcap E_l = varnothing$ then $lambda left (bigcup_{n=1}^{infty}E_n right)=sum_{n=1}^infty{lambda(E_n)}$.



    And here is my question:



    a) If $A$ and $B$ are measurable sets (they may intersect) prove that $Acup B, Acap B, Abackslash B$ are measurable using $mathbf{ Def. 1}$ or $mathbf{ Def. 2}$.



    b) Prove that countable intersection and countable union of the measurable sets is measurable.



    I'd appreciate your help, guys.










    share|cite|improve this question



























      2












      2








      2







      I found a lot of questions with the similar title on the forum, but not all of them are properly answered and those, which are, differ significantly from mine.



      I work in the closed interval $[0,1]$. I use the following definition of Lebesgue measurability:



      $mathbf{Def. 1}$ The set E is called measurable iff $$lambda^{*}(E)+lambda^{*}([0,1]backslash E)=1,$$ where $lambda^{*}$ is the outer lebesgue measure, i.e. $lambda^{*}(E)=inf_{Usupset E}lambda(U)$, where $U$ is an open set.



      I can prove that this definition is equivalent to the following:



      $mathbf{Def. 2}$ The set E is called measurable iff $forall epsilon >0 exists U_{epsilon} ,F_{epsilon}$ - open and closed sets respectively, such that $F_{epsilon} subset E subset U_{epsilon} lambda^{*}(U_{epsilon})-lambda^{*}(F_{epsilon})<epsilon$.



      $sigma$-additivity for $lambda$ is also proven (for a measurable set $E$: $lambda(E)=lambda^{*}(E))$ :



      If ${E_n}$ - a collection of measurable sets and $E_kcap E_l = varnothing$ then $lambda left (bigcup_{n=1}^{infty}E_n right)=sum_{n=1}^infty{lambda(E_n)}$.



      And here is my question:



      a) If $A$ and $B$ are measurable sets (they may intersect) prove that $Acup B, Acap B, Abackslash B$ are measurable using $mathbf{ Def. 1}$ or $mathbf{ Def. 2}$.



      b) Prove that countable intersection and countable union of the measurable sets is measurable.



      I'd appreciate your help, guys.










      share|cite|improve this question















      I found a lot of questions with the similar title on the forum, but not all of them are properly answered and those, which are, differ significantly from mine.



      I work in the closed interval $[0,1]$. I use the following definition of Lebesgue measurability:



      $mathbf{Def. 1}$ The set E is called measurable iff $$lambda^{*}(E)+lambda^{*}([0,1]backslash E)=1,$$ where $lambda^{*}$ is the outer lebesgue measure, i.e. $lambda^{*}(E)=inf_{Usupset E}lambda(U)$, where $U$ is an open set.



      I can prove that this definition is equivalent to the following:



      $mathbf{Def. 2}$ The set E is called measurable iff $forall epsilon >0 exists U_{epsilon} ,F_{epsilon}$ - open and closed sets respectively, such that $F_{epsilon} subset E subset U_{epsilon} lambda^{*}(U_{epsilon})-lambda^{*}(F_{epsilon})<epsilon$.



      $sigma$-additivity for $lambda$ is also proven (for a measurable set $E$: $lambda(E)=lambda^{*}(E))$ :



      If ${E_n}$ - a collection of measurable sets and $E_kcap E_l = varnothing$ then $lambda left (bigcup_{n=1}^{infty}E_n right)=sum_{n=1}^infty{lambda(E_n)}$.



      And here is my question:



      a) If $A$ and $B$ are measurable sets (they may intersect) prove that $Acup B, Acap B, Abackslash B$ are measurable using $mathbf{ Def. 1}$ or $mathbf{ Def. 2}$.



      b) Prove that countable intersection and countable union of the measurable sets is measurable.



      I'd appreciate your help, guys.







      real-analysis measure-theory lebesgue-measure






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      edited Sep 3 '16 at 21:39

























      asked Sep 3 '16 at 16:20









      Serj.Aristarkhov

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          Usually, a set $E$ is called (Lebesgue) measurable, if for all sets $A$ we have
          begin{equation} lambda^*(Ecap A)+lambda^*(E^complementcap A)=lambda^*(A).end{equation} We can show, that Def. 1 is equivalent to this standard definition of Lebesgue measurability. Then a) and b) follow, (you can read their proofs in a book on measure theory, they are a bit long, though).



