Showing that Matrix $A in M_{50}(mathbb{R})$ is invertible











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I have matrix $A in M_{50}(mathbb{R})$. This matrix has $A_{i,i} = 0$ for all $ 1 le i le 50$ and $A_{i,j} in {pm1}$ for all distinct $1 le i, j le 50$. I must show that $A$ is invertible.



In order to do so, I probably would want to show that $det(A)$ is non-zero. However, this is a 50 x 50 matrix, and surely, there must be another way to show that $det(A)$ is non-zero besides brute force computation. Someone told me to consider the image of $A$ in $M_{50}(F_{2})$, but I am not sure how to apply this into the proof. Can anybody clarify some things? Thank you.










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    I have matrix $A in M_{50}(mathbb{R})$. This matrix has $A_{i,i} = 0$ for all $ 1 le i le 50$ and $A_{i,j} in {pm1}$ for all distinct $1 le i, j le 50$. I must show that $A$ is invertible.



    In order to do so, I probably would want to show that $det(A)$ is non-zero. However, this is a 50 x 50 matrix, and surely, there must be another way to show that $det(A)$ is non-zero besides brute force computation. Someone told me to consider the image of $A$ in $M_{50}(F_{2})$, but I am not sure how to apply this into the proof. Can anybody clarify some things? Thank you.










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      I have matrix $A in M_{50}(mathbb{R})$. This matrix has $A_{i,i} = 0$ for all $ 1 le i le 50$ and $A_{i,j} in {pm1}$ for all distinct $1 le i, j le 50$. I must show that $A$ is invertible.



      In order to do so, I probably would want to show that $det(A)$ is non-zero. However, this is a 50 x 50 matrix, and surely, there must be another way to show that $det(A)$ is non-zero besides brute force computation. Someone told me to consider the image of $A$ in $M_{50}(F_{2})$, but I am not sure how to apply this into the proof. Can anybody clarify some things? Thank you.










      share|cite|improve this question













      I have matrix $A in M_{50}(mathbb{R})$. This matrix has $A_{i,i} = 0$ for all $ 1 le i le 50$ and $A_{i,j} in {pm1}$ for all distinct $1 le i, j le 50$. I must show that $A$ is invertible.



      In order to do so, I probably would want to show that $det(A)$ is non-zero. However, this is a 50 x 50 matrix, and surely, there must be another way to show that $det(A)$ is non-zero besides brute force computation. Someone told me to consider the image of $A$ in $M_{50}(F_{2})$, but I am not sure how to apply this into the proof. Can anybody clarify some things? Thank you.







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      asked Nov 13 at 21:29









      dmsj djsl

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          Its determinant is an odd number, so is nonzero.



          To see this, let $n$ be an even number (here $n$ is $50$) and let
          $M$ be a $ntimes n$ matrix with zeros on the diagonal and $pm 1$s
          elsewhere. Then $Mequiv J-Ipmod 2$ where $J$ is the all-one matrix. Therefore
          $det Aequivdet(J-I)=det(I-J)pmod 2$. The characteristic polynomial of $J$ is
          $$det(tI-J)=t^{n-1}(t-nI)$$
          since it has rank $1$ and the nonzero eigenvalue $n$. Therefore $det(I-J)=1-n$,
          which is an odd number.






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            Here is a proof along the lines of the hint you were given: considering $A in M_{50}(mathbb{Z})$, the image of $A$ in $M_{50}(mathbb{Z} / 2mathbb{Z})$ is the matrix with $1 + 2mathbb{Z}$ in each nondiagonal position and $0 + 2mathbb{Z}$ in each diagonal position. Let us call this image $B in M_{50}(mathbb{F}_2)$.



            Now, we will show that $B$ is an invertible matrix. To see this, suppose we have $x in mathbb{F}_2^{50}$ with $Bx = 0$. Then from the first row, we have $x_2 + x_3 + cdots + x_{50} = 0$, so $x_1 = x_1 + x_2 + x_3 + cdots + x_{50}$. Similarly, the $i$th row gives $x_i = x_1 + x_2 + x_3 + cdots + x_{50}$ for each $i$. Therefore, $x_1 = x_2 = cdots = x_{50} = x_1 + x_2 + cdots + x_{50}$. But $x_1 = x_2 = cdots = x_{50} = 1 + 2mathbb{Z}$ will contradict the last equation; therefore, the only remaining possibility is that $x_1 = x_2 = cdots = x_{50} = 0 + 2mathbb{Z}$. We have thus shown that $B$ has trivial null space, so $B$ is invertible. (Note that for this last conclusion, we use the fact that $mathbb{F}_2$ is a field.)



            This implies that $det(B) = 1 + 2mathbb{Z}$. Therefore, by the functoriality of the determinant, this implies that $det(A)$ is an odd integer; so $A$ is invertible as an element of $M_{50}(mathbb{R})$.






