general solution of $xfrac{dy}{dx}-4y=x^6e^x$
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I have a question about the following example in Zill and Wright's textbook:
Example $quad$ Solve $xfrac{dy}{dx}-4y=x^6e^x.$
This is a simple example to illustrate how to find general solution of a linear first-order differential equation (DE):
Solution $quad$ By dividing by $x$ we get the standard form
$$frac{dy}{dx}-frac{4}{x}y=x^5e^x.$$
Let $P(x)triangleq-4/x$ and $f(x)triangleq x^5e^x$. Note that $P$ and $f$ are continuous on $(0, infty)$, so the general solution on $(0, infty)$ is $y=y_c+y_p,$ where $y_c=ce^{-int P(x)dx}$ is the general solution to the homogeneneous DE, and $$y_p=e^{-int P(x)dx}int e^{int P(x)dx}f(x)dx$$
is a particular solution to the non-homogeneous DE.
Now, note that $e^{-int P(x)dx}=e^{int 4/xdx}=x^{4}$ on $(0, infty)$. So $y_c=cx^4$ and a particular solution is $y_p=x^{4}int xe^xdx=x^4(x-1)e^x.$ Hence the general solution is $y=cx^4+x^4(x-1)e^x$ on $(0, infty)$.
My question: Isn't $y=cx^4+x^4(x-1)e^x$ the general solution on the entire real line as well?
We're restricted to $(0, infty)$ to make $P$ continuous. The above argument also holds on $(-infty, 0)$. However, $P$ isn't in the original problem. It's an intermediate term we invented to solve the DE, and as a result we exclude ${0}$ from the real line.
Looking at the original DE, any solution $y$ must be $0$ when $x=0.$ And $y=cx^4+x^4(x-1)e^x$ clearly satisfies this. So is there any problem to say that it is the general solution of the original DE on the entire real line? Did I miss something? Thanks a lot!
ordinary-differential-equations proof-verification
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add a comment |
$begingroup$
I have a question about the following example in Zill and Wright's textbook:
Example $quad$ Solve $xfrac{dy}{dx}-4y=x^6e^x.$
This is a simple example to illustrate how to find general solution of a linear first-order differential equation (DE):
Solution $quad$ By dividing by $x$ we get the standard form
$$frac{dy}{dx}-frac{4}{x}y=x^5e^x.$$
Let $P(x)triangleq-4/x$ and $f(x)triangleq x^5e^x$. Note that $P$ and $f$ are continuous on $(0, infty)$, so the general solution on $(0, infty)$ is $y=y_c+y_p,$ where $y_c=ce^{-int P(x)dx}$ is the general solution to the homogeneneous DE, and $$y_p=e^{-int P(x)dx}int e^{int P(x)dx}f(x)dx$$
is a particular solution to the non-homogeneous DE.
Now, note that $e^{-int P(x)dx}=e^{int 4/xdx}=x^{4}$ on $(0, infty)$. So $y_c=cx^4$ and a particular solution is $y_p=x^{4}int xe^xdx=x^4(x-1)e^x.$ Hence the general solution is $y=cx^4+x^4(x-1)e^x$ on $(0, infty)$.
My question: Isn't $y=cx^4+x^4(x-1)e^x$ the general solution on the entire real line as well?
We're restricted to $(0, infty)$ to make $P$ continuous. The above argument also holds on $(-infty, 0)$. However, $P$ isn't in the original problem. It's an intermediate term we invented to solve the DE, and as a result we exclude ${0}$ from the real line.
Looking at the original DE, any solution $y$ must be $0$ when $x=0.$ And $y=cx^4+x^4(x-1)e^x$ clearly satisfies this. So is there any problem to say that it is the general solution of the original DE on the entire real line? Did I miss something? Thanks a lot!
ordinary-differential-equations proof-verification
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I have a question about the following example in Zill and Wright's textbook:
Example $quad$ Solve $xfrac{dy}{dx}-4y=x^6e^x.$
This is a simple example to illustrate how to find general solution of a linear first-order differential equation (DE):
Solution $quad$ By dividing by $x$ we get the standard form
$$frac{dy}{dx}-frac{4}{x}y=x^5e^x.$$
Let $P(x)triangleq-4/x$ and $f(x)triangleq x^5e^x$. Note that $P$ and $f$ are continuous on $(0, infty)$, so the general solution on $(0, infty)$ is $y=y_c+y_p,$ where $y_c=ce^{-int P(x)dx}$ is the general solution to the homogeneneous DE, and $$y_p=e^{-int P(x)dx}int e^{int P(x)dx}f(x)dx$$
is a particular solution to the non-homogeneous DE.
