Is $S^2times S^2$ homeomorphic to $mathbb{CP}^2#mathbb{CP}^2$?











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Is $S^2times S^2$ homeomorphic to $mathbb{CP}^2#mathbb{CP}^2$?



My idea: by the product formula for the Euler characteristic, we have $chi(S^2times S^2)=chi(S^2)^2=4$. By the sum formula for Euler characteristic we have $chi(mathbb{CP}^2#mathbb{CP}^2)=2chi(mathbb{CP}^2)-chi(S^4)=4$. So both manifolds have the same Euler characteristic.



By the sum formula for the signature, $sigma(mathbb{CP}^2#mathbb{CP}^2)=2$. Is the signature of $S^2times S^2$ also 2? I'm not sure how to compute it.



If so, then I think we can conclude that the two manifolds must be homeomorphic by Friedman's classification of simply connected manifolds.



Is this reasoning correct?










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  • 1




    For computing the signature: It's just the signature of the underlying intersection form $H^2otimes H^2 to H^4$ (with coefficients in $mathbb{Z}$). For $S^2times S^2$, that form comes from the Kuenneth formula.
    – anomaly
    yesterday








  • 1




    The classification is significantly more complicated than just Euler characteristic and signature.
    – Mike Miller
    yesterday






  • 1




    To elaborate, Freedman's theorem classifies smoothable, simply-connected $4$-manifolds up to homeomorphism by their intersection form. Rank (which is functionally equivalent to $chi$, since the manifolds here are simply-connected) and signature are enough to classify forms over $mathbb{Q}$, but the situation over $mathbb{Z}$ is extremely complicated in the definite case (but see Donaldson's theorem).
    – anomaly
    yesterday

















up vote
2
down vote

favorite
1












Is $S^2times S^2$ homeomorphic to $mathbb{CP}^2#mathbb{CP}^2$?



My idea: by the product formula for the Euler characteristic, we have $chi(S^2times S^2)=chi(S^2)^2=4$. By the sum formula for Euler characteristic we have $chi(mathbb{CP}^2#mathbb{CP}^2)=2chi(mathbb{CP}^2)-chi(S^4)=4$. So both manifolds have the same Euler characteristic.



By the sum formula for the signature, $sigma(mathbb{CP}^2#mathbb{CP}^2)=2$. Is the signature of $S^2times S^2$ also 2? I'm not sure how to compute it.



If so, then I think we can conclude that the two manifolds must be homeomorphic by Friedman's classification of simply connected manifolds.



Is this reasoning correct?










share|cite|improve this question


















  • 1




    For computing the signature: It's just the signature of the underlying intersection form $H^2otimes H^2 to H^4$ (with coefficients in $mathbb{Z}$). For $S^2times S^2$, that form comes from the Kuenneth formula.
    – anomaly
    yesterday








  • 1




    The classification is significantly more complicated than just Euler characteristic and signature.
    – Mike Miller
    yesterday






  • 1




    To elaborate, Freedman's theorem classifies smoothable, simply-connected $4$-manifolds up to homeomorphism by their intersection form. Rank (which is functionally equivalent to $chi$, since the manifolds here are simply-connected) and signature are enough to classify forms over $mathbb{Q}$, but the situation over $mathbb{Z}$ is extremely complicated in the definite case (but see Donaldson's theorem).
    – anomaly
    yesterday















up vote
2
down vote

favorite
1









up vote
2
down vote

favorite
1






1





Is $S^2times S^2$ homeomorphic to $mathbb{CP}^2#mathbb{CP}^2$?



My idea: by the product formula for the Euler characteristic, we have $chi(S^2times S^2)=chi(S^2)^2=4$. By the sum formula for Euler characteristic we have $chi(mathbb{CP}^2#mathbb{CP}^2)=2chi(mathbb{CP}^2)-chi(S^4)=4$. So both manifolds have the same Euler characteristic.



By the sum formula for the signature, $sigma(mathbb{CP}^2#mathbb{CP}^2)=2$. Is the signature of $S^2times S^2$ also 2? I'm not sure how to compute it.



