If $(e_1, ldots, e_n)$ and $(f_1, ldots, f_n)$ are co-oriented, then so are $(e_1, ldots, e_n, u)$ and $(f_1,...












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Suppose that $S$ is a smooth $n$-submanifold of $M$ where $dim(M) = n+1$. Suppose also that $S$ and $M$ are both Riemannian and oriented.



Suppose that $(e_1, ldots, e_n)$ and $(f_1, ldots, f_n)$ are both positively oriented orthonormal bases for $T_pS$ and that $(e_1, ldots, e_n, u)$ is positively oriented for $T_pM$ where $u$ is orthonormal with respect to $(e_1, ldots, e_n)$.




Is it necessarily true that $(f_1, ldots, f_n, u)$ is also positively
oriented?




It seems to me possible that $(f_1, ldots, f_n, -u)$ is positively oriented. But I am reading a proof that seems to be relying on the fact that it cannot be.



Any help is appreciated.










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    0












    $begingroup$


    Suppose that $S$ is a smooth $n$-submanifold of $M$ where $dim(M) = n+1$. Suppose also that $S$ and $M$ are both Riemannian and oriented.



    Suppose that $(e_1, ldots, e_n)$ and $(f_1, ldots, f_n)$ are both positively oriented orthonormal bases for $T_pS$ and that $(e_1, ldots, e_n, u)$ is positively oriented for $T_pM$ where $u$ is orthonormal with respect to $(e_1, ldots, e_n)$.




    Is it necessarily true that $(f_1, ldots, f_n, u)$ is also positively
    oriented?




    It seems to me possible that $(f_1, ldots, f_n, -u)$ is positively oriented. But I am reading a proof that seems to be relying on the fact that it cannot be.



    Any help is appreciated.










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$















      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$


      Suppose that $S$ is a smooth $n$-submanifold of $M$ where $dim(M) = n+1$. Suppose also that $S$ and $M$ are both Riemannian and oriented.



      Suppose that $(e_1, ldots, e_n)$ and $(f_1, ldots, f_n)$ are both positively oriented orthonormal bases for $T_pS$ and that $(e_1, ldots, e_n, u)$ is positively oriented for $T_pM$ where $u$ is orthonormal with respect to $(e_1, ldots, e_n)$.




      Is it necessarily true that $(f_1, ldots, f_n, u)$ is also positively
      oriented?




      It seems to me possible that $(f_1, ldots, f_n, -u)$ is positively oriented. But I am reading a proof that seems to be relying on the fact that it cannot be.



      Any help is appreciated.










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      Suppose that $S$ is a smooth $n$-submanifold of $M$ where $dim(M) = n+1$. Suppose also that $S$ and $M$ are both Riemannian and oriented.



      Suppose that $(e_1, ldots, e_n)$ and $(f_1, ldots, f_n)$ are both positively oriented orthonormal bases for $T_pS$ and that $(e_1, ldots, e_n, u)$ is positively oriented for $T_pM$ where $u$ is orthonormal with respect to $(e_1, ldots, e_n)$.




      Is it necessarily true that $(f_1, ldots, f_n, u)$ is also positively
      oriented?




      It seems to me possible that $(f_1, ldots, f_n, -u)$ is positively oriented. But I am reading a proof that seems to be relying on the fact that it cannot be.



      Any help is appreciated.







      linear-algebra differential-geometry riemannian-geometry smooth-manifolds orientation






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      edited Dec 6 '18 at 5:54







      CuriousKid7

















      asked Dec 6 '18 at 4:52









      CuriousKid7CuriousKid7

      1,676717




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          If $A$ is the invertible matrix that sends each $e_i$ to $f_i$, then the the matrix that sends $(e_1,dots,e_n,u)$ to $(f_1,dots,f_n,u)$ has block form $begin{pmatrix} A& 0 \ 0 & 1end{pmatrix}$ so its determinant equals the determinant of $A$. Hence your assumptions imply that also $(f_1,dots,f_n,u)$ is positively oriented.






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            $begingroup$

            If $A$ is the invertible matrix that sends each $e_i$ to $f_i$, then the the matrix that sends $(e_1,dots,e_n,u)$ to $(f_1,dots,f_n,u)$ has block form $begin{pmatrix} A& 0 \ 0 & 1end{pmatrix}$ so its determinant equals the determinant of $A$. Hence your assumptions imply that also $(f_1,dots,f_n,u)$ is positively oriented.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$


















              1












              $begingroup$

              If $A$ is the invertible matrix that sends each $e_i$ to $f_i$, then the the matrix that sends $(e_1,dots,e_n,u)$ to $(f_1,dots,f_n,u)$ has block form $begin{pmatrix} A& 0 \ 0 & 1end{pmatrix}$ so its determinant equals the determinant of $A$. Hence your assumptions imply that also $(f_1,dots,f_n,u)$ is positively oriented.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$
















                1












                1








                1





                $begingroup$

                If $A$ is the invertible matrix that sends each $e_i$ to $f_i$, then the the matrix that sends $(e_1,dots,e_n,u)$ to $(f_1,dots,f_n,u)$ has block form $begin{pmatrix} A& 0 \ 0 & 1end{pmatrix}$ so its determinant equals the determinant of $A$. Hence your assumptions imply that also $(f_1,dots,f_n,u)$ is positively oriented.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$



                If $A$ is the invertible matrix that sends each $e_i$ to $f_i$, then the the matrix that sends $(e_1,dots,e_n,u)$ to $(f_1,dots,f_n,u)$ has block form $begin{pmatrix} A& 0 \ 0 & 1end{pmatrix}$ so its determinant equals the determinant of $A$. Hence your assumptions imply that also $(f_1,dots,f_n,u)$ is positively oriented.







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Dec 6 '18 at 11:38









                Andreas CapAndreas Cap

                11.1k923




                11.1k923






























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