Now, note that $e^{-int P(x)dx}=e^{int 4/xdx}=x^{4}$ on $(0, infty)$. So $y_c=cx^4$ and a particular solution is $y_p=x^{4}int xe^xdx=x^4(x-1)e^x.$ Hence the general solution is $y=cx^4+x^4(x-1)e^x$ on $(0, infty)$.
My question: Isn't $y=cx^4+x^4(x-1)e^x$ the general solution on the entire real line as well?
We're restricted to $(0, infty)$ to make $P$ continuous. The above argument also holds on $(-infty, 0)$. However, $P$ isn't in the original problem. It's an intermediate term we invented to solve the DE, and as a result we exclude ${0}$ from the real line.
Looking at the original DE, any solution $y$ must be $0$ when $x=0.$ And $y=cx^4+x^4(x-1)e^x$ clearly satisfies this. So is there any problem to say that it is the general solution of the original DE on the entire real line? Did I miss something? Thanks a lot!
ordinary-differential-equations proof-verification
$endgroup$
I have a question about the following example in Zill and Wright's textbook:
Example $quad$ Solve $xfrac{dy}{dx}-4y=x^6e^x.$
This is a simple example to illustrate how to find general solution of a linear first-order differential equation (DE):
Solution $quad$ By dividing by $x$ we get the standard form
$$frac{dy}{dx}-frac{4}{x}y=x^5e^x.$$
Let $P(x)triangleq-4/x$ and $f(x)triangleq x^5e^x$. Note that $P$ and $f$ are continuous on $(0, infty)$, so the general solution on $(0, infty)$ is $y=y_c+y_p,$ where $y_c=ce^{-int P(x)dx}$ is the general solution to the homogeneneous DE, and $$y_p=e^{-int P(x)dx}int e^{int P(x)dx}f(x)dx$$
is a particular solution to the non-homogeneous DE.
Now, note that $e^{-int P(x)dx}=e^{int 4/xdx}=x^{4}$ on $(0, infty)$. So $y_c=cx^4$ and a particular solution is $y_p=x^{4}int xe^xdx=x^4(x-1)e^x.$ Hence the general solution is $y=cx^4+x^4(x-1)e^x$ on $(0, infty)$.
My question: Isn't $y=cx^4+x^4(x-1)e^x$ the general solution on the entire real line as well?
We're restricted to $(0, infty)$ to make $P$ continuous. The above argument also holds on $(-infty, 0)$. However, $P$ isn't in the original problem. It's an intermediate term we invented to solve the DE, and as a result we exclude ${0}$ from the real line.
Looking at the original DE, any solution $y$ must be $0$ when $x=0.$ And $y=cx^4+x^4(x-1)e^x$ clearly satisfies this. So is there any problem to say that it is the general solution of the original DE on the entire real line? Did I miss something? Thanks a lot!
ordinary-differential-equations proof-verification
ordinary-differential-equations proof-verification
asked Dec 6 '18 at 4:20
syeh_106syeh_106
1,137813
1,137813
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1 Answer
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Because of the singular point at 0, the solution on each side doesn't necessarily have to "match up". That means $c$ can take on different values for positive and negative numbers, and the general solution is
$$
y = begin{cases}c_1 x^4 + x^4(x-1)e^x & x < 0 \ c_2x^4 + x^4(x-1)e^x & xge 0end{cases}
$$
or equivalently
$$
y = b_1 x^4 + b_2 x^3|x| + x^4(x-1)e^x
$$
for some constants $b_1$ and $b_2$.
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1
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A singular point is any point where one of the coefficient functions of the DE in standard form has a singularity. In this case, $4/x$ has a singularity at $0$.
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– eyeballfrog
Dec 6 '18 at 4:56
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You mean to say original DE is not continuous at x=0. Am i right?
