Proving alternative notation of quadratic variation of Brownian motion
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Setting: Let ${W_t,tgeq 0}$ be a Brownian with respect to the standard filtration ${mathcal{F}_t,tgeq 0}$.
Problem: We fix $t>0$ and must prove that:
$left langle W,W rightrangle^{(n)}_{t}=sum^n_{j=1}(W_{frac{tj}{n}}-W_{frac{t(j-1)}{n}})^2$
Can be written as:
$left langle W,W right rangle^{(n)}_{t}=frac{t}{n}sum^n_{i=1}X_i^2$
Where $X_i$ are independent identically distributed and have a standard normal distribution.
Question: I've attempted to solve this exercise, obviously, but kept getting stuck because I think my approach is wrong. I tried writing out the sum and using telescoping but I can't seem to get factors to drop out. Writing out the first sum does yield some similar factors but the square prohibits them from dropping off against eachother. Writing out the square and then applying telescoping also provides no luck. If I can't use telescoping for this problem I'm not sure how to approach it. Any tips or advice on solving this problem?
Any help is appreciated. Thanks!
probability-theory brownian-motion
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Setting: Let ${W_t,tgeq 0}$ be a Brownian with respect to the standard filtration ${mathcal{F}_t,tgeq 0}$.
Problem: We fix $t>0$ and must prove that:
$left langle W,W rightrangle^{(n)}_{t}=sum^n_{j=1}(W_{frac{tj}{n}}-W_{frac{t(j-1)}{n}})^2$
Can be written as:
$left langle W,W right rangle^{(n)}_{t}=frac{t}{n}sum^n_{i=1}X_i^2$
Where $X_i$ are independent identically distributed and have a standard normal distribution.
Question: I've attempted to solve this exercise, obviously, but kept getting stuck because I think my approach is wrong. I tried writing out the sum and using telescoping but I can't seem to get factors to drop out. Writing out the first sum does yield some similar factors but the square prohibits them from dropping off against eachother. Writing out the square and then applying telescoping also provides no luck. If I can't use telescoping for this problem I'm not sure how to approach it. Any tips or advice on solving this problem?
Any help is appreciated. Thanks!
probability-theory brownian-motion
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Setting: Let ${W_t,tgeq 0}$ be a Brownian with respect to the standard filtration ${mathcal{F}_t,tgeq 0}$.
Problem: We fix $t>0$ and must prove that:
$left langle W,W rightrangle^{(n)}_{t}=sum^n_{j=1}(W_{frac{tj}{n}}-W_{frac{t(j-1)}{n}})^2$
Can be written as:
$left langle W,W right rangle^{(n)}_{t}=frac{t}{n}sum^n_{i=1}X_i^2$
Where $X_i$ are independent identically distributed and have a standard normal distribution.
Question: I've attempted to solve this exercise, obviously, but kept getting stuck because I think my approach is wrong. I tried writing out the sum and using telescoping but I can't seem to get factors to drop out. Writing out the first sum does yield some similar factors but the square prohibits them from dropping off against eachother. Writing out the square and then applying telescoping also provides no luck. If I can't use telescoping for this problem I'm not sure how to approach it. Any tips or advice on solving this problem?
Any help is appreciated. Thanks!
probability-theory brownian-motion
$endgroup$
Setting: Let ${W_t,tgeq 0}$ be a Brownian with respect to the standard filtration ${mathcal{F}_t,tgeq 0}$.
Problem: We fix $t>0$ and must prove that:
$left langle W,W rightrangle^{(n)}_{t}=sum^n_{j=1}(W_{frac{tj}{n}}-W_{frac{t(j-1)}{n}})^2$
Can be written as:
$left langle W,W right rangle^{(n)}_{t}=frac{t}{n}sum^n_{i=1}X_i^2$
Where $X_i$ are independent identically distributed and have a standard normal distribution.
Question: I've attempted to solve this exercise, obviously, but kept getting stuck because I think my approach is wrong. I tried writing out the sum and using telescoping but I can't seem to get factors to drop out. Writing out the first sum does yield some similar factors but the square prohibits them from dropping off against eachother. Writing out the square and then applying telescoping also provides no luck. If I can't use telescoping for this problem I'm not sure how to approach it. Any tips or advice on solving this problem?
