Proof of the Hockey-Stick Identity: $sumlimits_{t=0}^n binom tk = binom{n+1}{k+1}$
$begingroup$
After reading this question, the most popular answer use the identity
$$sum_{t=0}^n binom{t}{k} = binom{n+1}{k+1}.$$
What's the name of this identity? Is it the identity of the Pascal's triangle modified.
How can we prove it? I tried by induction, but without success. Can we also prove it algebraically?
Thanks for your help.
EDIT 01 : This identity is known as the hockey-stick identity because, on Pascal's triangle, when the addends represented in the summation and the sum itself are highlighted, a hockey-stick shape is revealed.
discrete-mathematics summation binomial-coefficients combinations faq
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
After reading this question, the most popular answer use the identity
$$sum_{t=0}^n binom{t}{k} = binom{n+1}{k+1}.$$
What's the name of this identity? Is it the identity of the Pascal's triangle modified.
How can we prove it? I tried by induction, but without success. Can we also prove it algebraically?
Thanks for your help.
EDIT 01 : This identity is known as the hockey-stick identity because, on Pascal's triangle, when the addends represented in the summation and the sum itself are highlighted, a hockey-stick shape is revealed.
discrete-mathematics summation binomial-coefficients combinations faq
$endgroup$
6
$begingroup$
It is sometimes called the "hockey stick".
$endgroup$
– user940
Oct 21 '15 at 15:24
$begingroup$
There is another cute graphical illustration on the plane of $binom{n}{k}$
$endgroup$
– Eli Korvigo
Oct 21 '15 at 16:54
4
$begingroup$
It's pretty straightforward from the picture. Just switch the $1$ at the top of the stick with the $1$ directly below, then repeatedly replace adjacent numbers with the number in the cell below. This can be translated into a formal proof with words and symbols, but an animation or series of pictures is much more effective.
$endgroup$
– user2357112
Oct 22 '15 at 3:24
$begingroup$
See also this question. Some post which are linked there might be of interest, too.
$endgroup$
– Martin Sleziak
Jan 18 '16 at 15:05
add a comment |
$begingroup$
After reading this question, the most popular answer use the identity
$$sum_{t=0}^n binom{t}{k} = binom{n+1}{k+1}.$$
What's the name of this identity? Is it the identity of the Pascal's triangle modified.
How can we prove it? I tried by induction, but without success. Can we also prove it algebraically?
Thanks for your help.
EDIT 01 : This identity is known as the hockey-stick identity because, on Pascal's triangle, when the addends represented in the summation and the sum itself are highlighted, a hockey-stick shape is revealed.
discrete-mathematics summation binomial-coefficients combinations faq
$endgroup$
After reading this question, the most popular answer use the identity
$$sum_{t=0}^n binom{t}{k} = binom{n+1}{k+1}.$$
What's the name of this identity? Is it the identity of the Pascal's triangle modified.
How can we prove it? I tried by induction, but without success. Can we also prove it algebraically?
Thanks for your help.
EDIT 01 : This identity is known as the hockey-stick identity because, on Pascal's triangle, when the addends represented in the summation and the sum itself are highlighted, a hockey-stick shape is revealed.
discrete-mathematics summation binomial-coefficients combinations faq
discrete-mathematics summation binomial-coefficients combinations faq
edited Nov 14 '18 at 2:57
Trevor Gunn
14.5k32046
14.5k32046
asked Oct 21 '15 at 14:46
hlapointehlapointe
660721
660721
6
$begingroup$
It is sometimes called the "hockey stick".
$endgroup$
– user940
Oct 21 '15 at 15:24
$begingroup$
There is another cute graphical illustration on the plane of $binom{n}{k}$
$endgroup$
– Eli Korvigo
Oct 21 '15 at 16:54
4
$begingroup$
It's pretty straightforward from the picture. Just switch the $1$ at the top of the stick with the $1$ directly below, then repeatedly replace adjacent numbers with the number in the cell below. This can be translated into a formal proof with words and symbols, but an animation or series of pictures is much more effective.
$endgroup$
– user2357112
Oct 22 '15 at 3:24
$begingroup$
See also this question. Some post which are linked there might be of interest, too.
$endgroup$
– Martin Sleziak
Jan 18 '16 at 15:05
add a comment |
6
$begingroup$
It is sometimes called the "hockey stick".
$endgroup$
– user940
Oct 21 '15 at 15:24
$begingroup$
There is another cute graphical illustration on the plane of $binom{n}{k}$
$endgroup$
– Eli Korvigo
Oct 21 '15 at 16:54
4
$begingroup$
It's pretty straightforward from the picture. Just switch the $1$ at the top of the stick with the $1$ directly below, then repeatedly replace adjacent numbers with the number in the cell below. This can be translated into a formal proof with words and symbols, but an animation or series of pictures is much more effective.
$endgroup$
– user2357112
Oct 22 '15 at 3:24
$begingroup$
See also this question. Some post which are linked there might be of interest, too.
$endgroup$
– Martin Sleziak
Jan 18 '16 at 15:05
6
6
$begingroup$
It is sometimes called the "hockey stick".
$endgroup$
– user940
Oct 21 '15 at 15:24
$begingroup$
It is sometimes called the "hockey stick".
$endgroup$
– user940
Oct 21 '15 at 15:24
$begingroup$
There is another cute graphical illustration on the plane of $binom{n}{k}$
$endgroup$
– Eli Korvigo
Oct 21 '15 at 16:54
$begingroup$
There is another cute graphical illustration on the plane of $binom{n}{k}$
$endgroup$
– Eli Korvigo
Oct 21 '15 at 16:54
4
4
$begingroup$
It's pretty straightforward from the picture. Just switch the $1$ at the top of the stick with the $1$ directly below, then repeatedly replace adjacent numbers with the number in the cell below. This can be translated into a formal proof with words and symbols, but an animation or series of pictures is much more effective.
$endgroup$
– user2357112
Oct 22 '15 at 3:24
$begingroup$
It's pretty straightforward from the picture. Just switch the $1$ at the top of the stick with the $1$ directly below, then repeatedly replace adjacent numbers with the number in the cell below. This can be translated into a formal proof with words and symbols, but an animation or series of pictures is much more effective.
$endgroup$
– user2357112
Oct 22 '15 at 3:24
$begingroup$
See also this question. Some post which are linked there might be of interest, too.
$endgroup$
– Martin Sleziak
Jan 18 '16 at 15:05
$begingroup$
See also this question. Some post which are linked there might be of interest, too.