If so, then I think we can conclude that the two manifolds must be homeomorphic by Friedman's classification of simply connected manifolds.



Is this reasoning correct?










share|cite|improve this question













Is $S^2times S^2$ homeomorphic to $mathbb{CP}^2#mathbb{CP}^2$?



My idea: by the product formula for the Euler characteristic, we have $chi(S^2times S^2)=chi(S^2)^2=4$. By the sum formula for Euler characteristic we have $chi(mathbb{CP}^2#mathbb{CP}^2)=2chi(mathbb{CP}^2)-chi(S^4)=4$. So both manifolds have the same Euler characteristic.



By the sum formula for the signature, $sigma(mathbb{CP}^2#mathbb{CP}^2)=2$. Is the signature of $S^2times S^2$ also 2? I'm not sure how to compute it.



If so, then I think we can conclude that the two manifolds must be homeomorphic by Friedman's classification of simply connected manifolds.



Is this reasoning correct?







general-topology differential-geometry algebraic-topology differential-topology






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asked yesterday









srp

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1627








  • 1




    For computing the signature: It's just the signature of the underlying intersection form $H^2otimes H^2 to H^4$ (with coefficients in $mathbb{Z}$). For $S^2times S^2$, that form comes from the Kuenneth formula.
    – anomaly
    yesterday








  • 1




    The classification is significantly more complicated than just Euler characteristic and signature.
    – Mike Miller
    yesterday






  • 1




    To elaborate, Freedman's theorem classifies smoothable, simply-connected $4$-manifolds up to homeomorphism by their intersection form. Rank (which is functionally equivalent to $chi$, since the manifolds here are simply-connected) and signature are enough to classify forms over $mathbb{Q}$, but the situation over $mathbb{Z}$ is extremely complicated in the definite case (but see Donaldson's theorem).
    – anomaly
    yesterday
















  • 1




    For computing the signature: It's just the signature of the underlying intersection form $H^2otimes H^2 to H^4$ (with coefficients in $mathbb{Z}$). For $S^2times S^2$, that form comes from the Kuenneth formula.
    – anomaly
    yesterday








  • 1




    The classification is significantly more complicated than just Euler characteristic and signature.
    – Mike Miller
    yesterday






  • 1




    To elaborate, Freedman's theorem classifies smoothable, simply-connected $4$-manifolds up to homeomorphism by their intersection form. Rank (which is functionally equivalent to $chi$, since the manifolds here are simply-connected) and signature are enough to classify forms over $mathbb{Q}$, but the situation over $mathbb{Z}$ is extremely complicated in the definite case (but see Donaldson's theorem).
    – anomaly
    yesterday










1




1




For computing the signature: It's just the signature of the underlying intersection form $H^2otimes H^2 to H^4$ (with coefficients in $mathbb{Z}$). For $S^2times S^2$, that form comes from the Kuenneth formula.
– anomaly
yesterday






For computing the signature: It's just the signature of the underlying intersection form $H^2otimes H^2 to H^4$ (with coefficients in $mathbb{Z}$). For $S^2times S^2$, that form comes from the Kuenneth formula.
– anomaly
yesterday






1




1




The classification is significantly more complicated than just Euler characteristic and signature.
– Mike Miller
yesterday




The classification is significantly more complicated than just Euler characteristic and signature.
– Mike Miller
yesterday




1




1




To elaborate, Freedman's theorem classifies smoothable, simply-connected $4$-manifolds up to homeomorphism by their intersection form. Rank (which is functionally equivalent to $chi$, since the manifolds here are simply-connected) and signature are enough to classify forms over $mathbb{Q}$, but the situation over $mathbb{Z}$ is extremely complicated in the definite case (but see Donaldson's theorem).
– anomaly
yesterday