Any help is appreciated. Thanks!
probability-theory brownian-motion
probability-theory brownian-motion
asked Dec 11 '18 at 7:25
S. CrimS. Crim
363112
363112
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2 Answers
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$begingroup$
Hints:
- Show that $$langle W,W rangle_t^{(n)} = sum_{j=1}^n Y_j^2$$ for independent Gaussian random variables $Y_j$, $j=1,ldots,n$. (Hint to find $Y_j$: Do not expand the square! Look at the very definition of $langle W,W rangle_t^{(n)}$ ...)
- Show that $mathbb{E}(Y_j)=0$ and $mathbb{E}(Y_j^2) = t/n$ for all $j=1,ldots,n$.
- Define $$X_j := sqrt{frac{n}{t}} Y_j, qquad j=1,ldots,n.$$ Using Step 2 prove that the so-defined random variables are independent and Standard Gaussian.
- Use Step 1 to show that $$langle W,Wrangle_t^{(n)} = frac{t}{n} sum_{j=1}^n X_j^2.$$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Thank you for the detailed hints. I reckon I should be able to solve the problem with these. If not, I'll be back. Thanks again!
$endgroup$
– S. Crim
Dec 11 '18 at 7:50
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@S.Crim You are welcome.
$endgroup$
– saz
Dec 11 '18 at 8:10
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Just define $X_i= {sqrt {frac n t}} (W_{frac {tj} n}-W_{frac {t(j-1)} n})$. Use the fact that $(W_t)$ has independent increments and $W_{t+s}-W_t$ has $N(0,s)$ distribution.
$endgroup$
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2 Answers
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2 Answers
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$begingroup$
Hints:
- Show that $$langle W,W rangle_t^{(n)} = sum_{j=1}^n Y_j^2$$ for independent Gaussian random variables $Y_j$, $j=1,ldots,n$. (Hint to find $Y_j$: Do not expand the square! Look at the very definition of $langle W,W rangle_t^{(n)}$ ...)
- Show that $mathbb{E}(Y_j)=0$ and $mathbb{E}(Y_j^2) = t/n$ for all $j=1,ldots,n$.
- Define $$X_j := sqrt{frac{n}{t}} Y_j, qquad j=1,ldots,n.$$ Using Step 2 prove that the so-defined random variables are independent and Standard Gaussian.
- Use Step 1 to show that $$langle W,Wrangle_t^{(n)} = frac{t}{n} sum_{j=1}^n X_j^2.$$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Thank you for the detailed hints. I reckon I should be able to solve the problem with these. If not, I'll be back. Thanks again!
$endgroup$
– S. Crim
Dec 11 '18 at 7:50
$begingroup$
@S.Crim You are welcome.
$endgroup$
– saz
Dec 11 '18 at 8:10
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Hints:
- Show that $$langle W,W rangle_t^{(n)} = sum_{j=1}^n Y_j^2$$ for independent Gaussian random variables $Y_j$, $j=1,ldots,n$. (Hint to find $Y_j$: Do not expand the square! Look at the very definition of $langle W,W rangle_t^{(n)}$ ...)
- Show that $mathbb{E}(Y_j)=0$ and $mathbb{E}(Y_j^2) = t/n$ for all $j=1,ldots,n$.
- Define $$X_j := sqrt{frac{n}{t}} Y_j, qquad j=1,ldots,n.$$ Using Step 2 prove that the so-defined random variables are independent and Standard Gaussian.
- Use Step 1 to show that $$langle W,Wrangle_t^{(n)} = frac{t}{n} sum_{j=1}^n X_j^2.$$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Thank you for the detailed hints. I reckon I should be able to solve the problem with these. If not, I'll be back. Thanks again!
$endgroup$
– S. Crim
Dec 11 '18 at 7:50
$begingroup$
@S.Crim You are welcome.