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– Dhamnekar Winod
Dec 6 '18 at 5:44
$begingroup$
Indeed. I thought about this question some more. So, for instance, the initial value problem (IVP), $x frac{dy}{dx}-4y=x^6e^x, y(1)=1$, has a unique solution only on $(0, infty)$ or $[0, infty)$, but not on the entire real line? In other words, $c_2=1$ is uniquely defined, but $c_1$ can take any value. For example, together with either $c_1=3$ or $c_1=-2$, we have a legitimate solution on $(-infty, infty)$ to the IVP. And each solution is continuously differentiable on $(-infty, infty)$.
$endgroup$
– syeh_106
Dec 7 '18 at 2:46
add a comment |
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1 Answer
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$begingroup$
Because of the singular point at 0, the solution on each side doesn't necessarily have to "match up". That means $c$ can take on different values for positive and negative numbers, and the general solution is
$$
y = begin{cases}c_1 x^4 + x^4(x-1)e^x & x < 0 \ c_2x^4 + x^4(x-1)e^x & xge 0end{cases}
$$
or equivalently
$$
y = b_1 x^4 + b_2 x^3|x| + x^4(x-1)e^x
$$
for some constants $b_1$ and $b_2$.
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
A singular point is any point where one of the coefficient functions of the DE in standard form has a singularity. In this case, $4/x$ has a singularity at $0$.
$endgroup$
– eyeballfrog
Dec 6 '18 at 4:56
$begingroup$
You mean to say original DE is not continuous at x=0. Am i right?
$endgroup$
– Dhamnekar Winod
Dec 6 '18 at 5:44
$begingroup$
Indeed. I thought about this question some more. So, for instance, the initial value problem (IVP), $x frac{dy}{dx}-4y=x^6e^x, y(1)=1$, has a unique solution only on $(0, infty)$ or $[0, infty)$, but not on the entire real line? In other words, $c_2=1$ is uniquely defined, but $c_1$ can take any value. For example, together with either $c_1=3$ or $c_1=-2$, we have a legitimate solution on $(-infty, infty)$ to the IVP. And each solution is continuously differentiable on $(-infty, infty)$.
$endgroup$
– syeh_106
Dec 7 '18 at 2:46
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Because of the singular point at 0, the solution on each side doesn't necessarily have to "match up". That means $c$ can take on different values for positive and negative numbers, and the general solution is
$$
y = begin{cases}c_1 x^4 + x^4(x-1)e^x & x < 0 \ c_2x^4 + x^4(x-1)e^x & xge 0end{cases}
$$
or equivalently
$$
y = b_1 x^4 + b_2 x^3|x| + x^4(x-1)e^x
$$
for some constants $b_1$ and $b_2$.
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
A singular point is any point where one of the coefficient functions of the DE in standard form has a singularity. In this case, $4/x$ has a singularity at $0$.
$endgroup$
– eyeballfrog
Dec 6 '18 at 4:56
$begingroup$
You mean to say original DE is not continuous at x=0. Am i right?
$endgroup$
– Dhamnekar Winod
Dec 6 '18 at 5:44
$begingroup$
Indeed. I thought about this question some more. So, for instance, the initial value problem (IVP), $x frac{dy}{dx}-4y=x^6e^x, y(1)=1$, has a unique solution only on $(0, infty)$ or $[0, infty)$, but not on the entire real line? In other words, $c_2=1$ is uniquely defined, but $c_1$ can take any value. For example, together with either $c_1=3$ or $c_1=-2$, we have a legitimate solution on $(-infty, infty)$ to the IVP. And each solution is continuously differentiable on $(-infty, infty)$.
$endgroup$
– syeh_106
Dec 7 '18 at 2:46
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Because of the singular point at 0, the solution on each side doesn't necessarily have to "match up". That means $c$ can take on different values for positive and negative numbers, and the general solution is
$$
y = begin{cases}c_1 x^4 + x^4(x-1)e^x & x < 0 \ c_2x^4 + x^4(x-1)e^x & xge 0end{cases}
$$
or equivalently
$$
y = b_1 x^4 + b_2 x^3|x| + x^4(x-1)e^x
$$
for some constants $b_1$ and $b_2$.