To elaborate, Freedman's theorem classifies smoothable, simply-connected $4$-manifolds up to homeomorphism by their intersection form. Rank (which is functionally equivalent to $chi$, since the manifolds here are simply-connected) and signature are enough to classify forms over $mathbb{Q}$, but the situation over $mathbb{Z}$ is extremely complicated in the definite case (but see Donaldson's theorem).
– anomaly
yesterday












2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
10
down vote



accepted










The intersection form on $mathbb{CP}^2# mathbb{CP^2}$ is $pmatrix{1 & 0 \ 0 & 1}$, while that of $S^2 times S^2$ is $begin{pmatrix}0 & 1 \ 1 & 0end{pmatrix}$. The former has signature $1 + 1 = 2$; the latter has signature $1 - 1 = 0$.






share|cite|improve this answer




























    up vote
    5
    down vote













    It is not even true that $S^2times S^2$ is homotopy equivalent to $mathbb{C}P^2#mathbb{C}P^2$.



    Pinching to one factor gives a map $mathbb{C}P^2#mathbb{C}P^2rightarrow mathbb{C}P^2$ which can be used to detect a non-trivial Steerod square $Sq^2:H^2(mathbb{C}P^2#mathbb{C}P^2;mathbb{Z}_2)rightarrow H^4(mathbb{C}P^2#mathbb{C}P^2;mathbb{Z}_2)$. On the other hand all non-identity cohomology operations on $H^*(S^2times S^2)$ vanish identically.



    In fact it is not difficult to show that



    $$Sigma(mathbb{C}P^2#mathbb{C}P^2)simeq Sigmamathbb{C}P^2vee S^3$$



    and



    $$Sigma(S^2times S^2)simeq S^3vee S^3vee S^5$$



    which clearly demonstrates the non-existence of even a homotopy equivalence between the spaces in question.






    share|cite|improve this answer

















    • 1




      The intersection form and thus signature already showed that the two are not homotopy equivalent, but it's interesting to upgrade this to stable homotopy.
      – Mike Miller
      yesterday










    • (Rather the absolute value of signature.)
      – Mike Miller
      yesterday










    • Can you elaborate on why $Sigma(CP^2 # CP^2) simeq Sigma CP^2 vee S^3$? The left hand side has two distinct elements whose $Sq^2$ is nonzero, while the right hand side only has one.
      – Aleksandar Milivojevic
      yesterday






    • 2




      @AleksandarMilivojevic The connected sum is formed by attaching a $4$-cell to the wedge $S^2vee S^2$ by a Hopf map into each summand of the wedge (ignoring orientations here). Suspend and consider the composite of the (suspended attaching map) with the self-equivalence $S^3vee S^3rightarrow S^3vee S^3$ given by $(a,b)mapsto (a,b-a)$, written in terms of $pi_3$. Note that you can only do this after suspension, since the Hopf map, with non-trivial Hopf invariant, is not a co-H-map.
      – Tyrone
      yesterday






    • 1




      You can choose generators $x,y$ for $H^2(mathbb{C}P^2#mathbb{C}P^2)congmathbb{Z}^2$ such that $x^2=y^2=Z$ generates $H^4(mathbb{C}P^2#mathbb{C}P^2)congmathbb{Z}$, and $xcdot y=0$. Then the suspension splitting is induced by the choice of basis $sigma(x+y)$, $sigma x$ for $H^3(Sigma(mathbb{C}P^2#mathbb{C}P^2))$. Evaluate $Sq^2$ on (the mod 2 reductions of) these classes and you see that only one evaluates non-trivially.
      – Tyrone
      yesterday











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    2 Answers
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    2 Answers
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    up vote
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    down vote



    accepted










    The intersection form on $mathbb{CP}^2# mathbb{CP^2}$ is $pmatrix{1 & 0 \ 0 & 1}$, while that of $S^2 times S^2$ is $begin{pmatrix}0 & 1 \ 1 & 0end{pmatrix}$. The former has signature $1 + 1 = 2$; the latter has signature $1 - 1 = 0$.