$endgroup$
– Martin Sleziak
Jan 18 '16 at 15:05
add a comment |
13 Answers
13
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
This is purely algebraic. First of all, since $dbinom{t}{k} =0$ when $k>t$ we can rewrite
$$binom{n+1}{k+1} = sum_{t=0}^{n} binom{t}{k}=sum_{t=k}^{n} binom{t}{k}$$
Recall that (by the Pascal's Triangle),
$$binom{n}{k} = binom{n-1}{k-1} + binom{n-1}{k}$$
Hence
$$binom{t+1}{k+1} = binom{t}{k} + binom{t}{k+1} implies binom{t}{k} = binom{t+1}{k+1} - binom{t}{k+1}$$
Let's get this summed by $t$:
$$sum_{t=k}^{n} binom{t}{k} = sum_{t=k}^{n} binom{t+1}{k+1} - sum_{t=k}^{n} binom{t}{k+1}$$
Let's factor out the last member of the first sum and the first member of the second sum:
$$sum _{t=k}^{n} binom{t}{k}
=left( sum_{t=k}^{n-1} binom{t+1}{k+1} + binom{n+1}{k+1} right)
-left( sum_{t=k+1}^{n} binom{t}{k+1} + binom{k}{k+1} right)$$
Obviously $dbinom{k}{k+1} = 0$, hence we get
$$sum _{t=k}^{n} binom{t}{k}
=binom{n+1}{k+1}
+sum_{t=k}^{n-1} binom{t+1}{k+1}
-sum_{t=k+1}^{n} binom{t}{k+1}$$
Let's introduce $t'=t-1$, then if $t=k+1 dots n, t'=k dots n-1$, hence
$$sum_{t=k}^{n} binom{t}{k}
= binom{n+1}{k+1}
+sum_{t=k}^{n-1} binom{t+1}{k+1}
-sum_{t'=k}^{n-1} binom{t'+1}{k+1}$$
The latter two arguments eliminate each other and you get the desired formulation
$$binom{n+1}{k+1}
= sum_{t=k}^{n} binom{t}{k}
= sum_{t=0}^{n} binom{t}{k}$$
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
Beautiful proof. p.-s. you can use the LaTeX commandbinom{n}{k}
to display $binom{n}{k}$.
$endgroup$
– hlapointe
Oct 21 '15 at 16:26
$begingroup$
@hlapointe thank you. Sure, I forgot there was a special command for binomial.
$endgroup$
– Eli Korvigo
Oct 21 '15 at 16:32
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Imagine the first $n + 1$ numbers, written in order on a piece of paper. The right hand side asks in how many ways you can pick $k+1$ of them. In how many ways can you do this?
You first pick a highest number, which you circle. Call it $s$. Next, you still have to pick $k$ numbers, each less than $s$, and there are $binom{s - 1}{k}$ ways to do this.
Since $s$ is ranging from $1$ to $n$, $t:= s-1$ is ranging from $0$ to $n$ as desired.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Do you mean $s$ is ranging from $1$ to $n+1$?
$endgroup$
– Rockstar5645
Jun 2 '17 at 17:07
add a comment |
$begingroup$
$$begin{align}
sum_{t=color{blue}0}^n binom{t}{k} =sum_{t=color{blue}k}^nbinom tk&= sum_{t=k}^nleft[ binom {t+1}{k+1}-binom {t}{k+1}right]\
&=sum_{t=color{orange}k}^color{orange}nbinom {color{orange}{t+1}}{k+1}-sum_{t=k}^nbinom t{k+1}\
&=sum_{t=color{orange}{k+1}}^{color{orange}{n+1}}binom {color{orange}{t}}{k+1}-sum_{t=k}^nbinom t{k+1}\
&=binom{n+1}{k+1}-underbrace{binom k{k+1}}_0&&text{by telescoping}\
&=binom{n+1}{k+1}quadblacksquare\
end{align}$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
We can use the well known identity
$$1+x+dots+x^n = frac{x^{n+1}-1}{x-1}.$$
After substitution $x=1+t$ this becomes
$$1+(1+t)+dots+(1+t)^n=frac{(1+t)^{n+1}-1}t.$$
Both sides of these equations are polynomials in $t$. (Notice that the RHS simplifies to $sum_{j=1}^{n+1}binom {n+1}j t^{j-1}$.)
If we compare coefficient of $t^{k}$ on the LHS and the RHS we see that
$$binom 0k + binom 1k + dots + binom nk = binom{n+1}{k+1}.$$
This proof is basically the same as the proof using generating functions, which was posted in other answers. However, I think it is phrased a bit differently. (And if it is formulated this way, even somebody who has never heard of generating functions can follow the proof.)
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
You can use induction on $n$, observing that
$$
sum_{t=0}^{n+1} binom{t}{k}
= sum_{t=0}^{n} binom{t}{k} + binom{n+1}{k}
= binom{n+1}{k+1} + binom{n+1}{k}
= binom{n+2}{k+1}
$$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
How can you say that $sum_{t=0}^n binom{t}{k} = binom{n+1}{k+1}$ in your proof.
$endgroup$
– hlapointe
Oct 21 '15 at 15:13
$begingroup$
That's the inductive hypothesis.
$endgroup$
– Michael Biro
Oct 21 '15 at 15:14
$begingroup$
Ok. Can we prove it algebraically?
$endgroup$
– hlapointe
Oct 21 '15 at 15:15
$begingroup$
What's the first step!? Because if I take $n=1$, the hypothesis seem to be incorrect.
$endgroup$
– hlapointe
Oct 21 '15 at 15:21
$begingroup$
@hlapointe One choice of base case for every fixed $k$ is that $sum_{t=0}^{k} binom{t}{k} = binom{k}{k} = 1 = binom{k+1}{k+1}$.
$endgroup$
– Michael Biro
Oct 21 '15 at 16:28
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The RHS is the number of $k+1$ subsets of ${1,2,...,n+1}$. Group them according to the largest element in the subset. Sum up all the cases. Get the LHS.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Another technique is to use snake oil. Call your sum:
$begin{align}
S_k
&= sum_{0 le t le n} binom{t}{k}
end{align}$
Define the generating function:
$begin{align}
S(z)
&= sum_{k ge 0} S_k z^k \
&= sum_{k ge 0} z^k sum_{0 le t le n} binom{t}{k} \
&= sum_{0 le t le n} sum_{k ge 0} binom{t}{k} z^k \
&= sum_{0 le t le n} (1 + z)^t \
&= frac{(1 + z)^{n + 1} - 1}{(1 + z) - 1} \
&= z^{-1} left( (1 + z)^{n + 1} - 1 right)
end{align}$
So we are interested in the coefficient of $z^k$ of this:
$begin{align}
[z^k] z^{-1} left( (1 + z)^{n + 1} - 1 right)
&= [z^{k + 1}] left( (1 + z)^{n + 1} - 1 right) \
&= binom{n + 1}{k + 1}
end{align}$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
We can use the integral representation of the binomial coefficient $$dbinom{t}{k}=frac{1}{2pi i}oint_{left|zright|=1}frac{left(1+zright)^{t}}{z^{k+1}}dztag{1}
$$ and get $$sum_{t=0}^{n}dbinom{t}{k}=frac{1}{2pi i}oint_{left|zright|=1}frac{sum_{k=0}^{n}left(1+zright)^{t}}{z^{k+1}}dz
$$ $$=frac{1}{2pi i}oint_{left|zright|=1}frac{left(z+1right)^{n+1}}{z^{k+2}}dz-frac{1}{2pi i}oint_{left|zright|=1}frac{1}{z^{k+2}}dz
$$ and so usign again $(1)$ we have $$sum_{t=0}^{n}dbinom{t}{k}=dbinom{n+1}{k+1}-0=color{red}{dbinom{n+1}{k+1}.}$$
$endgroup$
2
$begingroup$
It is so nice and weird. +1
$endgroup$
– Behrouz Maleki
Jul 5 '16 at 10:27
$begingroup$
+1. Nice work. You must subtract $displaystyle{delta_{k,-1}}$ in order to take account of the case $displaystyle{k = -1}$. When $displaystyle{k = -1}$, the LHS is equal to $displaystyle{0}$ and your RHS is equal to $displaystyle{1}$. With the $displaystyle{delta_{k,-1}}$ you'll get $displaystyle{1 - 1 = 0}$.