$endgroup$
– saz
Dec 11 '18 at 8:10
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Hints:
- Show that $$langle W,W rangle_t^{(n)} = sum_{j=1}^n Y_j^2$$ for independent Gaussian random variables $Y_j$, $j=1,ldots,n$. (Hint to find $Y_j$: Do not expand the square! Look at the very definition of $langle W,W rangle_t^{(n)}$ ...)
- Show that $mathbb{E}(Y_j)=0$ and $mathbb{E}(Y_j^2) = t/n$ for all $j=1,ldots,n$.
- Define $$X_j := sqrt{frac{n}{t}} Y_j, qquad j=1,ldots,n.$$ Using Step 2 prove that the so-defined random variables are independent and Standard Gaussian.
- Use Step 1 to show that $$langle W,Wrangle_t^{(n)} = frac{t}{n} sum_{j=1}^n X_j^2.$$
$endgroup$
Hints:
- Show that $$langle W,W rangle_t^{(n)} = sum_{j=1}^n Y_j^2$$ for independent Gaussian random variables $Y_j$, $j=1,ldots,n$. (Hint to find $Y_j$: Do not expand the square! Look at the very definition of $langle W,W rangle_t^{(n)}$ ...)
- Show that $mathbb{E}(Y_j)=0$ and $mathbb{E}(Y_j^2) = t/n$ for all $j=1,ldots,n$.
- Define $$X_j := sqrt{frac{n}{t}} Y_j, qquad j=1,ldots,n.$$ Using Step 2 prove that the so-defined random variables are independent and Standard Gaussian.
- Use Step 1 to show that $$langle W,Wrangle_t^{(n)} = frac{t}{n} sum_{j=1}^n X_j^2.$$
edited Dec 11 '18 at 10:19
answered Dec 11 '18 at 7:38
sazsaz
80.5k860125
80.5k860125
$begingroup$
Thank you for the detailed hints. I reckon I should be able to solve the problem with these. If not, I'll be back. Thanks again!
$endgroup$
– S. Crim
Dec 11 '18 at 7:50
$begingroup$
@S.Crim You are welcome.
$endgroup$
– saz
Dec 11 '18 at 8:10
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Thank you for the detailed hints. I reckon I should be able to solve the problem with these. If not, I'll be back. Thanks again!
$endgroup$
– S. Crim
Dec 11 '18 at 7:50
$begingroup$
@S.Crim You are welcome.
$endgroup$
– saz
Dec 11 '18 at 8:10
$begingroup$
Thank you for the detailed hints. I reckon I should be able to solve the problem with these. If not, I'll be back. Thanks again!
$endgroup$
– S. Crim
Dec 11 '18 at 7:50
$begingroup$
Thank you for the detailed hints. I reckon I should be able to solve the problem with these. If not, I'll be back. Thanks again!
$endgroup$
– S. Crim
Dec 11 '18 at 7:50
$begingroup$
@S.Crim You are welcome.
$endgroup$
– saz
Dec 11 '18 at 8:10
$begingroup$
@S.Crim You are welcome.
$endgroup$
– saz
Dec 11 '18 at 8:10
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Just define $X_i= {sqrt {frac n t}} (W_{frac {tj} n}-W_{frac {t(j-1)} n})$. Use the fact that $(W_t)$ has independent increments and $W_{t+s}-W_t$ has $N(0,s)$ distribution.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Just define $X_i= {sqrt {frac n t}} (W_{frac {tj} n}-W_{frac {t(j-1)} n})$. Use the fact that $(W_t)$ has independent increments and $W_{t+s}-W_t$ has $N(0,s)$ distribution.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Just define $X_i= {sqrt {frac n t}} (W_{frac {tj} n}-W_{frac {t(j-1)} n})$. Use the fact that $(W_t)$ has independent increments and $W_{t+s}-W_t$ has $N(0,s)$ distribution.
$endgroup$
Just define $X_i= {sqrt {frac n t}} (W_{frac {tj} n}-W_{frac {t(j-1)} n})$. Use the fact that $(W_t)$ has independent increments and $W_{t+s}-W_t$ has $N(0,s)$ distribution.
answered Dec 11 '18 at 7:38
Kavi Rama MurthyKavi Rama Murthy
59k42161
59k42161
add a comment |
add a comment |
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