Does the intersection of two dense, open sets have the Baire property?
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Definition: $A subseteq X$ for a metric space $X$ has the Baire Property if for any sequence of sets {$V_{n}$} for $n geq 1$ that are dense and open in $A$,
$$cl(cap V_{n}) cap A = A $$ for all $n geq 1$. That is, $cap V_{n}$ is dense in $A$.
Question:
Now suppose $G_{1}$ and $G_{2}$ are two open, dense sets of metric space $X$.
Prove that $ G_{1} cap G_{2}$ has the Baire property.
To prove this, I need to show that for any sequence, say {$V_{n}$} s.t. each $V_{n}$ is open and dense in $ G_{1} cap G_{2}$,
$cl(cap V_{n}) cap (G_{1} cap G_{2}) = (G_{1} cap G_{2}) $
Attempt $V_{n}$ dense in $G_{1} cap G_{2}$. So $cl(V_{n})cap (G_{1} cap G_{2}) = (G_{1} cap G_{2}) $. Which means $(G_{1} cap G_{2}) subseteq cl(V_{n}) $. Thus, $cl(G_{1} cap G_{2}) subseteq cl(cl(V_{n})) = cl(V_{n})$.
And since $(G_{1} cap G_{2}) subseteq cl(G_{1} cap G_{2})$, we have $(G_{1} cap G_{2}) subseteq cl(V_{n})$.
How do I proceed from here?
general-topology metric-spaces baire-category
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Definition: $A subseteq X$ for a metric space $X$ has the Baire Property if for any sequence of sets {$V_{n}$} for $n geq 1$ that are dense and open in $A$,
$$cl(cap V_{n}) cap A = A $$ for all $n geq 1$. That is, $cap V_{n}$ is dense in $A$.
Question:
Now suppose $G_{1}$ and $G_{2}$ are two open, dense sets of metric space $X$.
Prove that $ G_{1} cap G_{2}$ has the Baire property.
To prove this, I need to show that for any sequence, say {$V_{n}$} s.t. each $V_{n}$ is open and dense in $ G_{1} cap G_{2}$,
$cl(cap V_{n}) cap (G_{1} cap G_{2}) = (G_{1} cap G_{2}) $
Attempt $V_{n}$ dense in $G_{1} cap G_{2}$. So $cl(V_{n})cap (G_{1} cap G_{2}) = (G_{1} cap G_{2}) $. Which means $(G_{1} cap G_{2}) subseteq cl(V_{n}) $. Thus, $cl(G_{1} cap G_{2}) subseteq cl(cl(V_{n})) = cl(V_{n})$.
And since $(G_{1} cap G_{2}) subseteq cl(G_{1} cap G_{2})$, we have $(G_{1} cap G_{2}) subseteq cl(V_{n})$.
How do I proceed from here?
general-topology metric-spaces baire-category
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Seeing as the intersection of two dense open sets is a dense open set, all you have to do is prove that one dense open set has the Baire property.
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– bof
Dec 6 '18 at 4:45
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But I think your instructor's or your textbook's use of the term "Baire property" is pretty confusing. To me, a set has the property of Baire if it's the symmetric difference of an open set and a meager set.
$endgroup$
– bof
Dec 6 '18 at 4:47
1
$begingroup$
@bof Usually topologists say "a space is Baire", or "$X$ is a Baire space", while sets with the property of Baire are called just that. In measure theory we also consider the $sigma$-algebra generated by the closed (or compact) $G_delta$ sets and this is called the Baire $sigma$-algebra. Also, "the" Baire space is a name for $omega^omega$ as well. Confusing, eh?
$endgroup$
– Henno Brandsma
Dec 6 '18 at 6:05
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Definition: $A subseteq X$ for a metric space $X$ has the Baire Property if for any sequence of sets {$V_{n}$} for $n geq 1$ that are dense and open in $A$,
$$cl(cap V_{n}) cap A = A $$ for all $n geq 1$. That is, $cap V_{n}$ is dense in $A$.
Question:
Now suppose $G_{1}$ and $G_{2}$ are two open, dense sets of metric space $X$.
Prove that $ G_{1} cap G_{2}$ has the Baire property.