$endgroup$
– Felix Marin
Jul 6 '16 at 21:50
add a comment |
$begingroup$
You remember that:
$$
(1+x)^m = sum_k binom{m}{k} x^k
$$
So the sum
$$
sum_{m=0}^M binom{m+k}{k}
$$
is the coefficient of $ x^k $ in:
$$
sum_{m=0}^M (1+x)^{m+k}
$$ Yes?
So now use the geometric series formula given:
$$
sum_{m=0}^M (1+x)^{m+k} = -frac{(1+x)^k}{x} left( 1 - (1+x)^{M+1} right)
$$
And now you want to know what is coefficient of $x^k $ in there. You got it from here.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
In this answer, I prove the identity
$$
binom{-n}{k}=(-1)^kbinom{n+k-1}{k}tag{1}
$$
Here is a generalization of the identity in question, proven using the Vandermonde Identity
$$
begin{align}
sum_{m=0}^Mbinom{m+k}{k}binom{M-m}{n}
&=sum_{m=0}^Mbinom{m+k}{m}binom{M-m}{M-m-n}tag{2}\
&=sum_{m=0}^M(-1)^mbinom{-k-1}{m}(-1)^{M-m-n}binom{-n-1}{M-m-n}tag{3}\
&=(-1)^{M-n}sum_{m=0}^Mbinom{-k-1}{m}binom{-n-1}{M-m-n}tag{4}\
&=(-1)^{M-n}binom{-k-n-2}{M-n}tag{5}\
&=binom{M+k+1}{M-n}tag{6}\
&=binom{M+k+1}{n+k+1}tag{7}
end{align}
$$
Explanation:
$(2)$: $binom{n}{k}=binom{n}{n-k}$
$(3)$: apply $(1)$ to each binomial coefficient
$(4)$: combine the powers of $-1$ which can then be pulled out front
$(5)$: apply Vandermonde
$(6)$: apply $(1)$
$(7)$: $binom{n}{k}=binom{n}{n-k}$
To get the identity in the question, set $n=0$.
$endgroup$
2
$begingroup$
@FoF: I have added a link here and answered your other question. Thanks for mentioning the difficulty.
$endgroup$
– robjohn♦
Dec 7 '13 at 12:33
1
$begingroup$
@FoF: That is the Vandermonde Identity that I mentioned at the beginning.
$endgroup$
– robjohn♦
Dec 8 '13 at 18:56
1
$begingroup$
@FoF: I added an explanation for each line.
$endgroup$
– robjohn♦
Dec 9 '13 at 2:20
1
$begingroup$
I answered my own question about $(5, 6$) here.
$endgroup$
– NaN
Dec 10 '13 at 8:54
1
$begingroup$
@FoF: Ah. That is why I added the Explanation when I saw difficulty in following the argument.
$endgroup$
– robjohn♦
Dec 11 '13 at 7:46
|
show 6 more comments
$begingroup$
Recall that for $kinBbb N$ we have the generating function
$$sum_{nge 0}binom{n+k}kx^n=frac1{(1-x)^{k+1}};.$$
The identity in the question can therefore be rewritten as
$$left(sum_{nge 0}binom{n+k}kx^nright)left(sum_{nge 0}x^nright)=sum_{nge 0}binom{n+k+1}{k+1}x^n;.$$
The coefficient of $x^n$ in the product on the left is
$$sum_{i=0}^nbinom{i+k}kcdot1=sum_{i=0}^nbinom{i+k}k;,$$
and the $n$-th term of the discrete convolution of the sequences $leftlanglebinom{n+k}k:ninBbb Nrightrangle$ and $langle 1,1,1,dotsrangle$. And at this point you’re practically done.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Is there a typo in the second equation (first sum)? I believe $k$ should be indexed.
$endgroup$
– AlanH
May 27 '13 at 6:20
$begingroup$
@Alan: No, the sum is over $n$; $k$ is fixed throughout.
$endgroup$
– Brian M. Scott
May 27 '13 at 7:19
$begingroup$
In my text, I have an identity $sum_{rgeq 0} binom{r + n}{r} x^r = 1/(1-x)^{n+1}$ This may be the cause of my confusion, but is this identity correct and is it equivalent to the one you used?
$endgroup$
– AlanH
May 27 '13 at 8:22
$begingroup$
@Alan: Sure: your $r$ is my $n$, and your $n$ is my $k$.
$endgroup$
– Brian M. Scott
May 27 '13 at 8:28
1
$begingroup$
@Alan: $binom{r+n}r=binom{r+n}n$; now do the translation. (Sorry: I didn’t notice before that you’d used the symmetrically opposite binomial coefficient.)
$endgroup$
– Brian M. Scott
May 27 '13 at 19:19
|
show 1 more comment
$begingroup$
A standard technique to prove such identities $sum_{i=0}^Mf(i)=F(M)$, involving on one hand a sum where only the upper bound $M$ is variable and on the other hand an explicit expression in terms of$~M$, is to use induction on$~M$. It amounts to showing that $f(M)=F(M)-F(M-1)$ (and that $F(0)=f(0)$). This is similar to using the fundamental theorem of calculus in showing that $int_0^{x_0}f(x)mathrm dx=F(x_0)$ by establishing $f(x)=F'(x)$ (and $F(0)=0$).