          Proof: If $E$ is Lebesgue measurable (by the standard definition), then it satisfies the equality in Def. 1 (take $A=[0,1]$).



          Let $E$ be not Lebesgue measurable. Then there is a set $A$ and an $varepsilon>0$ such that
          begin{equation}lambda^*(Ecap A)+lambda^*(E^complementcap A)>lambda^*(A)+4varepsilon.end{equation}
          By the definition of $lambda^*$ there is a countable collection of open intervals $(I_n)_n$ where $I_n=(a_n,b_n)$ which together cover $A$ and where
          begin{equation}lambda^*(J)leqsum_{n=1}^infty(b_n-a_n)<lambda^*(A)+2varepsilon,end{equation}
          for $J=bigcup_nI_n$. Since $Asubseteq J$ also $lambda^*(Ecap J)+lambda^*(E^complementcap J)>lambda^*(A)+2varepsilon$. Since the tail of the above sum goes to $0$, there is an index $N$ such that
          begin{equation}sum_{n=N}^infty(b_n-a_n)<varepsilon.end{equation}
          Let $J_N=bigcup_{n=1}^NI_n$. Then
          begin{equation}lambda^*(Ecap J)leqlambda^*(Ecap J_N)+lambda[Ecap(Jsetminus J_N)]<lambda^*(Ecap J_N)+varepsilonend{equation} and the same for $E^complement$ instead of $E$. The next thing works, because $J_N$ and $J_N^complement$ are finite unions of intervals and disjoint.
          begin{align}
          lambda^*(E)+lambda^*(E^complement)&=lambda^*[(Ecap J_N)cup(Ecap J_N^complement)]+lambda^*[(E^complementcap J_N)cup(E^complementcap J_N^complement)]\
          &=lambda^*(Ecap J_N)+lambda^*(Ecap J_N^complement)+lambda^*(E^complementcap J_N)+lambda^*(E^complementcap J_N^complement)\
          &>[lambda^*(Ecap J)+lambda^*(E^complementcap J)-2varepsilon]+lambda(J_N^complement)\
          &>lambda^*(A)+4varepsilon-2varepsilon+[1-lambda(J)]\
          &>1,end{align}
          which means, that $E$ is neither Lebesgue measurable according to Def. 1.






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            Usually, a set $E$ is called (Lebesgue) measurable, if for all sets $A$ we have
            begin{equation} lambda^*(Ecap A)+lambda^*(E^complementcap A)=lambda^*(A).end{equation} We can show, that Def. 1 is equivalent to this standard definition of Lebesgue measurability. Then a) and b) follow, (you can read their proofs in a book on measure theory, they are a bit long, though).



            Proof: If $E$ is Lebesgue measurable (by the standard definition), then it satisfies the equality in Def. 1 (take $A=[0,1]$).



            Let $E$ be not Lebesgue measurable. Then there is a set $A$ and an $varepsilon>0$ such that
            begin{equation}lambda^*(Ecap A)+lambda^*(E^complementcap A)>lambda^*(A)+4varepsilon.end{equation}
            By the definition of $lambda^*$ there is a countable collection of open intervals $(I_n)_n$ where $I_n=(a_n,b_n)$ which together cover $A$ and where
            begin{equation}lambda^*(J)leqsum_{n=1}^infty(b_n-a_n)<lambda^*(A)+2varepsilon,end{equation}
            for $J=bigcup_nI_n$. Since $Asubseteq J$ also $lambda^*(Ecap J)+lambda^*(E^complementcap J)>lambda^*(A)+2varepsilon$. Since the tail of the above sum goes to $0$, there is an index $N$ such that
            begin{equation}sum_{n=N}^infty(b_n-a_n)<varepsilon.end{equation}
            Let $J_N=bigcup_{n=1}^NI_n$. Then
            begin{equation}lambda^*(Ecap J)leqlambda^*(Ecap J_N)+lambda[Ecap(Jsetminus J_N)]<lambda^*(Ecap J_N)+varepsilonend{equation} and the same for $E^complement$ instead of $E$. The next thing works, because $J_N$ and $J_N^complement$ are finite unions of intervals and disjoint.
            begin{align}
            lambda^*(E)+lambda^*(E^complement)&=lambda^*[(Ecap J_N)cup(Ecap J_N^complement)]+lambda^*[(E^complementcap J_N)cup(E^complementcap J_N^complement)]\
            &=lambda^*(Ecap J_N)+lambda^*(Ecap J_N^complement)+lambda^*(E^complementcap J_N)+lambda^*(E^complementcap J_N^complement)\
            &>[lambda^*(Ecap J)+lambda^*(E^complementcap J)-2varepsilon]+lambda(J_N^complement)\
            &>lambda^*(A)+4varepsilon-2varepsilon+[1-lambda(J)]\
            &>1,end{align}
            which means, that $E$ is neither Lebesgue measurable according to Def. 1.