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              2 Answers
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              active

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              2 Answers
              2






              active

              oldest

              votes









              active

              oldest

              votes






              active

              oldest

              votes








              up vote
              7
              down vote



              accepted










              Its determinant is an odd number, so is nonzero.



              To see this, let $n$ be an even number (here $n$ is $50$) and let
              $M$ be a $ntimes n$ matrix with zeros on the diagonal and $pm 1$s
              elsewhere. Then $Mequiv J-Ipmod 2$ where $J$ is the all-one matrix. Therefore
              $det Aequivdet(J-I)=det(I-J)pmod 2$. The characteristic polynomial of $J$ is
              $$det(tI-J)=t^{n-1}(t-nI)$$
              since it has rank $1$ and the nonzero eigenvalue $n$. Therefore $det(I-J)=1-n$,
              which is an odd number.






              share|cite|improve this answer



























                up vote
                7
                down vote



                accepted










                Its determinant is an odd number, so is nonzero.



                To see this, let $n$ be an even number (here $n$ is $50$) and let
                $M$ be a $ntimes n$ matrix with zeros on the diagonal and $pm 1$s
                elsewhere. Then $Mequiv J-Ipmod 2$ where $J$ is the all-one matrix. Therefore
                $det Aequivdet(J-I)=det(I-J)pmod 2$. The characteristic polynomial of $J$ is
                $$det(tI-J)=t^{n-1}(t-nI)$$
                since it has rank $1$ and the nonzero eigenvalue $n$. Therefore $det(I-J)=1-n$,
                which is an odd number.






                share|cite|improve this answer

























                  up vote
                  7
                  down vote



                  accepted







                  up vote
                  7
                  down vote



                  accepted






                  Its determinant is an odd number, so is nonzero.



                  To see this, let $n$ be an even number (here $n$ is $50$) and let
                  $M$ be a $ntimes n$ matrix with zeros on the diagonal and $pm 1$s
                  elsewhere. Then $Mequiv J-Ipmod 2$ where $J$ is the all-one matrix. Therefore
                  $det Aequivdet(J-I)=det(I-J)pmod 2$. The characteristic polynomial of $J$ is
                  $$det(tI-J)=t^{n-1}(t-nI)$$
                  since it has rank $1$ and the nonzero eigenvalue $n$. Therefore $det(I-J)=1-n$,
                  which is an odd number.






                  share|cite|improve this answer














                  Its determinant is an odd number, so is nonzero.



                  To see this, let $n$ be an even number (here $n$ is $50$) and let
                  $M$ be a $ntimes n$ matrix with zeros on the diagonal and $pm 1$s
                  elsewhere. Then $Mequiv J-Ipmod 2$ where $J$ is the all-one matrix. Therefore
                  $det Aequivdet(J-I)=det(I-J)pmod 2$. The characteristic polynomial of $J$ is
                  $$det(tI-J)=t^{n-1}(t-nI)$$
                  since it has rank $1$ and the nonzero eigenvalue $n$. Therefore $det(I-J)=1-n$,
                  which is an odd number.







                  share|cite|improve this answer














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                  edited Nov 14 at 0:25









                  darij grinberg

                  9,89532961




                  9,89532961










                  answered Nov 13 at 21:38









                  Lord Shark the Unknown

                  97k958128




                  97k958128






















                      up vote
                      1
                      down vote













                      Here is a proof along the lines of the hint you were given: considering $A in M_{50}(mathbb{Z})$, the image of $A$ in $M_{50}(mathbb{Z} / 2mathbb{Z})$ is the matrix with $1 + 2mathbb{Z}$ in each nondiagonal position and $0 + 2mathbb{Z}$ in each diagonal position. Let us call this image $B in M_{50}(mathbb{F}_2)$.



                      Now, we will show that $B$ is an invertible matrix. To see this, suppose we have $x in mathbb{F}_2^{50}$ with $Bx = 0$. Then from the first row, we have $x_2 + x_3 + cdots + x_{50} = 0$, so $x_1 = x_1 + x_2 + x_3 + cdots + x_{50}$. Similarly, the $i$th row gives $x_i = x_1 + x_2 + x_3 + cdots + x_{50}$ for each $i$. Therefore, $x_1 = x_2 = cdots = x_{50} = x_1 + x_2 + cdots + x_{50}$. But $x_1 = x_2 = cdots = x_{50} = 1 + 2mathbb{Z}$ will contradict the last equation; therefore, the only remaining possibility is that $x_1 = x_2 = cdots = x_{50} = 0 + 2mathbb{Z}$. We have thus shown that $B$ has trivial null space, so $B$ is invertible. (Note that for this last conclusion, we use the fact that $mathbb{F}_2$ is a field.)



                      This implies that $det(B) = 1 + 2mathbb{Z}$. Therefore, by the functoriality of the determinant, this implies that $det(A)$ is an odd integer; so $A$ is invertible as an element of $M_{50}(mathbb{R})$.