    share|cite|improve this answer

























      up vote
      10
      down vote



      accepted










      The intersection form on $mathbb{CP}^2# mathbb{CP^2}$ is $pmatrix{1 & 0 \ 0 & 1}$, while that of $S^2 times S^2$ is $begin{pmatrix}0 & 1 \ 1 & 0end{pmatrix}$. The former has signature $1 + 1 = 2$; the latter has signature $1 - 1 = 0$.






      share|cite|improve this answer























        up vote
        10
        down vote



        accepted







        up vote
        10
        down vote



        accepted






        The intersection form on $mathbb{CP}^2# mathbb{CP^2}$ is $pmatrix{1 & 0 \ 0 & 1}$, while that of $S^2 times S^2$ is $begin{pmatrix}0 & 1 \ 1 & 0end{pmatrix}$. The former has signature $1 + 1 = 2$; the latter has signature $1 - 1 = 0$.






        share|cite|improve this answer












        The intersection form on $mathbb{CP}^2# mathbb{CP^2}$ is $pmatrix{1 & 0 \ 0 & 1}$, while that of $S^2 times S^2$ is $begin{pmatrix}0 & 1 \ 1 & 0end{pmatrix}$. The former has signature $1 + 1 = 2$; the latter has signature $1 - 1 = 0$.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered yesterday









        anomaly

        16.9k42662




        16.9k42662






















            up vote
            5
            down vote













            It is not even true that $S^2times S^2$ is homotopy equivalent to $mathbb{C}P^2#mathbb{C}P^2$.



            Pinching to one factor gives a map $mathbb{C}P^2#mathbb{C}P^2rightarrow mathbb{C}P^2$ which can be used to detect a non-trivial Steerod square $Sq^2:H^2(mathbb{C}P^2#mathbb{C}P^2;mathbb{Z}_2)rightarrow H^4(mathbb{C}P^2#mathbb{C}P^2;mathbb{Z}_2)$. On the other hand all non-identity cohomology operations on $H^*(S^2times S^2)$ vanish identically.



            In fact it is not difficult to show that



            $$Sigma(mathbb{C}P^2#mathbb{C}P^2)simeq Sigmamathbb{C}P^2vee S^3$$



            and



            $$Sigma(S^2times S^2)simeq S^3vee S^3vee S^5$$



            which clearly demonstrates the non-existence of even a homotopy equivalence between the spaces in question.






            share|cite|improve this answer

















            • 1




              The intersection form and thus signature already showed that the two are not homotopy equivalent, but it's interesting to upgrade this to stable homotopy.
              – Mike Miller
              yesterday










            • (Rather the absolute value of signature.)
              – Mike Miller
              yesterday










            • Can you elaborate on why $Sigma(CP^2 # CP^2) simeq Sigma CP^2 vee S^3$? The left hand side has two distinct elements whose $Sq^2$ is nonzero, while the right hand side only has one.
              – Aleksandar Milivojevic
              yesterday






            • 2




              @AleksandarMilivojevic The connected sum is formed by attaching a $4$-cell to the wedge $S^2vee S^2$ by a Hopf map into each summand of the wedge (ignoring orientations here). Suspend and consider the composite of the (suspended attaching map) with the self-equivalence $S^3vee S^3rightarrow S^3vee S^3$ given by $(a,b)mapsto (a,b-a)$, written in terms of $pi_3$. Note that you can only do this after suspension, since the Hopf map, with non-trivial Hopf invariant, is not a co-H-map.
              – Tyrone
              yesterday






            • 1




              You can choose generators $x,y$ for $H^2(mathbb{C}P^2#mathbb{C}P^2)congmathbb{Z}^2$ such that $x^2=y^2=Z$ generates $H^4(mathbb{C}P^2#mathbb{C}P^2)congmathbb{Z}$, and $xcdot y=0$. Then the suspension splitting is induced by the choice of basis $sigma(x+y)$, $sigma x$ for $H^3(Sigma(mathbb{C}P^2#mathbb{C}P^2))$. Evaluate $Sq^2$ on (the mod 2 reductions of) these classes and you see that only one evaluates non-trivially.
              – Tyrone
              yesterday















            up vote
            5
            down vote













            It is not even true that $S^2times S^2$ is homotopy equivalent to $mathbb{C}P^2#mathbb{C}P^2$.



