general solution of $xfrac{dy}{dx}-4y=x^6e^x$












1












$begingroup$


I have a question about the following example in Zill and Wright's textbook:




Example $quad$ Solve $xfrac{dy}{dx}-4y=x^6e^x.$




This is a simple example to illustrate how to find general solution of a linear first-order differential equation (DE):




Solution $quad$ By dividing by $x$ we get the standard form
$$frac{dy}{dx}-frac{4}{x}y=x^5e^x.$$
Let $P(x)triangleq-4/x$ and $f(x)triangleq x^5e^x$. Note that $P$ and $f$ are continuous on $(0, infty)$, so the general solution on $(0, infty)$ is $y=y_c+y_p,$ where $y_c=ce^{-int P(x)dx}$ is the general solution to the homogeneneous DE, and $$y_p=e^{-int P(x)dx}int e^{int P(x)dx}f(x)dx$$
is a particular solution to the non-homogeneous DE.



Now, note that $e^{-int P(x)dx}=e^{int 4/xdx}=x^{4}$ on $(0, infty)$. So $y_c=cx^4$ and a particular solution is $y_p=x^{4}int xe^xdx=x^4(x-1)e^x.$ Hence the general solution is $y=cx^4+x^4(x-1)e^x$ on $(0, infty)$.






My question: Isn't $y=cx^4+x^4(x-1)e^x$ the general solution on the entire real line as well?



We're restricted to $(0, infty)$ to make $P$ continuous. The above argument also holds on $(-infty, 0)$. However, $P$ isn't in the original problem. It's an intermediate term we invented to solve the DE, and as a result we exclude ${0}$ from the real line.



Looking at the original DE, any solution $y$ must be $0$ when $x=0.$ And $y=cx^4+x^4(x-1)e^x$ clearly satisfies this. So is there any problem to say that it is the general solution of the original DE on the entire real line? Did I miss something? Thanks a lot!










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$

















    1












    $begingroup$


    I have a question about the following example in Zill and Wright's textbook:




    Example $quad$ Solve $xfrac{dy}{dx}-4y=x^6e^x.$




    This is a simple example to illustrate how to find general solution of a linear first-order differential equation (DE):




    Solution $quad$ By dividing by $x$ we get the standard form
    $$frac{dy}{dx}-frac{4}{x}y=x^5e^x.$$
    Let $P(x)triangleq-4/x$ and $f(x)triangleq x^5e^x$. Note that $P$ and $f$ are continuous on $(0, infty)$, so the general solution on $(0, infty)$ is $y=y_c+y_p,$ where $y_c=ce^{-int P(x)dx}$ is the general solution to the homogeneneous DE, and $$y_p=e^{-int P(x)dx}int e^{int P(x)dx}f(x)dx$$
    is a particular solution to the non-homogeneous DE.



    Now, note that $e^{-int P(x)dx}=e^{int 4/xdx}=x^{4}$ on $(0, infty)$. So $y_c=cx^4$ and a particular solution is $y_p=x^{4}int xe^xdx=x^4(x-1)e^x.$ Hence the general solution is $y=cx^4+x^4(x-1)e^x$ on $(0, infty)$.






    My question: Isn't $y=cx^4+x^4(x-1)e^x$ the general solution on the entire real line as well?



    We're restricted to $(0, infty)$ to make $P$ continuous. The above argument also holds on $(-infty, 0)$. However, $P$ isn't in the original problem. It's an intermediate term we invented to solve the DE, and as a result we exclude ${0}$ from the real line.



    Looking at the original DE, any solution $y$ must be $0$ when $x=0.$ And $y=cx^4+x^4(x-1)e^x$ clearly satisfies this. So is there any problem to say that it is the general solution of the original DE on the entire real line? Did I miss something? Thanks a lot!










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      1












      1








      1





      $begingroup$


      I have a question about the following example in Zill and Wright's textbook:




      Example $quad$ Solve $xfrac{dy}{dx}-4y=x^6e^x.$




      This is a simple example to illustrate how to find general solution of a linear first-order differential equation (DE):




      Solution $quad$ By dividing by $x$ we get the standard form
      $$frac{dy}{dx}-frac{4}{x}y=x^5e^x.$$
      Let $P(x)triangleq-4/x$ and $f(x)triangleq x^5e^x$. Note that $P$ and $f$ are continuous on $(0, infty)$, so the general solution on $(0, infty)$ is $y=y_c+y_p,$ where $y_c=ce^{-int P(x)dx}$ is the general solution to the homogeneneous DE, and $$y_p=e^{-int P(x)dx}int e^{int P(x)dx}f(x)dx$$
      is a particular solution to the non-homogeneous DE.