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              0














              Usually, a set $E$ is called (Lebesgue) measurable, if for all sets $A$ we have
              begin{equation} lambda^*(Ecap A)+lambda^*(E^complementcap A)=lambda^*(A).end{equation} We can show, that Def. 1 is equivalent to this standard definition of Lebesgue measurability. Then a) and b) follow, (you can read their proofs in a book on measure theory, they are a bit long, though).



              Proof: If $E$ is Lebesgue measurable (by the standard definition), then it satisfies the equality in Def. 1 (take $A=[0,1]$).



              Let $E$ be not Lebesgue measurable. Then there is a set $A$ and an $varepsilon>0$ such that
              begin{equation}lambda^*(Ecap A)+lambda^*(E^complementcap A)>lambda^*(A)+4varepsilon.end{equation}
              By the definition of $lambda^*$ there is a countable collection of open intervals $(I_n)_n$ where $I_n=(a_n,b_n)$ which together cover $A$ and where
              begin{equation}lambda^*(J)leqsum_{n=1}^infty(b_n-a_n)<lambda^*(A)+2varepsilon,end{equation}
              for $J=bigcup_nI_n$. Since $Asubseteq J$ also $lambda^*(Ecap J)+lambda^*(E^complementcap J)>lambda^*(A)+2varepsilon$. Since the tail of the above sum goes to $0$, there is an index $N$ such that
              begin{equation}sum_{n=N}^infty(b_n-a_n)<varepsilon.end{equation}
              Let $J_N=bigcup_{n=1}^NI_n$. Then
              begin{equation}lambda^*(Ecap J)leqlambda^*(Ecap J_N)+lambda[Ecap(Jsetminus J_N)]<lambda^*(Ecap J_N)+varepsilonend{equation} and the same for $E^complement$ instead of $E$. The next thing works, because $J_N$ and $J_N^complement$ are finite unions of intervals and disjoint.
              begin{align}
              lambda^*(E)+lambda^*(E^complement)&=lambda^*[(Ecap J_N)cup(Ecap J_N^complement)]+lambda^*[(E^complementcap J_N)cup(E^complementcap J_N^complement)]\
              &=lambda^*(Ecap J_N)+lambda^*(Ecap J_N^complement)+lambda^*(E^complementcap J_N)+lambda^*(E^complementcap J_N^complement)\
              &>[lambda^*(Ecap J)+lambda^*(E^complementcap J)-2varepsilon]+lambda(J_N^complement)\
              &>lambda^*(A)+4varepsilon-2varepsilon+[1-lambda(J)]\
              &>1,end{align}
              which means, that $E$ is neither Lebesgue measurable according to Def. 1.






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                Usually, a set $E$ is called (Lebesgue) measurable, if for all sets $A$ we have
                begin{equation} lambda^*(Ecap A)+lambda^*(E^complementcap A)=lambda^*(A).end{equation} We can show, that Def. 1 is equivalent to this standard definition of Lebesgue measurability. Then a) and b) follow, (you can read their proofs in a book on measure theory, they are a bit long, though).



                Proof: If $E$ is Lebesgue measurable (by the standard definition), then it satisfies the equality in Def. 1 (take $A=[0,1]$).