            Pinching to one factor gives a map $mathbb{C}P^2#mathbb{C}P^2rightarrow mathbb{C}P^2$ which can be used to detect a non-trivial Steerod square $Sq^2:H^2(mathbb{C}P^2#mathbb{C}P^2;mathbb{Z}_2)rightarrow H^4(mathbb{C}P^2#mathbb{C}P^2;mathbb{Z}_2)$. On the other hand all non-identity cohomology operations on $H^*(S^2times S^2)$ vanish identically.



            In fact it is not difficult to show that



            $$Sigma(mathbb{C}P^2#mathbb{C}P^2)simeq Sigmamathbb{C}P^2vee S^3$$



            and



            $$Sigma(S^2times S^2)simeq S^3vee S^3vee S^5$$



            which clearly demonstrates the non-existence of even a homotopy equivalence between the spaces in question.






            share|cite|improve this answer

















            • 1




              The intersection form and thus signature already showed that the two are not homotopy equivalent, but it's interesting to upgrade this to stable homotopy.
              – Mike Miller
              yesterday










            • (Rather the absolute value of signature.)
              – Mike Miller
              yesterday










            • Can you elaborate on why $Sigma(CP^2 # CP^2) simeq Sigma CP^2 vee S^3$? The left hand side has two distinct elements whose $Sq^2$ is nonzero, while the right hand side only has one.
              – Aleksandar Milivojevic
              yesterday






            • 2




              @AleksandarMilivojevic The connected sum is formed by attaching a $4$-cell to the wedge $S^2vee S^2$ by a Hopf map into each summand of the wedge (ignoring orientations here). Suspend and consider the composite of the (suspended attaching map) with the self-equivalence $S^3vee S^3rightarrow S^3vee S^3$ given by $(a,b)mapsto (a,b-a)$, written in terms of $pi_3$. Note that you can only do this after suspension, since the Hopf map, with non-trivial Hopf invariant, is not a co-H-map.
              – Tyrone
              yesterday






            • 1




              You can choose generators $x,y$ for $H^2(mathbb{C}P^2#mathbb{C}P^2)congmathbb{Z}^2$ such that $x^2=y^2=Z$ generates $H^4(mathbb{C}P^2#mathbb{C}P^2)congmathbb{Z}$, and $xcdot y=0$. Then the suspension splitting is induced by the choice of basis $sigma(x+y)$, $sigma x$ for $H^3(Sigma(mathbb{C}P^2#mathbb{C}P^2))$. Evaluate $Sq^2$ on (the mod 2 reductions of) these classes and you see that only one evaluates non-trivially.
              – Tyrone
              yesterday













            up vote
            5
            down vote










            up vote
            5
            down vote









            It is not even true that $S^2times S^2$ is homotopy equivalent to $mathbb{C}P^2#mathbb{C}P^2$.



            Pinching to one factor gives a map $mathbb{C}P^2#mathbb{C}P^2rightarrow mathbb{C}P^2$ which can be used to detect a non-trivial Steerod square $Sq^2:H^2(mathbb{C}P^2#mathbb{C}P^2;mathbb{Z}_2)rightarrow H^4(mathbb{C}P^2#mathbb{C}P^2;mathbb{Z}_2)$. On the other hand all non-identity cohomology operations on $H^*(S^2times S^2)$ vanish identically.



            In fact it is not difficult to show that



            $$Sigma(mathbb{C}P^2#mathbb{C}P^2)simeq Sigmamathbb{C}P^2vee S^3$$



            and



            $$Sigma(S^2times S^2)simeq S^3vee S^3vee S^5$$



            which clearly demonstrates the non-existence of even a homotopy equivalence between the spaces in question.






            share|cite|improve this answer












            It is not even true that $S^2times S^2$ is homotopy equivalent to $mathbb{C}P^2#mathbb{C}P^2$.