      Now, note that $e^{-int P(x)dx}=e^{int 4/xdx}=x^{4}$ on $(0, infty)$. So $y_c=cx^4$ and a particular solution is $y_p=x^{4}int xe^xdx=x^4(x-1)e^x.$ Hence the general solution is $y=cx^4+x^4(x-1)e^x$ on $(0, infty)$.






      My question: Isn't $y=cx^4+x^4(x-1)e^x$ the general solution on the entire real line as well?



      We're restricted to $(0, infty)$ to make $P$ continuous. The above argument also holds on $(-infty, 0)$. However, $P$ isn't in the original problem. It's an intermediate term we invented to solve the DE, and as a result we exclude ${0}$ from the real line.



      Looking at the original DE, any solution $y$ must be $0$ when $x=0.$ And $y=cx^4+x^4(x-1)e^x$ clearly satisfies this. So is there any problem to say that it is the general solution of the original DE on the entire real line? Did I miss something? Thanks a lot!










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      I have a question about the following example in Zill and Wright's textbook:




      Example $quad$ Solve $xfrac{dy}{dx}-4y=x^6e^x.$




      This is a simple example to illustrate how to find general solution of a linear first-order differential equation (DE):




      Solution $quad$ By dividing by $x$ we get the standard form
      $$frac{dy}{dx}-frac{4}{x}y=x^5e^x.$$
      Let $P(x)triangleq-4/x$ and $f(x)triangleq x^5e^x$. Note that $P$ and $f$ are continuous on $(0, infty)$, so the general solution on $(0, infty)$ is $y=y_c+y_p,$ where $y_c=ce^{-int P(x)dx}$ is the general solution to the homogeneneous DE, and $$y_p=e^{-int P(x)dx}int e^{int P(x)dx}f(x)dx$$
      is a particular solution to the non-homogeneous DE.



      Now, note that $e^{-int P(x)dx}=e^{int 4/xdx}=x^{4}$ on $(0, infty)$. So $y_c=cx^4$ and a particular solution is $y_p=x^{4}int xe^xdx=x^4(x-1)e^x.$ Hence the general solution is $y=cx^4+x^4(x-1)e^x$ on $(0, infty)$.






      My question: Isn't $y=cx^4+x^4(x-1)e^x$ the general solution on the entire real line as well?



      We're restricted to $(0, infty)$ to make $P$ continuous. The above argument also holds on $(-infty, 0)$. However, $P$ isn't in the original problem. It's an intermediate term we invented to solve the DE, and as a result we exclude ${0}$ from the real line.



      Looking at the original DE, any solution $y$ must be $0$ when $x=0.$ And $y=cx^4+x^4(x-1)e^x$ clearly satisfies this. So is there any problem to say that it is the general solution of the original DE on the entire real line? Did I miss something? Thanks a lot!







      ordinary-differential-equations proof-verification






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      asked Dec 6 '18 at 4:20









      syeh_106syeh_106

      1,137813




      1,137813






















          1 Answer
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          $begingroup$

          Because of the singular point at 0, the solution on each side doesn't necessarily have to "match up". That means $c$ can take on different values for positive and negative numbers, and the general solution is
          $$
          y = begin{cases}c_1 x^4 + x^4(x-1)e^x & x < 0 \ c_2x^4 + x^4(x-1)e^x & xge 0end{cases}
          $$

          or equivalently
          $$
          y = b_1 x^4 + b_2 x^3|x| + x^4(x-1)e^x
          $$

          for some constants $b_1$ and $b_2$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$









          • 1




            $begingroup$
            A singular point is any point where one of the coefficient functions of the DE in standard form has a singularity. In this case, $4/x$ has a singularity at $0$.
            $endgroup$
            – eyeballfrog
            Dec 6 '18 at 4:56










          • $begingroup$
            You mean to say original DE is not continuous at x=0. Am i right?
            $endgroup$
            – Dhamnekar Winod
            Dec 6 '18 at 5:44










          • $begingroup$
            Indeed. I thought about this question some more. So, for instance, the initial value problem (IVP), $x frac{dy}{dx}-4y=x^6e^x, y(1)=1$, has a unique solution only on $(0, infty)$ or $[0, infty)$, but not on the entire real line? In other words, $c_2=1$ is uniquely defined, but $c_1$ can take any value. For example, together with either $c_1=3$ or $c_1=-2$, we have a legitimate solution on $(-infty, infty)$ to the IVP. And each solution is continuously differentiable on $(-infty, infty)$.
            $endgroup$
            – syeh_106
            Dec 7 '18 at 2:46