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                        up vote
                        1
                        down vote













                        Here is a proof along the lines of the hint you were given: considering $A in M_{50}(mathbb{Z})$, the image of $A$ in $M_{50}(mathbb{Z} / 2mathbb{Z})$ is the matrix with $1 + 2mathbb{Z}$ in each nondiagonal position and $0 + 2mathbb{Z}$ in each diagonal position. Let us call this image $B in M_{50}(mathbb{F}_2)$.



                        Now, we will show that $B$ is an invertible matrix. To see this, suppose we have $x in mathbb{F}_2^{50}$ with $Bx = 0$. Then from the first row, we have $x_2 + x_3 + cdots + x_{50} = 0$, so $x_1 = x_1 + x_2 + x_3 + cdots + x_{50}$. Similarly, the $i$th row gives $x_i = x_1 + x_2 + x_3 + cdots + x_{50}$ for each $i$. Therefore, $x_1 = x_2 = cdots = x_{50} = x_1 + x_2 + cdots + x_{50}$. But $x_1 = x_2 = cdots = x_{50} = 1 + 2mathbb{Z}$ will contradict the last equation; therefore, the only remaining possibility is that $x_1 = x_2 = cdots = x_{50} = 0 + 2mathbb{Z}$. We have thus shown that $B$ has trivial null space, so $B$ is invertible. (Note that for this last conclusion, we use the fact that $mathbb{F}_2$ is a field.)



                        This implies that $det(B) = 1 + 2mathbb{Z}$. Therefore, by the functoriality of the determinant, this implies that $det(A)$ is an odd integer; so $A$ is invertible as an element of $M_{50}(mathbb{R})$.






                        share|cite|improve this answer























                          up vote
                          1
                          down vote










                          up vote
                          1
                          down vote









                          Here is a proof along the lines of the hint you were given: considering $A in M_{50}(mathbb{Z})$, the image of $A$ in $M_{50}(mathbb{Z} / 2mathbb{Z})$ is the matrix with $1 + 2mathbb{Z}$ in each nondiagonal position and $0 + 2mathbb{Z}$ in each diagonal position. Let us call this image $B in M_{50}(mathbb{F}_2)$.



                          Now, we will show that $B$ is an invertible matrix. To see this, suppose we have $x in mathbb{F}_2^{50}$ with $Bx = 0$. Then from the first row, we have $x_2 + x_3 + cdots + x_{50} = 0$, so $x_1 = x_1 + x_2 + x_3 + cdots + x_{50}$. Similarly, the $i$th row gives $x_i = x_1 + x_2 + x_3 + cdots + x_{50}$ for each $i$. Therefore, $x_1 = x_2 = cdots = x_{50} = x_1 + x_2 + cdots + x_{50}$. But $x_1 = x_2 = cdots = x_{50} = 1 + 2mathbb{Z}$ will contradict the last equation; therefore, the only remaining possibility is that $x_1 = x_2 = cdots = x_{50} = 0 + 2mathbb{Z}$. We have thus shown that $B$ has trivial null space, so $B$ is invertible. (Note that for this last conclusion, we use the fact that $mathbb{F}_2$ is a field.)



                          This implies that $det(B) = 1 + 2mathbb{Z}$. Therefore, by the functoriality of the determinant, this implies that $det(A)$ is an odd integer; so $A$ is invertible as an element of $M_{50}(mathbb{R})$.






                          share|cite|improve this answer












                          Here is a proof along the lines of the hint you were given: considering $A in M_{50}(mathbb{Z})$, the image of $A$ in $M_{50}(mathbb{Z} / 2mathbb{Z})$ is the matrix with $1 + 2mathbb{Z}$ in each nondiagonal position and $0 + 2mathbb{Z}$ in each diagonal position. Let us call this image $B in M_{50}(mathbb{F}_2)$.



                          Now, we will show that $B$ is an invertible matrix. To see this, suppose we have $x in mathbb{F}_2^{50}$ with $Bx = 0$. Then from the first row, we have $x_2 + x_3 + cdots + x_{50} = 0$, so $x_1 = x_1 + x_2 + x_3 + cdots + x_{50}$. Similarly, the $i$th row gives $x_i = x_1 + x_2 + x_3 + cdots + x_{50}$ for each $i$. Therefore, $x_1 = x_2 = cdots = x_{50} = x_1 + x_2 + cdots + x_{50}$. But $x_1 = x_2 = cdots = x_{50} = 1 + 2mathbb{Z}$ will contradict the last equation; therefore, the only remaining possibility is that $x_1 = x_2 = cdots = x_{50} = 0 + 2mathbb{Z}$. We have thus shown that $B$ has trivial null space, so $B$ is invertible. (Note that for this last conclusion, we use the fact that $mathbb{F}_2$ is a field.)



                          This implies that $det(B) = 1 + 2mathbb{Z}$. Therefore, by the functoriality of the determinant, this implies that $det(A)$ is an odd integer; so $A$ is invertible as an element of $M_{50}(mathbb{R})$.







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                          answered Nov 13 at 22:28









                          Daniel Schepler

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