            Pinching to one factor gives a map $mathbb{C}P^2#mathbb{C}P^2rightarrow mathbb{C}P^2$ which can be used to detect a non-trivial Steerod square $Sq^2:H^2(mathbb{C}P^2#mathbb{C}P^2;mathbb{Z}_2)rightarrow H^4(mathbb{C}P^2#mathbb{C}P^2;mathbb{Z}_2)$. On the other hand all non-identity cohomology operations on $H^*(S^2times S^2)$ vanish identically.



            In fact it is not difficult to show that



            $$Sigma(mathbb{C}P^2#mathbb{C}P^2)simeq Sigmamathbb{C}P^2vee S^3$$



            and



            $$Sigma(S^2times S^2)simeq S^3vee S^3vee S^5$$



            which clearly demonstrates the non-existence of even a homotopy equivalence between the spaces in question.







            share|cite|improve this answer












            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer










            answered yesterday









            Tyrone

            4,04011125




            4,04011125








            • 1




              The intersection form and thus signature already showed that the two are not homotopy equivalent, but it's interesting to upgrade this to stable homotopy.
              – Mike Miller
              yesterday










            • (Rather the absolute value of signature.)
              – Mike Miller
              yesterday










            • Can you elaborate on why $Sigma(CP^2 # CP^2) simeq Sigma CP^2 vee S^3$? The left hand side has two distinct elements whose $Sq^2$ is nonzero, while the right hand side only has one.
              – Aleksandar Milivojevic
              yesterday






            • 2




              @AleksandarMilivojevic The connected sum is formed by attaching a $4$-cell to the wedge $S^2vee S^2$ by a Hopf map into each summand of the wedge (ignoring orientations here). Suspend and consider the composite of the (suspended attaching map) with the self-equivalence $S^3vee S^3rightarrow S^3vee S^3$ given by $(a,b)mapsto (a,b-a)$, written in terms of $pi_3$. Note that you can only do this after suspension, since the Hopf map, with non-trivial Hopf invariant, is not a co-H-map.
              – Tyrone
              yesterday






            • 1




              You can choose generators $x,y$ for $H^2(mathbb{C}P^2#mathbb{C}P^2)congmathbb{Z}^2$ such that $x^2=y^2=Z$ generates $H^4(mathbb{C}P^2#mathbb{C}P^2)congmathbb{Z}$, and $xcdot y=0$. Then the suspension splitting is induced by the choice of basis $sigma(x+y)$, $sigma x$ for $H^3(Sigma(mathbb{C}P^2#mathbb{C}P^2))$. Evaluate $Sq^2$ on (the mod 2 reductions of) these classes and you see that only one evaluates non-trivially.
              – Tyrone
              yesterday














            • 1




              The intersection form and thus signature already showed that the two are not homotopy equivalent, but it's interesting to upgrade this to stable homotopy.
              – Mike Miller
              yesterday










            • (Rather the absolute value of signature.)
              – Mike Miller
              yesterday










            • Can you elaborate on why $Sigma(CP^2 # CP^2) simeq Sigma CP^2 vee S^3$? The left hand side has two distinct elements whose $Sq^2$ is nonzero, while the right hand side only has one.
              – Aleksandar Milivojevic
              yesterday






            • 2




              @AleksandarMilivojevic The connected sum is formed by attaching a $4$-cell to the wedge $S^2vee S^2$ by a Hopf map into each summand of the wedge (ignoring orientations here). Suspend and consider the composite of the (suspended attaching map) with the self-equivalence $S^3vee S^3rightarrow S^3vee S^3$ given by $(a,b)mapsto (a,b-a)$, written in terms of $pi_3$. Note that you can only do this after suspension, since the Hopf map, with non-trivial Hopf invariant, is not a co-H-map.
              – Tyrone
              yesterday