To prove this, I need to show that for any sequence, say {$V_{n}$} s.t. each $V_{n}$ is open and dense in $ G_{1} cap G_{2}$,
$cl(cap V_{n}) cap (G_{1} cap G_{2}) = (G_{1} cap G_{2}) $
Attempt $V_{n}$ dense in $G_{1} cap G_{2}$. So $cl(V_{n})cap (G_{1} cap G_{2}) = (G_{1} cap G_{2}) $. Which means $(G_{1} cap G_{2}) subseteq cl(V_{n}) $. Thus, $cl(G_{1} cap G_{2}) subseteq cl(cl(V_{n})) = cl(V_{n})$.
And since $(G_{1} cap G_{2}) subseteq cl(G_{1} cap G_{2})$, we have $(G_{1} cap G_{2}) subseteq cl(V_{n})$.
How do I proceed from here?
general-topology metric-spaces baire-category
$endgroup$
Definition: $A subseteq X$ for a metric space $X$ has the Baire Property if for any sequence of sets {$V_{n}$} for $n geq 1$ that are dense and open in $A$,
$$cl(cap V_{n}) cap A = A $$ for all $n geq 1$. That is, $cap V_{n}$ is dense in $A$.
Question:
Now suppose $G_{1}$ and $G_{2}$ are two open, dense sets of metric space $X$.
Prove that $ G_{1} cap G_{2}$ has the Baire property.
To prove this, I need to show that for any sequence, say {$V_{n}$} s.t. each $V_{n}$ is open and dense in $ G_{1} cap G_{2}$,
$cl(cap V_{n}) cap (G_{1} cap G_{2}) = (G_{1} cap G_{2}) $
Attempt $V_{n}$ dense in $G_{1} cap G_{2}$. So $cl(V_{n})cap (G_{1} cap G_{2}) = (G_{1} cap G_{2}) $. Which means $(G_{1} cap G_{2}) subseteq cl(V_{n}) $. Thus, $cl(G_{1} cap G_{2}) subseteq cl(cl(V_{n})) = cl(V_{n})$.
And since $(G_{1} cap G_{2}) subseteq cl(G_{1} cap G_{2})$, we have $(G_{1} cap G_{2}) subseteq cl(V_{n})$.
How do I proceed from here?
general-topology metric-spaces baire-category
general-topology metric-spaces baire-category
edited Dec 6 '18 at 4:20
Eric Wofsey
183k13211338
183k13211338
asked Dec 6 '18 at 3:27
Snop D.Snop D.
285
285
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Seeing as the intersection of two dense open sets is a dense open set, all you have to do is prove that one dense open set has the Baire property.
$endgroup$
– bof
Dec 6 '18 at 4:45
$begingroup$
But I think your instructor's or your textbook's use of the term "Baire property" is pretty confusing. To me, a set has the property of Baire if it's the symmetric difference of an open set and a meager set.
$endgroup$
– bof
Dec 6 '18 at 4:47
1
$begingroup$
@bof Usually topologists say "a space is Baire", or "$X$ is a Baire space", while sets with the property of Baire are called just that. In measure theory we also consider the $sigma$-algebra generated by the closed (or compact) $G_delta$ sets and this is called the Baire $sigma$-algebra. Also, "the" Baire space is a name for $omega^omega$ as well. Confusing, eh?
$endgroup$
– Henno Brandsma
Dec 6 '18 at 6:05
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Seeing as the intersection of two dense open sets is a dense open set, all you have to do is prove that one dense open set has the Baire property.
$endgroup$
– bof
Dec 6 '18 at 4:45
$begingroup$
But I think your instructor's or your textbook's use of the term "Baire property" is pretty confusing. To me, a set has the property of Baire if it's the symmetric difference of an open set and a meager set.
$endgroup$
– bof
Dec 6 '18 at 4:47
1
$begingroup$
@bof Usually topologists say "a space is Baire", or "$X$ is a Baire space", while sets with the property of Baire are called just that. In measure theory we also consider the $sigma$-algebra generated by the closed (or compact) $G_delta$ sets and this is called the Baire $sigma$-algebra. Also, "the" Baire space is a name for $omega^omega$ as well. Confusing, eh?
$endgroup$
– Henno Brandsma
Dec 6 '18 at 6:05
$begingroup$
Seeing as the intersection of two dense open sets is a dense open set, all you have to do is prove that one dense open set has the Baire property.
$endgroup$
– bof
Dec 6 '18 at 4:45
$begingroup$
Seeing as the intersection of two dense open sets is a dense open set, all you have to do is prove that one dense open set has the Baire property.