So here you need to check (apart from the obvious starting case $M=0$) that $binom{M+k}k=binom{M+k+1}{k+1}-binom{M+k}{k+1}$. This is just in instance of Pascal's recurrence for binomial coefficients.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
$newcommand{angles}[1]{leftlangle,{#1},rightrangle}
newcommand{braces}[1]{leftlbrace,{#1},rightrbrace}
newcommand{bracks}[1]{leftlbrack,{#1},rightrbrack}
newcommand{dd}{mathrm{d}}
newcommand{ds}[1]{displaystyle{#1}}
newcommand{expo}[1]{,mathrm{e}^{#1},}
newcommand{half}{{1 over 2}}
newcommand{ic}{mathrm{i}}
newcommand{iff}{Leftrightarrow}
newcommand{imp}{Longrightarrow}
newcommand{ol}[1]{overline{#1}}
newcommand{pars}[1]{left(,{#1},right)}
newcommand{partiald}[3]{frac{partial^{#1} #2}{partial #3^{#1}}}
newcommand{root}[2]{,sqrt[#1]{,{#2},},}
newcommand{totald}[3]{frac{mathrm{d}^{#1} #2}{mathrm{d} #3^{#1}}}
newcommand{verts}[1]{leftvert,{#1},rightvert}$
Assuming $ds{M geq 0}$:
begin{equation}
mbox{Note that}quad
sum_{m = 0}^{M}{m + k choose k} = sum_{m = k}^{M + k}{m choose k} =
a_{M + k} - a_{k - 1}quadmbox{where}quad a_{n} equiv
sum_{m = 0}^{n}{m choose k}tag{1}
end{equation}
Then,
begin{align}
color{#f00}{a_{n}} & equiv sum_{m = 0}^{n}{m choose k} =
sum_{m = 0}^{n} overbrace{%
oint_{verts{z} = 1}{pars{1 + z}^{m} over z^{k + 1}},{dd z over 2piic}}
^{ds{m choose k}} =
oint_{verts{z} = 1}{1 over z^{k + 1}}sum_{m = 0}^{n}pars{1 + z}^{m}
,{dd z over 2piic}
\[3mm] & =
oint_{verts{z} = 1}{1 over z^{k + 1}},
{pars{1 + z}^{n + 1} - 1 over pars{1 + z} - 1},{dd z over 2piic} =
underbrace{oint_{verts{z} = 1}{pars{1 + z}^{n + 1} over z^{k + 2}}
,{dd z over 2piic}}_{ds{n + 1 choose k + 1}} -
underbrace{oint_{verts{z} = 1}{1 over z^{k + 2}},{dd z over 2piic}}
_{ds{delta_{k + 2,1}}}
\[8mm] imp color{#f00}{a_{n}} & = fbox{$ds{quad%
{n + 1 choose k + 1} - delta_{k,-1}quad}$}
end{align}
begin{align}
mbox{With} pars{1},,quad
color{#f00}{sum_{m = 0}^{M}{m + k choose k}} & =
bracks{{M + k + 1 choose k + 1} - delta_{k,-1}} -
bracks{{k choose k + 1} - delta_{k,-1}}
\[3mm] & =
{M + k + 1 choose k + 1} - {k choose k + 1}
end{align}
Thanks to $ds{@robjohn}$ user who pointed out the following feature:
$$
{k choose k + 1} = {-k + k + 1 - 1 choose k + 1}pars{-1}^{k + 1} =
-pars{-1}^{k}{0 choose k + 1} = delta_{k,-1}
$$
such that
$$
begin{array}{|c|}hlinembox{}\
ds{quadcolor{#f00}{sum_{m = 0}^{M}{m + k choose k}} =
color{#f00}{{M + k + 1 choose k + 1} - delta_{k,-1}}quad}
\ mbox{}\ hline
end{array}
$$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Since $k=-1$ is covered in the first part, it should be noted that since $binom{-1}{0}=1$, $$binom{k}{k+1}-delta_{k,-1}=0$$ therefore the final answer seems it should be $$binom{M+k+1}{k+1}-delta_{k,-1}$$
$endgroup$
– robjohn♦
Jul 25 '16 at 13:00
$begingroup$
@robjohn Thanks. I'm checking everything right now.
$endgroup$
– Felix Marin
Jul 25 '16 at 21:48
$begingroup$
@robjohn Thanks. Fixed.
$endgroup$
– Felix Marin
Jul 25 '16 at 22:09
add a comment |
Your Answer
StackExchange.ifUsing("editor", function () {
return StackExchange.using("mathjaxEditing", function () {
StackExchange.MarkdownEditor.creationCallbacks.add(function (editor, postfix) {
StackExchange.mathjaxEditing.prepareWmdForMathJax(editor, postfix, [["$", "$"], ["\\(","\\)"]]);
});
});
}, "mathjax-editing");
StackExchange.ready(function() {
var channelOptions = {
tags: "".split(" "),
id: "69"
};
initTagRenderer("".split(" "), "".split(" "), channelOptions);
StackExchange.using("externalEditor", function() {
// Have to fire editor after snippets, if snippets enabled
if (StackExchange.settings.snippets.snippetsEnabled) {
StackExchange.using("snippets", function() {
createEditor();
});
}
else {
createEditor();
}
});
function createEditor() {
StackExchange.prepareEditor({
heartbeatType: 'answer',
autoActivateHeartbeat: false,
convertImagesToLinks: true,
noModals: true,
showLowRepImageUploadWarning: true,
reputationToPostImages: 10,
bindNavPrevention: true,
postfix: "",
imageUploader: {
brandingHtml: "Powered by u003ca class="icon-imgur-white" href="https://imgur.com/"u003eu003c/au003e",
contentPolicyHtml: "User contributions licensed under u003ca href="https://creativecommons.org/licenses/by-sa/3.0/"u003ecc by-sa 3.0 with attribution requiredu003c/au003e u003ca href="https://stackoverflow.com/legal/content-policy"u003e(content policy)u003c/au003e",
allowUrls: true
},
noCode: true, onDemand: true,
discardSelector: ".discard-answer"
,immediatelyShowMarkdownHelp:true
});
}
});
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function () {
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
});
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
Required, but never shown
StackExchange.ready(
function () {
StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f1490794%2fproof-of-the-hockey-stick-identity-sum-limits-t-0n-binom-tk-binomn1%23new-answer', 'question_page');
}
);
Post as a guest
Required, but never shown
13 Answers
13
active
oldest
votes
13 Answers
13
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
This is purely algebraic. First of all, since $dbinom{t}{k} =0$ when $k>t$ we can rewrite
$$binom{n+1}{k+1} = sum_{t=0}^{n} binom{t}{k}=sum_{t=k}^{n} binom{t}{k}$$
Recall that (by the Pascal's Triangle),
$$binom{n}{k} = binom{n-1}{k-1} + binom{n-1}{k}$$
Hence
$$binom{t+1}{k+1} = binom{t}{k} + binom{t}{k+1} implies binom{t}{k} = binom{t+1}{k+1} - binom{t}{k+1}$$
Let's get this summed by $t$:
$$sum_{t=k}^{n} binom{t}{k} = sum_{t=k}^{n} binom{t+1}{k+1} - sum_{t=k}^{n} binom{t}{k+1}$$
Let's factor out the last member of the first sum and the first member of the second sum:
$$sum _{t=k}^{n} binom{t}{k}
=left( sum_{t=k}^{n-1} binom{t+1}{k+1} + binom{n+1}{k+1} right)
-left( sum_{t=k+1}^{n} binom{t}{k+1} + binom{k}{k+1} right)$$
Obviously $dbinom{k}{k+1} = 0$, hence we get
$$sum _{t=k}^{n} binom{t}{k}
=binom{n+1}{k+1}
+sum_{t=k}^{n-1} binom{t+1}{k+1}
-sum_{t=k+1}^{n} binom{t}{k+1}$$
Let's introduce $t'=t-1$, then if $t=k+1 dots n, t'=k dots n-1$, hence
$$sum_{t=k}^{n} binom{t}{k}
= binom{n+1}{k+1}
+sum_{t=k}^{n-1} binom{t+1}{k+1}
-sum_{t'=k}^{n-1} binom{t'+1}{k+1}$$
The latter two arguments eliminate each other and you get the desired formulation
$$binom{n+1}{k+1}
= sum_{t=k}^{n} binom{t}{k}
= sum_{t=0}^{n} binom{t}{k}$$
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
Beautiful proof. p.-s. you can use the LaTeX commandbinom{n}{k}
to display $binom{n}{k}$.