                Let $E$ be not Lebesgue measurable. Then there is a set $A$ and an $varepsilon>0$ such that
                begin{equation}lambda^*(Ecap A)+lambda^*(E^complementcap A)>lambda^*(A)+4varepsilon.end{equation}
                By the definition of $lambda^*$ there is a countable collection of open intervals $(I_n)_n$ where $I_n=(a_n,b_n)$ which together cover $A$ and where
                begin{equation}lambda^*(J)leqsum_{n=1}^infty(b_n-a_n)<lambda^*(A)+2varepsilon,end{equation}
                for $J=bigcup_nI_n$. Since $Asubseteq J$ also $lambda^*(Ecap J)+lambda^*(E^complementcap J)>lambda^*(A)+2varepsilon$. Since the tail of the above sum goes to $0$, there is an index $N$ such that
                begin{equation}sum_{n=N}^infty(b_n-a_n)<varepsilon.end{equation}
                Let $J_N=bigcup_{n=1}^NI_n$. Then
                begin{equation}lambda^*(Ecap J)leqlambda^*(Ecap J_N)+lambda[Ecap(Jsetminus J_N)]<lambda^*(Ecap J_N)+varepsilonend{equation} and the same for $E^complement$ instead of $E$. The next thing works, because $J_N$ and $J_N^complement$ are finite unions of intervals and disjoint.
                begin{align}
                lambda^*(E)+lambda^*(E^complement)&=lambda^*[(Ecap J_N)cup(Ecap J_N^complement)]+lambda^*[(E^complementcap J_N)cup(E^complementcap J_N^complement)]\
                &=lambda^*(Ecap J_N)+lambda^*(Ecap J_N^complement)+lambda^*(E^complementcap J_N)+lambda^*(E^complementcap J_N^complement)\
                &>[lambda^*(Ecap J)+lambda^*(E^complementcap J)-2varepsilon]+lambda(J_N^complement)\
                &>lambda^*(A)+4varepsilon-2varepsilon+[1-lambda(J)]\
                &>1,end{align}
                which means, that $E$ is neither Lebesgue measurable according to Def. 1.






                share|cite|improve this answer














                Usually, a set $E$ is called (Lebesgue) measurable, if for all sets $A$ we have
                begin{equation} lambda^*(Ecap A)+lambda^*(E^complementcap A)=lambda^*(A).end{equation} We can show, that Def. 1 is equivalent to this standard definition of Lebesgue measurability. Then a) and b) follow, (you can read their proofs in a book on measure theory, they are a bit long, though).



                Proof: If $E$ is Lebesgue measurable (by the standard definition), then it satisfies the equality in Def. 1 (take $A=[0,1]$).



                Let $E$ be not Lebesgue measurable. Then there is a set $A$ and an $varepsilon>0$ such that
                begin{equation}lambda^*(Ecap A)+lambda^*(E^complementcap A)>lambda^*(A)+4varepsilon.end{equation}
                By the definition of $lambda^*$ there is a countable collection of open intervals $(I_n)_n$ where $I_n=(a_n,b_n)$ which together cover $A$ and where
                begin{equation}lambda^*(J)leqsum_{n=1}^infty(b_n-a_n)<lambda^*(A)+2varepsilon,end{equation}
                for $J=bigcup_nI_n$. Since $Asubseteq J$ also $lambda^*(Ecap J)+lambda^*(E^complementcap J)>lambda^*(A)+2varepsilon$. Since the tail of the above sum goes to $0$, there is an index $N$ such that
                begin{equation}sum_{n=N}^infty(b_n-a_n)<varepsilon.end{equation}
                Let $J_N=bigcup_{n=1}^NI_n$. Then
                begin{equation}lambda^*(Ecap J)leqlambda^*(Ecap J_N)+lambda[Ecap(Jsetminus J_N)]<lambda^*(Ecap J_N)+varepsilonend{equation} and the same for $E^complement$ instead of $E$. The next thing works, because $J_N$ and $J_N^complement$ are finite unions of intervals and disjoint.
                begin{align}
                lambda^*(E)+lambda^*(E^complement)&=lambda^*[(Ecap J_N)cup(Ecap J_N^complement)]+lambda^*[(E^complementcap J_N)cup(E^complementcap J_N^complement)]\
                &=lambda^*(Ecap J_N)+lambda^*(Ecap J_N^complement)+lambda^*(E^complementcap J_N)+lambda^*(E^complementcap J_N^complement)\
                &>[lambda^*(Ecap J)+lambda^*(E^complementcap J)-2varepsilon]+lambda(J_N^complement)\
                &>lambda^*(A)+4varepsilon-2varepsilon+[1-lambda(J)]\
                &>1,end{align}
                which means, that $E$ is neither Lebesgue measurable according to Def. 1.







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                edited Sep 4 '16 at 15:36

























                answered Sep 4 '16 at 15:28









                aiw7

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