If we have an orthonormal basis of $mathbb{R}^n$ how we can describe every vector in $mathbb{R}nT$ using...











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Let $S = mathbb{R}^n$ be a subspace with dimension $n$. Also, let ${phi_j}_{j=1}^k$ be $k$ orthonormal vector that describes another subspace $Psi_k subseteq mathbb{R}^n$ with dimension $k$ where each $phi_j in mathbb{R}^n$ and $k leq n$.




Can we write the following?




$$
S=Psi_k bigoplus Psi_k^{perp}
$$



where $Psi_k^{perp}$ is orthogonal complement of $Psi_k$ and has another orthonormal set ${phi_j}_{j=k+1}^n$ as its basis.



Let $y$ be an arbitrary vector in $mathbb{R}^n$.




Can we write the following?




$$
y = langle phi_1,y rangle phi_1
+
langle phi_2,y rangle phi_2
+
cdots
+
langle phi_n,y rangle phi_n
$$










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    up vote
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    down vote

    favorite












    Let $S = mathbb{R}^n$ be a subspace with dimension $n$. Also, let ${phi_j}_{j=1}^k$ be $k$ orthonormal vector that describes another subspace $Psi_k subseteq mathbb{R}^n$ with dimension $k$ where each $phi_j in mathbb{R}^n$ and $k leq n$.




    Can we write the following?




    $$
    S=Psi_k bigoplus Psi_k^{perp}
    $$



    where $Psi_k^{perp}$ is orthogonal complement of $Psi_k$ and has another orthonormal set ${phi_j}_{j=k+1}^n$ as its basis.



    Let $y$ be an arbitrary vector in $mathbb{R}^n$.




    Can we write the following?




    $$
    y = langle phi_1,y rangle phi_1
    +
    langle phi_2,y rangle phi_2
    +
    cdots
    +
    langle phi_n,y rangle phi_n
    $$










    share|cite|improve this question


























      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite











      Let $S = mathbb{R}^n$ be a subspace with dimension $n$. Also, let ${phi_j}_{j=1}^k$ be $k$ orthonormal vector that describes another subspace $Psi_k subseteq mathbb{R}^n$ with dimension $k$ where each $phi_j in mathbb{R}^n$ and $k leq n$.




      Can we write the following?




      $$
      S=Psi_k bigoplus Psi_k^{perp}
      $$



      where $Psi_k^{perp}$ is orthogonal complement of $Psi_k$ and has another orthonormal set ${phi_j}_{j=k+1}^n$ as its basis.



      Let $y$ be an arbitrary vector in $mathbb{R}^n$.




      Can we write the following?




      $$
      y = langle phi_1,y rangle phi_1
      +
      langle phi_2,y rangle phi_2
      +
      cdots
      +
      langle phi_n,y rangle phi_n
      $$










      share|cite|improve this question















      Let $S = mathbb{R}^n$ be a subspace with dimension $n$. Also, let ${phi_j}_{j=1}^k$ be $k$ orthonormal vector that describes another subspace $Psi_k subseteq mathbb{R}^n$ with dimension $k$ where each $phi_j in mathbb{R}^n$ and $k leq n$.




      Can we write the following?




      $$
      S=Psi_k bigoplus Psi_k^{perp}
      $$



      where $Psi_k^{perp}$ is orthogonal complement of $Psi_k$ and has another orthonormal set ${phi_j}_{j=k+1}^n$ as its basis.



      Let $y$ be an arbitrary vector in $mathbb{R}^n$.




      Can we write the following?




      $$
      y = langle phi_1,y rangle phi_1
      +
      langle phi_2,y rangle phi_2
      +
      cdots
      +
      langle phi_n,y rangle phi_n
      $$







      linear-algebra linear-transformations orthogonality orthonormal






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      edited Nov 13 at 22:11









      Sepide

      1227




      1227










      asked Nov 13 at 22:01









      Saeed

      407110




      407110






















          1 Answer
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          $(1)$ Yes. Every subspace in finite-dimensions is closed, so we have the decomposition $mathbb R^n=Psi_koplusPsi_k^perp$ by the orthogonal decomposition theorem.



          $(2)$ Yes, you can write $y=langlephi_1,yrangle phi_1+cdots+langlephi_n,yranglephi_n$. This is a property of orthonormal bases, in that you can write any vector as a linear combination of your orthonormal basis, and the coefficients will be these inner products.






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • Made a mistake. Could you edit your answer.
            – Sepide
            Nov 13 at 22:08










          • @Sepide what is the mistake to which you refer?
            – Dave
            Nov 13 at 22:09










          • @Dave: Apparently the last line of the question has changed.
            – Saeed
            Nov 13 at 22:13










          • @Saeed is this what you intended to ask? - if so, then my answer to $(2)$ is "yes".
            – Dave
            Nov 13 at 22:13












          • @Dave: yes. I meant that.
            – Saeed
            Nov 13 at 22:15











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          1 Answer
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          1 Answer
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          active

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          active

          oldest

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          active

          oldest

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          up vote
          1
          down vote



          accepted










          $(1)$ Yes. Every subspace in finite-dimensions is closed, so we have the decomposition $mathbb R^n=Psi_koplusPsi_k^perp$ by the orthogonal decomposition theorem.