$endgroup$
– hlapointe
Oct 21 '15 at 16:26
$begingroup$
@hlapointe thank you. Sure, I forgot there was a special command for binomial.
$endgroup$
– Eli Korvigo
Oct 21 '15 at 16:32
add a comment |
$begingroup$
This is purely algebraic. First of all, since $dbinom{t}{k} =0$ when $k>t$ we can rewrite
$$binom{n+1}{k+1} = sum_{t=0}^{n} binom{t}{k}=sum_{t=k}^{n} binom{t}{k}$$
Recall that (by the Pascal's Triangle),
$$binom{n}{k} = binom{n-1}{k-1} + binom{n-1}{k}$$
Hence
$$binom{t+1}{k+1} = binom{t}{k} + binom{t}{k+1} implies binom{t}{k} = binom{t+1}{k+1} - binom{t}{k+1}$$
Let's get this summed by $t$:
$$sum_{t=k}^{n} binom{t}{k} = sum_{t=k}^{n} binom{t+1}{k+1} - sum_{t=k}^{n} binom{t}{k+1}$$
Let's factor out the last member of the first sum and the first member of the second sum:
$$sum _{t=k}^{n} binom{t}{k}
=left( sum_{t=k}^{n-1} binom{t+1}{k+1} + binom{n+1}{k+1} right)
-left( sum_{t=k+1}^{n} binom{t}{k+1} + binom{k}{k+1} right)$$
Obviously $dbinom{k}{k+1} = 0$, hence we get
$$sum _{t=k}^{n} binom{t}{k}
=binom{n+1}{k+1}
+sum_{t=k}^{n-1} binom{t+1}{k+1}
-sum_{t=k+1}^{n} binom{t}{k+1}$$
Let's introduce $t'=t-1$, then if $t=k+1 dots n, t'=k dots n-1$, hence
$$sum_{t=k}^{n} binom{t}{k}
= binom{n+1}{k+1}
+sum_{t=k}^{n-1} binom{t+1}{k+1}
-sum_{t'=k}^{n-1} binom{t'+1}{k+1}$$
The latter two arguments eliminate each other and you get the desired formulation
$$binom{n+1}{k+1}
= sum_{t=k}^{n} binom{t}{k}
= sum_{t=0}^{n} binom{t}{k}$$
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
Beautiful proof. p.-s. you can use the LaTeX commandbinom{n}{k}
to display $binom{n}{k}$.
$endgroup$
– hlapointe
Oct 21 '15 at 16:26
$begingroup$
@hlapointe thank you. Sure, I forgot there was a special command for binomial.
$endgroup$
– Eli Korvigo
Oct 21 '15 at 16:32
add a comment |
$begingroup$
This is purely algebraic. First of all, since $dbinom{t}{k} =0$ when $k>t$ we can rewrite
$$binom{n+1}{k+1} = sum_{t=0}^{n} binom{t}{k}=sum_{t=k}^{n} binom{t}{k}$$
Recall that (by the Pascal's Triangle),
$$binom{n}{k} = binom{n-1}{k-1} + binom{n-1}{k}$$
Hence
$$binom{t+1}{k+1} = binom{t}{k} + binom{t}{k+1} implies binom{t}{k} = binom{t+1}{k+1} - binom{t}{k+1}$$
Let's get this summed by $t$:
$$sum_{t=k}^{n} binom{t}{k} = sum_{t=k}^{n} binom{t+1}{k+1} - sum_{t=k}^{n} binom{t}{k+1}$$
Let's factor out the last member of the first sum and the first member of the second sum:
$$sum _{t=k}^{n} binom{t}{k}
=left( sum_{t=k}^{n-1} binom{t+1}{k+1} + binom{n+1}{k+1} right)
-left( sum_{t=k+1}^{n} binom{t}{k+1} + binom{k}{k+1} right)$$
Obviously $dbinom{k}{k+1} = 0$, hence we get
$$sum _{t=k}^{n} binom{t}{k}
=binom{n+1}{k+1}
+sum_{t=k}^{n-1} binom{t+1}{k+1}
-sum_{t=k+1}^{n} binom{t}{k+1}$$
Let's introduce $t'=t-1$, then if $t=k+1 dots n, t'=k dots n-1$, hence
$$sum_{t=k}^{n} binom{t}{k}
= binom{n+1}{k+1}
+sum_{t=k}^{n-1} binom{t+1}{k+1}
-sum_{t'=k}^{n-1} binom{t'+1}{k+1}$$
The latter two arguments eliminate each other and you get the desired formulation
$$binom{n+1}{k+1}
= sum_{t=k}^{n} binom{t}{k}
= sum_{t=0}^{n} binom{t}{k}$$
$endgroup$
This is purely algebraic. First of all, since $dbinom{t}{k} =0$ when $k>t$ we can rewrite
$$binom{n+1}{k+1} = sum_{t=0}^{n} binom{t}{k}=sum_{t=k}^{n} binom{t}{k}$$
Recall that (by the Pascal's Triangle),
$$binom{n}{k} = binom{n-1}{k-1} + binom{n-1}{k}$$
Hence
$$binom{t+1}{k+1} = binom{t}{k} + binom{t}{k+1} implies binom{t}{k} = binom{t+1}{k+1} - binom{t}{k+1}$$
Let's get this summed by $t$:
$$sum_{t=k}^{n} binom{t}{k} = sum_{t=k}^{n} binom{t+1}{k+1} - sum_{t=k}^{n} binom{t}{k+1}$$
Let's factor out the last member of the first sum and the first member of the second sum:
$$sum _{t=k}^{n} binom{t}{k}
=left( sum_{t=k}^{n-1} binom{t+1}{k+1} + binom{n+1}{k+1} right)
-left( sum_{t=k+1}^{n} binom{t}{k+1} + binom{k}{k+1} right)$$
Obviously $dbinom{k}{k+1} = 0$, hence we get
$$sum _{t=k}^{n} binom{t}{k}
=binom{n+1}{k+1}
+sum_{t=k}^{n-1} binom{t+1}{k+1}
-sum_{t=k+1}^{n} binom{t}{k+1}$$
Let's introduce $t'=t-1$, then if $t=k+1 dots n, t'=k dots n-1$, hence
$$sum_{t=k}^{n} binom{t}{k}
= binom{n+1}{k+1}
+sum_{t=k}^{n-1} binom{t+1}{k+1}
-sum_{t'=k}^{n-1} binom{t'+1}{k+1}$$
The latter two arguments eliminate each other and you get the desired formulation
$$binom{n+1}{k+1}
= sum_{t=k}^{n} binom{t}{k}
= sum_{t=0}^{n} binom{t}{k}$$
edited Sep 10 '18 at 6:02
answered Oct 21 '15 at 15:48
Eli KorvigoEli Korvigo
315110
315110
1
$begingroup$
Beautiful proof. p.-s. you can use the LaTeX commandbinom{n}{k}
to display $binom{n}{k}$.