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          1 Answer
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          1 Answer
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          active

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          active

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          2












          $begingroup$

          Because of the singular point at 0, the solution on each side doesn't necessarily have to "match up". That means $c$ can take on different values for positive and negative numbers, and the general solution is
          $$
          y = begin{cases}c_1 x^4 + x^4(x-1)e^x & x < 0 \ c_2x^4 + x^4(x-1)e^x & xge 0end{cases}
          $$

          or equivalently
          $$
          y = b_1 x^4 + b_2 x^3|x| + x^4(x-1)e^x
          $$

          for some constants $b_1$ and $b_2$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$









          • 1




            $begingroup$
            A singular point is any point where one of the coefficient functions of the DE in standard form has a singularity. In this case, $4/x$ has a singularity at $0$.
            $endgroup$
            – eyeballfrog
            Dec 6 '18 at 4:56










          • $begingroup$
            You mean to say original DE is not continuous at x=0. Am i right?
            $endgroup$
            – Dhamnekar Winod
            Dec 6 '18 at 5:44










          • $begingroup$
            Indeed. I thought about this question some more. So, for instance, the initial value problem (IVP), $x frac{dy}{dx}-4y=x^6e^x, y(1)=1$, has a unique solution only on $(0, infty)$ or $[0, infty)$, but not on the entire real line? In other words, $c_2=1$ is uniquely defined, but $c_1$ can take any value. For example, together with either $c_1=3$ or $c_1=-2$, we have a legitimate solution on $(-infty, infty)$ to the IVP. And each solution is continuously differentiable on $(-infty, infty)$.
            $endgroup$
            – syeh_106
            Dec 7 '18 at 2:46


















          2












          $begingroup$

          Because of the singular point at 0, the solution on each side doesn't necessarily have to "match up". That means $c$ can take on different values for positive and negative numbers, and the general solution is
          $$
          y = begin{cases}c_1 x^4 + x^4(x-1)e^x & x < 0 \ c_2x^4 + x^4(x-1)e^x & xge 0end{cases}
          $$

          or equivalently
          $$
          y = b_1 x^4 + b_2 x^3|x| + x^4(x-1)e^x
          $$

          for some constants $b_1$ and $b_2$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$









          • 1




            $begingroup$
            A singular point is any point where one of the coefficient functions of the DE in standard form has a singularity. In this case, $4/x$ has a singularity at $0$.
            $endgroup$
            – eyeballfrog
            Dec 6 '18 at 4:56










          • $begingroup$
            You mean to say original DE is not continuous at x=0. Am i right?
            $endgroup$
            – Dhamnekar Winod
            Dec 6 '18 at 5:44










          • $begingroup$
            Indeed. I thought about this question some more. So, for instance, the initial value problem (IVP), $x frac{dy}{dx}-4y=x^6e^x, y(1)=1$, has a unique solution only on $(0, infty)$ or $[0, infty)$, but not on the entire real line? In other words, $c_2=1$ is uniquely defined, but $c_1$ can take any value. For example, together with either $c_1=3$ or $c_1=-2$, we have a legitimate solution on $(-infty, infty)$ to the IVP. And each solution is continuously differentiable on $(-infty, infty)$.
            $endgroup$
            – syeh_106
            Dec 7 '18 at 2:46
















          2












          2








          2





          $begingroup$

          Because of the singular point at 0, the solution on each side doesn't necessarily have to "match up". That means $c$ can take on different values for positive and negative numbers, and the general solution is
          $$
          y = begin{cases}c_1 x^4 + x^4(x-1)e^x & x < 0 \ c_2x^4 + x^4(x-1)e^x & xge 0end{cases}
          $$

          or equivalently
          $$
          y = b_1 x^4 + b_2 x^3|x| + x^4(x-1)e^x
          $$

          for some constants $b_1$ and $b_2$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          Because of the singular point at 0, the solution on each side doesn't necessarily have to "match up". That means $c$ can take on different values for positive and negative numbers, and the general solution is
          $$
          y = begin{cases}c_1 x^4 + x^4(x-1)e^x & x < 0 \ c_2x^4 + x^4(x-1)e^x & xge 0end{cases}
          $$

          or equivalently
          $$
          y = b_1 x^4 + b_2 x^3|x| + x^4(x-1)e^x
          $$

          for some constants $b_1$ and $b_2$.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Dec 6 '18 at 4:31









          eyeballfrogeyeballfrog

          6,103629




          6,103629








          • 1




            $begingroup$
            A singular point is any point where one of the coefficient functions of the DE in standard form has a singularity. In this case, $4/x$ has a singularity at $0$.
            $endgroup$
            – eyeballfrog
            Dec 6 '18 at 4:56