          $(2)$ Yes, you can write $y=langlephi_1,yrangle phi_1+cdots+langlephi_n,yranglephi_n$. This is a property of orthonormal bases, in that you can write any vector as a linear combination of your orthonormal basis, and the coefficients will be these inner products.






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • Made a mistake. Could you edit your answer.
            – Sepide
            Nov 13 at 22:08










          • @Sepide what is the mistake to which you refer?
            – Dave
            Nov 13 at 22:09










          • @Dave: Apparently the last line of the question has changed.
            – Saeed
            Nov 13 at 22:13










          • @Saeed is this what you intended to ask? - if so, then my answer to $(2)$ is "yes".
            – Dave
            Nov 13 at 22:13












          • @Dave: yes. I meant that.
            – Saeed
            Nov 13 at 22:15















          up vote
          1
          down vote



          accepted










          $(1)$ Yes. Every subspace in finite-dimensions is closed, so we have the decomposition $mathbb R^n=Psi_koplusPsi_k^perp$ by the orthogonal decomposition theorem.



          $(2)$ Yes, you can write $y=langlephi_1,yrangle phi_1+cdots+langlephi_n,yranglephi_n$. This is a property of orthonormal bases, in that you can write any vector as a linear combination of your orthonormal basis, and the coefficients will be these inner products.






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • Made a mistake. Could you edit your answer.
            – Sepide
            Nov 13 at 22:08










          • @Sepide what is the mistake to which you refer?
            – Dave
            Nov 13 at 22:09










          • @Dave: Apparently the last line of the question has changed.
            – Saeed
            Nov 13 at 22:13










          • @Saeed is this what you intended to ask? - if so, then my answer to $(2)$ is "yes".
            – Dave
            Nov 13 at 22:13












          • @Dave: yes. I meant that.
            – Saeed
            Nov 13 at 22:15













          up vote
          1
          down vote



          accepted







          up vote
          1
          down vote



          accepted






          $(1)$ Yes. Every subspace in finite-dimensions is closed, so we have the decomposition $mathbb R^n=Psi_koplusPsi_k^perp$ by the orthogonal decomposition theorem.



          $(2)$ Yes, you can write $y=langlephi_1,yrangle phi_1+cdots+langlephi_n,yranglephi_n$. This is a property of orthonormal bases, in that you can write any vector as a linear combination of your orthonormal basis, and the coefficients will be these inner products.






          share|cite|improve this answer














          $(1)$ Yes. Every subspace in finite-dimensions is closed, so we have the decomposition $mathbb R^n=Psi_koplusPsi_k^perp$ by the orthogonal decomposition theorem.



          $(2)$ Yes, you can write $y=langlephi_1,yrangle phi_1+cdots+langlephi_n,yranglephi_n$. This is a property of orthonormal bases, in that you can write any vector as a linear combination of your orthonormal basis, and the coefficients will be these inner products.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Nov 13 at 22:17

























          answered Nov 13 at 22:05









          Dave

          8,40811033




          8,40811033












          • Made a mistake. Could you edit your answer.
            – Sepide
            Nov 13 at 22:08










          • @Sepide what is the mistake to which you refer?
            – Dave
            Nov 13 at 22:09










          • @Dave: Apparently the last line of the question has changed.
            – Saeed
            Nov 13 at 22:13










          • @Saeed is this what you intended to ask? - if so, then my answer to $(2)$ is "yes".
            – Dave
            Nov 13 at 22:13












          • @Dave: yes. I meant that.
            – Saeed
            Nov 13 at 22:15


















          • Made a mistake. Could you edit your answer.
            – Sepide
            Nov 13 at 22:08










          • @Sepide what is the mistake to which you refer?
            – Dave
            Nov 13 at 22:09










          • @Dave: Apparently the last line of the question has changed.
            – Saeed
            Nov 13 at 22:13










          • @Saeed is this what you intended to ask? - if so, then my answer to $(2)$ is "yes".
            – Dave
            Nov 13 at 22:13












          • @Dave: yes. I meant that.
            – Saeed
            Nov 13 at 22:15
















          Made a mistake. Could you edit your answer.
          – Sepide
          Nov 13 at 22:08




          Made a mistake. Could you edit your answer.
          – Sepide
          Nov 13 at 22:08












          @Sepide what is the mistake to which you refer?
          – Dave
          Nov 13 at 22:09




          @Sepide what is the mistake to which you refer?
          – Dave
          Nov 13 at 22:09












          @Dave: Apparently the last line of the question has changed.
          – Saeed
          Nov 13 at 22:13




          @Dave: Apparently the last line of the question has changed.
          – Saeed
          Nov 13 at 22:13












          @Saeed is this what you intended to ask? - if so, then my answer to $(2)$ is "yes".
          – Dave
          Nov 13 at 22:13






          @Saeed is this what you intended to ask? - if so, then my answer to $(2)$ is "yes".
          – Dave
          Nov 13 at 22:13














          @Dave: yes. I meant that.
          – Saeed
          Nov 13 at 22:15




          @Dave: yes. I meant that.
          – Saeed
          Nov 13 at 22:15


















           

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