$endgroup$
– hlapointe
Oct 21 '15 at 16:26
$begingroup$
@hlapointe thank you. Sure, I forgot there was a special command for binomial.
$endgroup$
– Eli Korvigo
Oct 21 '15 at 16:32
add a comment |
1
$begingroup$
Beautiful proof. p.-s. you can use the LaTeX commandbinom{n}{k}
to display $binom{n}{k}$.
$endgroup$
– hlapointe
Oct 21 '15 at 16:26
$begingroup$
@hlapointe thank you. Sure, I forgot there was a special command for binomial.
$endgroup$
– Eli Korvigo
Oct 21 '15 at 16:32
1
1
$begingroup$
Beautiful proof. p.-s. you can use the LaTeX command
binom{n}{k}
to display $binom{n}{k}$.$endgroup$
– hlapointe
Oct 21 '15 at 16:26
$begingroup$
Beautiful proof. p.-s. you can use the LaTeX command
binom{n}{k}
to display $binom{n}{k}$.$endgroup$
– hlapointe
Oct 21 '15 at 16:26
$begingroup$
@hlapointe thank you. Sure, I forgot there was a special command for binomial.
$endgroup$
– Eli Korvigo
Oct 21 '15 at 16:32
$begingroup$
@hlapointe thank you. Sure, I forgot there was a special command for binomial.
$endgroup$
– Eli Korvigo
Oct 21 '15 at 16:32
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Imagine the first $n + 1$ numbers, written in order on a piece of paper. The right hand side asks in how many ways you can pick $k+1$ of them. In how many ways can you do this?
You first pick a highest number, which you circle. Call it $s$. Next, you still have to pick $k$ numbers, each less than $s$, and there are $binom{s - 1}{k}$ ways to do this.
Since $s$ is ranging from $1$ to $n$, $t:= s-1$ is ranging from $0$ to $n$ as desired.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Do you mean $s$ is ranging from $1$ to $n+1$?
$endgroup$
– Rockstar5645
Jun 2 '17 at 17:07
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Imagine the first $n + 1$ numbers, written in order on a piece of paper. The right hand side asks in how many ways you can pick $k+1$ of them. In how many ways can you do this?
You first pick a highest number, which you circle. Call it $s$. Next, you still have to pick $k$ numbers, each less than $s$, and there are $binom{s - 1}{k}$ ways to do this.
Since $s$ is ranging from $1$ to $n$, $t:= s-1$ is ranging from $0$ to $n$ as desired.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Do you mean $s$ is ranging from $1$ to $n+1$?
$endgroup$
– Rockstar5645
Jun 2 '17 at 17:07
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Imagine the first $n + 1$ numbers, written in order on a piece of paper. The right hand side asks in how many ways you can pick $k+1$ of them. In how many ways can you do this?
You first pick a highest number, which you circle. Call it $s$. Next, you still have to pick $k$ numbers, each less than $s$, and there are $binom{s - 1}{k}$ ways to do this.
Since $s$ is ranging from $1$ to $n$, $t:= s-1$ is ranging from $0$ to $n$ as desired.
$endgroup$
Imagine the first $n + 1$ numbers, written in order on a piece of paper. The right hand side asks in how many ways you can pick $k+1$ of them. In how many ways can you do this?
You first pick a highest number, which you circle. Call it $s$. Next, you still have to pick $k$ numbers, each less than $s$, and there are $binom{s - 1}{k}$ ways to do this.
Since $s$ is ranging from $1$ to $n$, $t:= s-1$ is ranging from $0$ to $n$ as desired.
answered Oct 21 '15 at 16:30
hunterhunter
14.7k22438
14.7k22438
$begingroup$
Do you mean $s$ is ranging from $1$ to $n+1$?
$endgroup$
– Rockstar5645
Jun 2 '17 at 17:07
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Do you mean $s$ is ranging from $1$ to $n+1$?
$endgroup$
– Rockstar5645
Jun 2 '17 at 17:07
$begingroup$
Do you mean $s$ is ranging from $1$ to $n+1$?
$endgroup$
– Rockstar5645
Jun 2 '17 at 17:07
$begingroup$
Do you mean $s$ is ranging from $1$ to $n+1$?