          • $begingroup$
            You mean to say original DE is not continuous at x=0. Am i right?
            $endgroup$
            – Dhamnekar Winod
            Dec 6 '18 at 5:44










          • $begingroup$
            Indeed. I thought about this question some more. So, for instance, the initial value problem (IVP), $x frac{dy}{dx}-4y=x^6e^x, y(1)=1$, has a unique solution only on $(0, infty)$ or $[0, infty)$, but not on the entire real line? In other words, $c_2=1$ is uniquely defined, but $c_1$ can take any value. For example, together with either $c_1=3$ or $c_1=-2$, we have a legitimate solution on $(-infty, infty)$ to the IVP. And each solution is continuously differentiable on $(-infty, infty)$.
            $endgroup$
            – syeh_106
            Dec 7 '18 at 2:46
















          • 1




            $begingroup$
            A singular point is any point where one of the coefficient functions of the DE in standard form has a singularity. In this case, $4/x$ has a singularity at $0$.
            $endgroup$
            – eyeballfrog
            Dec 6 '18 at 4:56










          • $begingroup$
            You mean to say original DE is not continuous at x=0. Am i right?
            $endgroup$
            – Dhamnekar Winod
            Dec 6 '18 at 5:44










          • $begingroup$
            Indeed. I thought about this question some more. So, for instance, the initial value problem (IVP), $x frac{dy}{dx}-4y=x^6e^x, y(1)=1$, has a unique solution only on $(0, infty)$ or $[0, infty)$, but not on the entire real line? In other words, $c_2=1$ is uniquely defined, but $c_1$ can take any value. For example, together with either $c_1=3$ or $c_1=-2$, we have a legitimate solution on $(-infty, infty)$ to the IVP. And each solution is continuously differentiable on $(-infty, infty)$.
            $endgroup$
            – syeh_106
            Dec 7 '18 at 2:46










          1




          1




          $begingroup$
          A singular point is any point where one of the coefficient functions of the DE in standard form has a singularity. In this case, $4/x$ has a singularity at $0$.
          $endgroup$
          – eyeballfrog
          Dec 6 '18 at 4:56




          $begingroup$
          A singular point is any point where one of the coefficient functions of the DE in standard form has a singularity. In this case, $4/x$ has a singularity at $0$.
          $endgroup$
          – eyeballfrog
          Dec 6 '18 at 4:56












          $begingroup$
          You mean to say original DE is not continuous at x=0. Am i right?
          $endgroup$
          – Dhamnekar Winod
          Dec 6 '18 at 5:44




          $begingroup$
          You mean to say original DE is not continuous at x=0. Am i right?
          $endgroup$
          – Dhamnekar Winod
          Dec 6 '18 at 5:44












          $begingroup$
          Indeed. I thought about this question some more. So, for instance, the initial value problem (IVP), $x frac{dy}{dx}-4y=x^6e^x, y(1)=1$, has a unique solution only on $(0, infty)$ or $[0, infty)$, but not on the entire real line? In other words, $c_2=1$ is uniquely defined, but $c_1$ can take any value. For example, together with either $c_1=3$ or $c_1=-2$, we have a legitimate solution on $(-infty, infty)$ to the IVP. And each solution is continuously differentiable on $(-infty, infty)$.
          $endgroup$
          – syeh_106
          Dec 7 '18 at 2:46






          $begingroup$
          Indeed. I thought about this question some more. So, for instance, the initial value problem (IVP), $x frac{dy}{dx}-4y=x^6e^x, y(1)=1$, has a unique solution only on $(0, infty)$ or $[0, infty)$, but not on the entire real line? In other words, $c_2=1$ is uniquely defined, but $c_1$ can take any value. For example, together with either $c_1=3$ or $c_1=-2$, we have a legitimate solution on $(-infty, infty)$ to the IVP. And each solution is continuously differentiable on $(-infty, infty)$.
          $endgroup$
          – syeh_106
          Dec 7 '18 at 2:46




















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