$endgroup$
– bof
Dec 6 '18 at 4:45
$begingroup$
But I think your instructor's or your textbook's use of the term "Baire property" is pretty confusing. To me, a set has the property of Baire if it's the symmetric difference of an open set and a meager set.
$endgroup$
– bof
Dec 6 '18 at 4:47
$begingroup$
But I think your instructor's or your textbook's use of the term "Baire property" is pretty confusing. To me, a set has the property of Baire if it's the symmetric difference of an open set and a meager set.
$endgroup$
– bof
Dec 6 '18 at 4:47
1
1
$begingroup$
@bof Usually topologists say "a space is Baire", or "$X$ is a Baire space", while sets with the property of Baire are called just that. In measure theory we also consider the $sigma$-algebra generated by the closed (or compact) $G_delta$ sets and this is called the Baire $sigma$-algebra. Also, "the" Baire space is a name for $omega^omega$ as well. Confusing, eh?
$endgroup$
– Henno Brandsma
Dec 6 '18 at 6:05
$begingroup$
@bof Usually topologists say "a space is Baire", or "$X$ is a Baire space", while sets with the property of Baire are called just that. In measure theory we also consider the $sigma$-algebra generated by the closed (or compact) $G_delta$ sets and this is called the Baire $sigma$-algebra. Also, "the" Baire space is a name for $omega^omega$ as well. Confusing, eh?
$endgroup$
– Henno Brandsma
Dec 6 '18 at 6:05
add a comment |
1 Answer
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$begingroup$
You just need to show that if $X$ is Baire, so is any open dense subspace $O$ of $X$. This is straightforward from the definition.
Then note that a finite intersection of dense open sets is still dense and open.
Note that in your statement $X$ needs to be Baire itself, or we could trivially take $X= G_1 = G_2 = mathbb{Q}$ in the usual topology and have a counterexample.
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add a comment |
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$begingroup$
You just need to show that if $X$ is Baire, so is any open dense subspace $O$ of $X$. This is straightforward from the definition.
Then note that a finite intersection of dense open sets is still dense and open.
Note that in your statement $X$ needs to be Baire itself, or we could trivially take $X= G_1 = G_2 = mathbb{Q}$ in the usual topology and have a counterexample.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
You just need to show that if $X$ is Baire, so is any open dense subspace $O$ of $X$. This is straightforward from the definition.
Then note that a finite intersection of dense open sets is still dense and open.
Note that in your statement $X$ needs to be Baire itself, or we could trivially take $X= G_1 = G_2 = mathbb{Q}$ in the usual topology and have a counterexample.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
You just need to show that if $X$ is Baire, so is any open dense subspace $O$ of $X$. This is straightforward from the definition.
Then note that a finite intersection of dense open sets is still dense and open.
Note that in your statement $X$ needs to be Baire itself, or we could trivially take $X= G_1 = G_2 = mathbb{Q}$ in the usual topology and have a counterexample.
$endgroup$
You just need to show that if $X$ is Baire, so is any open dense subspace $O$ of $X$. This is straightforward from the definition.
Then note that a finite intersection of dense open sets is still dense and open.
Note that in your statement $X$ needs to be Baire itself, or we could trivially take $X= G_1 = G_2 = mathbb{Q}$ in the usual topology and have a counterexample.
answered Dec 6 '18 at 6:06
Henno BrandsmaHenno Brandsma
107k347114
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$begingroup$
Seeing as the intersection of two dense open sets is a dense open set, all you have to do is prove that one dense open set has the Baire property.
$endgroup$
– bof
Dec 6 '18 at 4:45
$begingroup$
But I think your instructor's or your textbook's use of the term "Baire property" is pretty confusing. To me, a set has the property of Baire if it's the symmetric difference of an open set and a meager set.
$endgroup$
– bof
Dec 6 '18 at 4:47
1
$begingroup$
@bof Usually topologists say "a space is Baire", or "$X$ is a Baire space", while sets with the property of Baire are called just that. In measure theory we also consider the $sigma$-algebra generated by the closed (or compact) $G_delta$ sets and this is called the Baire $sigma$-algebra. Also, "the" Baire space is a name for $omega^omega$ as well. Confusing, eh?
$endgroup$
– Henno Brandsma
Dec 6 '18 at 6:05