$endgroup$
– Rockstar5645
Jun 2 '17 at 17:07
add a comment |
$begingroup$
$$begin{align}
sum_{t=color{blue}0}^n binom{t}{k} =sum_{t=color{blue}k}^nbinom tk&= sum_{t=k}^nleft[ binom {t+1}{k+1}-binom {t}{k+1}right]\
&=sum_{t=color{orange}k}^color{orange}nbinom {color{orange}{t+1}}{k+1}-sum_{t=k}^nbinom t{k+1}\
&=sum_{t=color{orange}{k+1}}^{color{orange}{n+1}}binom {color{orange}{t}}{k+1}-sum_{t=k}^nbinom t{k+1}\
&=binom{n+1}{k+1}-underbrace{binom k{k+1}}_0&&text{by telescoping}\
&=binom{n+1}{k+1}quadblacksquare\
end{align}$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
$$begin{align}
sum_{t=color{blue}0}^n binom{t}{k} =sum_{t=color{blue}k}^nbinom tk&= sum_{t=k}^nleft[ binom {t+1}{k+1}-binom {t}{k+1}right]\
&=sum_{t=color{orange}k}^color{orange}nbinom {color{orange}{t+1}}{k+1}-sum_{t=k}^nbinom t{k+1}\
&=sum_{t=color{orange}{k+1}}^{color{orange}{n+1}}binom {color{orange}{t}}{k+1}-sum_{t=k}^nbinom t{k+1}\
&=binom{n+1}{k+1}-underbrace{binom k{k+1}}_0&&text{by telescoping}\
&=binom{n+1}{k+1}quadblacksquare\
end{align}$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
$$begin{align}
sum_{t=color{blue}0}^n binom{t}{k} =sum_{t=color{blue}k}^nbinom tk&= sum_{t=k}^nleft[ binom {t+1}{k+1}-binom {t}{k+1}right]\
&=sum_{t=color{orange}k}^color{orange}nbinom {color{orange}{t+1}}{k+1}-sum_{t=k}^nbinom t{k+1}\
&=sum_{t=color{orange}{k+1}}^{color{orange}{n+1}}binom {color{orange}{t}}{k+1}-sum_{t=k}^nbinom t{k+1}\
&=binom{n+1}{k+1}-underbrace{binom k{k+1}}_0&&text{by telescoping}\
&=binom{n+1}{k+1}quadblacksquare\
end{align}$$
$endgroup$
$$begin{align}
sum_{t=color{blue}0}^n binom{t}{k} =sum_{t=color{blue}k}^nbinom tk&= sum_{t=k}^nleft[ binom {t+1}{k+1}-binom {t}{k+1}right]\
&=sum_{t=color{orange}k}^color{orange}nbinom {color{orange}{t+1}}{k+1}-sum_{t=k}^nbinom t{k+1}\
&=sum_{t=color{orange}{k+1}}^{color{orange}{n+1}}binom {color{orange}{t}}{k+1}-sum_{t=k}^nbinom t{k+1}\
&=binom{n+1}{k+1}-underbrace{binom k{k+1}}_0&&text{by telescoping}\
&=binom{n+1}{k+1}quadblacksquare\
end{align}$$
edited Jul 5 '16 at 7:07
answered Oct 21 '15 at 16:02
hypergeometrichypergeometric
17.7k1758
17.7k1758
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
We can use the well known identity
$$1+x+dots+x^n = frac{x^{n+1}-1}{x-1}.$$
After substitution $x=1+t$ this becomes
$$1+(1+t)+dots+(1+t)^n=frac{(1+t)^{n+1}-1}t.$$
Both sides of these equations are polynomials in $t$. (Notice that the RHS simplifies to $sum_{j=1}^{n+1}binom {n+1}j t^{j-1}$.)
If we compare coefficient of $t^{k}$ on the LHS and the RHS we see that
$$binom 0k + binom 1k + dots + binom nk = binom{n+1}{k+1}.$$
This proof is basically the same as the proof using generating functions, which was posted in other answers. However, I think it is phrased a bit differently. (And if it is formulated this way, even somebody who has never heard of generating functions can follow the proof.)
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
We can use the well known identity
$$1+x+dots+x^n = frac{x^{n+1}-1}{x-1}.$$
After substitution $x=1+t$ this becomes
$$1+(1+t)+dots+(1+t)^n=frac{(1+t)^{n+1}-1}t.$$
Both sides of these equations are polynomials in $t$. (Notice that the RHS simplifies to $sum_{j=1}^{n+1}binom {n+1}j t^{j-1}$.)
If we compare coefficient of $t^{k}$ on the LHS and the RHS we see that
$$binom 0k + binom 1k + dots + binom nk = binom{n+1}{k+1}.$$
This proof is basically the same as the proof using generating functions, which was posted in other answers. However, I think it is phrased a bit differently. (And if it is formulated this way, even somebody who has never heard of generating functions can follow the proof.)
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
We can use the well known identity
$$1+x+dots+x^n = frac{x^{n+1}-1}{x-1}.$$
After substitution $x=1+t$ this becomes
$$1+(1+t)+dots+(1+t)^n=frac{(1+t)^{n+1}-1}t.$$
Both sides of these equations are polynomials in $t$. (Notice that the RHS simplifies to $sum_{j=1}^{n+1}binom {n+1}j t^{j-1}$.)
If we compare coefficient of $t^{k}$ on the LHS and the RHS we see that
$$binom 0k + binom 1k + dots + binom nk = binom{n+1}{k+1}.$$
This proof is basically the same as the proof using generating functions, which was posted in other answers. However, I think it is phrased a bit differently. (And if it is formulated this way, even somebody who has never heard of generating functions can follow the proof.)
$endgroup$
We can use the well known identity
$$1+x+dots+x^n = frac{x^{n+1}-1}{x-1}.$$
After substitution $x=1+t$ this becomes
$$1+(1+t)+dots+(1+t)^n=frac{(1+t)^{n+1}-1}t.$$
Both sides of these equations are polynomials in $t$. (Notice that the RHS simplifies to $sum_{j=1}^{n+1}binom {n+1}j t^{j-1}$.)
If we compare coefficient of $t^{k}$ on the LHS and the RHS we see that
$$binom 0k + binom 1k + dots + binom nk = binom{n+1}{k+1}.$$
This proof is basically the same as the proof using generating functions, which was posted in other answers. However, I think it is phrased a bit differently. (And if it is formulated this way, even somebody who has never heard of generating functions can follow the proof.)
answered Jan 18 '16 at 13:45
Martin SleziakMartin Sleziak
44.8k9118272
44.8k9118272
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
You can use induction on $n$, observing that
$$
sum_{t=0}^{n+1} binom{t}{k}
= sum_{t=0}^{n} binom{t}{k} + binom{n+1}{k}
= binom{n+1}{k+1} + binom{n+1}{k}
= binom{n+2}{k+1}
$$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
How can you say that $sum_{t=0}^n binom{t}{k} = binom{n+1}{k+1}$ in your proof.
$endgroup$
– hlapointe
Oct 21 '15 at 15:13
$begingroup$
That's the inductive hypothesis.
$endgroup$
– Michael Biro
Oct 21 '15 at 15:14
$begingroup$
Ok. Can we prove it algebraically?
$endgroup$
– hlapointe
Oct 21 '15 at 15:15
$begingroup$
What's the first step!? Because if I take $n=1$, the hypothesis seem to be incorrect.
$endgroup$
– hlapointe
Oct 21 '15 at 15:21
$begingroup$
@hlapointe One choice of base case for every fixed $k$ is that $sum_{t=0}^{k} binom{t}{k} = binom{k}{k} = 1 = binom{k+1}{k+1}$.
$endgroup$
– Michael Biro
Oct 21 '15 at 16:28
add a comment |
$begingroup$
You can use induction on $n$, observing that
$$
sum_{t=0}^{n+1} binom{t}{k}
= sum_{t=0}^{n} binom{t}{k} + binom{n+1}{k}
= binom{n+1}{k+1} + binom{n+1}{k}
= binom{n+2}{k+1}
$$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
How can you say that $sum_{t=0}^n binom{t}{k} = binom{n+1}{k+1}$ in your proof.
$endgroup$
– hlapointe
Oct 21 '15 at 15:13
$begingroup$
That's the inductive hypothesis.