$endgroup$
Because of the singular point at 0, the solution on each side doesn't necessarily have to "match up". That means $c$ can take on different values for positive and negative numbers, and the general solution is
$$
y = begin{cases}c_1 x^4 + x^4(x-1)e^x & x < 0 \ c_2x^4 + x^4(x-1)e^x & xge 0end{cases}
$$
or equivalently
$$
y = b_1 x^4 + b_2 x^3|x| + x^4(x-1)e^x
$$
for some constants $b_1$ and $b_2$.
answered Dec 6 '18 at 4:31
eyeballfrogeyeballfrog
6,103629
6,103629
1
$begingroup$
A singular point is any point where one of the coefficient functions of the DE in standard form has a singularity. In this case, $4/x$ has a singularity at $0$.
$endgroup$
– eyeballfrog
Dec 6 '18 at 4:56
$begingroup$
You mean to say original DE is not continuous at x=0. Am i right?
$endgroup$
– Dhamnekar Winod
Dec 6 '18 at 5:44
$begingroup$
Indeed. I thought about this question some more. So, for instance, the initial value problem (IVP), $x frac{dy}{dx}-4y=x^6e^x, y(1)=1$, has a unique solution only on $(0, infty)$ or $[0, infty)$, but not on the entire real line? In other words, $c_2=1$ is uniquely defined, but $c_1$ can take any value. For example, together with either $c_1=3$ or $c_1=-2$, we have a legitimate solution on $(-infty, infty)$ to the IVP. And each solution is continuously differentiable on $(-infty, infty)$.
$endgroup$
– syeh_106
Dec 7 '18 at 2:46
add a comment |
1
$begingroup$
A singular point is any point where one of the coefficient functions of the DE in standard form has a singularity. In this case, $4/x$ has a singularity at $0$.
$endgroup$
– eyeballfrog
Dec 6 '18 at 4:56
$begingroup$
You mean to say original DE is not continuous at x=0. Am i right?
$endgroup$
– Dhamnekar Winod
Dec 6 '18 at 5:44
$begingroup$
Indeed. I thought about this question some more. So, for instance, the initial value problem (IVP), $x frac{dy}{dx}-4y=x^6e^x, y(1)=1$, has a unique solution only on $(0, infty)$ or $[0, infty)$, but not on the entire real line? In other words, $c_2=1$ is uniquely defined, but $c_1$ can take any value. For example, together with either $c_1=3$ or $c_1=-2$, we have a legitimate solution on $(-infty, infty)$ to the IVP. And each solution is continuously differentiable on $(-infty, infty)$.
$endgroup$
– syeh_106
Dec 7 '18 at 2:46
1
1
$begingroup$
A singular point is any point where one of the coefficient functions of the DE in standard form has a singularity. In this case, $4/x$ has a singularity at $0$.
$endgroup$
– eyeballfrog
Dec 6 '18 at 4:56
$begingroup$
A singular point is any point where one of the coefficient functions of the DE in standard form has a singularity. In this case, $4/x$ has a singularity at $0$.
$endgroup$
– eyeballfrog
Dec 6 '18 at 4:56
$begingroup$
You mean to say original DE is not continuous at x=0. Am i right?
$endgroup$
– Dhamnekar Winod
Dec 6 '18 at 5:44
$begingroup$
You mean to say original DE is not continuous at x=0. Am i right?
$endgroup$
– Dhamnekar Winod
Dec 6 '18 at 5:44
$begingroup$
Indeed. I thought about this question some more. So, for instance, the initial value problem (IVP), $x frac{dy}{dx}-4y=x^6e^x, y(1)=1$, has a unique solution only on $(0, infty)$ or $[0, infty)$, but not on the entire real line? In other words, $c_2=1$ is uniquely defined, but $c_1$ can take any value. For example, together with either $c_1=3$ or $c_1=-2$, we have a legitimate solution on $(-infty, infty)$ to the IVP. And each solution is continuously differentiable on $(-infty, infty)$.
$endgroup$
– syeh_106
Dec 7 '18 at 2:46
$begingroup$
Indeed. I thought about this question some more. So, for instance, the initial value problem (IVP), $x frac{dy}{dx}-4y=x^6e^x, y(1)=1$, has a unique solution only on $(0, infty)$ or $[0, infty)$, but not on the entire real line? In other words, $c_2=1$ is uniquely defined, but $c_1$ can take any value. For example, together with either $c_1=3$ or $c_1=-2$, we have a legitimate solution on $(-infty, infty)$ to the IVP. And each solution is continuously differentiable on $(-infty, infty)$.
$endgroup$
– syeh_106
Dec 7 '18 at 2:46
add a comment |
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