            • 1




              You can choose generators $x,y$ for $H^2(mathbb{C}P^2#mathbb{C}P^2)congmathbb{Z}^2$ such that $x^2=y^2=Z$ generates $H^4(mathbb{C}P^2#mathbb{C}P^2)congmathbb{Z}$, and $xcdot y=0$. Then the suspension splitting is induced by the choice of basis $sigma(x+y)$, $sigma x$ for $H^3(Sigma(mathbb{C}P^2#mathbb{C}P^2))$. Evaluate $Sq^2$ on (the mod 2 reductions of) these classes and you see that only one evaluates non-trivially.
              – Tyrone
              yesterday








            1




            1




            The intersection form and thus signature already showed that the two are not homotopy equivalent, but it's interesting to upgrade this to stable homotopy.
            – Mike Miller
            yesterday




            The intersection form and thus signature already showed that the two are not homotopy equivalent, but it's interesting to upgrade this to stable homotopy.
            – Mike Miller
            yesterday












            (Rather the absolute value of signature.)
            – Mike Miller
            yesterday




            (Rather the absolute value of signature.)
            – Mike Miller
            yesterday












            Can you elaborate on why $Sigma(CP^2 # CP^2) simeq Sigma CP^2 vee S^3$? The left hand side has two distinct elements whose $Sq^2$ is nonzero, while the right hand side only has one.
            – Aleksandar Milivojevic
            yesterday




            Can you elaborate on why $Sigma(CP^2 # CP^2) simeq Sigma CP^2 vee S^3$? The left hand side has two distinct elements whose $Sq^2$ is nonzero, while the right hand side only has one.
            – Aleksandar Milivojevic
            yesterday




            2




            2




            @AleksandarMilivojevic The connected sum is formed by attaching a $4$-cell to the wedge $S^2vee S^2$ by a Hopf map into each summand of the wedge (ignoring orientations here). Suspend and consider the composite of the (suspended attaching map) with the self-equivalence $S^3vee S^3rightarrow S^3vee S^3$ given by $(a,b)mapsto (a,b-a)$, written in terms of $pi_3$. Note that you can only do this after suspension, since the Hopf map, with non-trivial Hopf invariant, is not a co-H-map.
            – Tyrone
            yesterday




            @AleksandarMilivojevic The connected sum is formed by attaching a $4$-cell to the wedge $S^2vee S^2$ by a Hopf map into each summand of the wedge (ignoring orientations here). Suspend and consider the composite of the (suspended attaching map) with the self-equivalence $S^3vee S^3rightarrow S^3vee S^3$ given by $(a,b)mapsto (a,b-a)$, written in terms of $pi_3$. Note that you can only do this after suspension, since the Hopf map, with non-trivial Hopf invariant, is not a co-H-map.
            – Tyrone
            yesterday




            1




            1




            You can choose generators $x,y$ for $H^2(mathbb{C}P^2#mathbb{C}P^2)congmathbb{Z}^2$ such that $x^2=y^2=Z$ generates $H^4(mathbb{C}P^2#mathbb{C}P^2)congmathbb{Z}$, and $xcdot y=0$. Then the suspension splitting is induced by the choice of basis $sigma(x+y)$, $sigma x$ for $H^3(Sigma(mathbb{C}P^2#mathbb{C}P^2))$. Evaluate $Sq^2$ on (the mod 2 reductions of) these classes and you see that only one evaluates non-trivially.
            – Tyrone
            yesterday




            You can choose generators $x,y$ for $H^2(mathbb{C}P^2#mathbb{C}P^2)congmathbb{Z}^2$ such that $x^2=y^2=Z$ generates $H^4(mathbb{C}P^2#mathbb{C}P^2)congmathbb{Z}$, and $xcdot y=0$. Then the suspension splitting is induced by the choice of basis $sigma(x+y)$, $sigma x$ for $H^3(Sigma(mathbb{C}P^2#mathbb{C}P^2))$. Evaluate $Sq^2$ on (the mod 2 reductions of) these classes and you see that only one evaluates non-trivially.
            – Tyrone
            yesterday


















             

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