$endgroup$
– Michael Biro
Oct 21 '15 at 15:14
$begingroup$
Ok. Can we prove it algebraically?
$endgroup$
– hlapointe
Oct 21 '15 at 15:15
$begingroup$
What's the first step!? Because if I take $n=1$, the hypothesis seem to be incorrect.
$endgroup$
– hlapointe
Oct 21 '15 at 15:21
$begingroup$
@hlapointe One choice of base case for every fixed $k$ is that $sum_{t=0}^{k} binom{t}{k} = binom{k}{k} = 1 = binom{k+1}{k+1}$.
$endgroup$
– Michael Biro
Oct 21 '15 at 16:28
add a comment |
$begingroup$
You can use induction on $n$, observing that
$$
sum_{t=0}^{n+1} binom{t}{k}
= sum_{t=0}^{n} binom{t}{k} + binom{n+1}{k}
= binom{n+1}{k+1} + binom{n+1}{k}
= binom{n+2}{k+1}
$$
$endgroup$
You can use induction on $n$, observing that
$$
sum_{t=0}^{n+1} binom{t}{k}
= sum_{t=0}^{n} binom{t}{k} + binom{n+1}{k}
= binom{n+1}{k+1} + binom{n+1}{k}
= binom{n+2}{k+1}
$$
edited Oct 21 '15 at 15:13
hlapointe
660721
660721
answered Oct 21 '15 at 15:08
Michael BiroMichael Biro
10.8k21731
10.8k21731
$begingroup$
How can you say that $sum_{t=0}^n binom{t}{k} = binom{n+1}{k+1}$ in your proof.
$endgroup$
– hlapointe
Oct 21 '15 at 15:13
$begingroup$
That's the inductive hypothesis.
$endgroup$
– Michael Biro
Oct 21 '15 at 15:14
$begingroup$
Ok. Can we prove it algebraically?
$endgroup$
– hlapointe
Oct 21 '15 at 15:15
$begingroup$
What's the first step!? Because if I take $n=1$, the hypothesis seem to be incorrect.
$endgroup$
– hlapointe
Oct 21 '15 at 15:21
$begingroup$
@hlapointe One choice of base case for every fixed $k$ is that $sum_{t=0}^{k} binom{t}{k} = binom{k}{k} = 1 = binom{k+1}{k+1}$.
$endgroup$
– Michael Biro
Oct 21 '15 at 16:28
add a comment |
$begingroup$
How can you say that $sum_{t=0}^n binom{t}{k} = binom{n+1}{k+1}$ in your proof.
$endgroup$
– hlapointe
Oct 21 '15 at 15:13
$begingroup$
That's the inductive hypothesis.
$endgroup$
– Michael Biro
Oct 21 '15 at 15:14
$begingroup$
Ok. Can we prove it algebraically?
$endgroup$
– hlapointe
Oct 21 '15 at 15:15
$begingroup$
What's the first step!? Because if I take $n=1$, the hypothesis seem to be incorrect.
$endgroup$
– hlapointe
Oct 21 '15 at 15:21
$begingroup$
@hlapointe One choice of base case for every fixed $k$ is that $sum_{t=0}^{k} binom{t}{k} = binom{k}{k} = 1 = binom{k+1}{k+1}$.
$endgroup$
– Michael Biro
Oct 21 '15 at 16:28
$begingroup$
How can you say that $sum_{t=0}^n binom{t}{k} = binom{n+1}{k+1}$ in your proof.
$endgroup$
– hlapointe
Oct 21 '15 at 15:13
$begingroup$
How can you say that $sum_{t=0}^n binom{t}{k} = binom{n+1}{k+1}$ in your proof.
$endgroup$
– hlapointe
Oct 21 '15 at 15:13
$begingroup$
That's the inductive hypothesis.
$endgroup$
– Michael Biro
Oct 21 '15 at 15:14
$begingroup$
That's the inductive hypothesis.
$endgroup$
– Michael Biro
Oct 21 '15 at 15:14
$begingroup$
Ok. Can we prove it algebraically?
$endgroup$
– hlapointe
Oct 21 '15 at 15:15
$begingroup$
Ok. Can we prove it algebraically?
$endgroup$
– hlapointe
Oct 21 '15 at 15:15
$begingroup$
What's the first step!? Because if I take $n=1$, the hypothesis seem to be incorrect.
$endgroup$
– hlapointe
Oct 21 '15 at 15:21
$begingroup$
What's the first step!? Because if I take $n=1$, the hypothesis seem to be incorrect.
$endgroup$
– hlapointe
Oct 21 '15 at 15:21
$begingroup$
@hlapointe One choice of base case for every fixed $k$ is that $sum_{t=0}^{k} binom{t}{k} = binom{k}{k} = 1 = binom{k+1}{k+1}$.
$endgroup$
– Michael Biro
Oct 21 '15 at 16:28
$begingroup$
@hlapointe One choice of base case for every fixed $k$ is that $sum_{t=0}^{k} binom{t}{k} = binom{k}{k} = 1 = binom{k+1}{k+1}$.
$endgroup$
– Michael Biro
Oct 21 '15 at 16:28
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The RHS is the number of $k+1$ subsets of ${1,2,...,n+1}$. Group them according to the largest element in the subset. Sum up all the cases. Get the LHS.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The RHS is the number of $k+1$ subsets of ${1,2,...,n+1}$. Group them according to the largest element in the subset. Sum up all the cases. Get the LHS.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The RHS is the number of $k+1$ subsets of ${1,2,...,n+1}$. Group them according to the largest element in the subset. Sum up all the cases. Get the LHS.
$endgroup$
The RHS is the number of $k+1$ subsets of ${1,2,...,n+1}$. Group them according to the largest element in the subset. Sum up all the cases. Get the LHS.
answered Oct 22 '15 at 2:13
MilanMilan
1414
1414
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Another technique is to use snake oil. Call your sum:
$begin{align}
S_k
&= sum_{0 le t le n} binom{t}{k}
end{align}$
Define the generating function:
$begin{align}
S(z)
&= sum_{k ge 0} S_k z^k \
&= sum_{k ge 0} z^k sum_{0 le t le n} binom{t}{k} \
&= sum_{0 le t le n} sum_{k ge 0} binom{t}{k} z^k \
&= sum_{0 le t le n} (1 + z)^t \
&= frac{(1 + z)^{n + 1} - 1}{(1 + z) - 1} \
&= z^{-1} left( (1 + z)^{n + 1} - 1 right)
end{align}$
So we are interested in the coefficient of $z^k$ of this:
$begin{align}
[z^k] z^{-1} left( (1 + z)^{n + 1} - 1 right)
&= [z^{k + 1}] left( (1 + z)^{n + 1} - 1 right) \
&= binom{n + 1}{k + 1}
end{align}$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Another technique is to use snake oil. Call your sum:
$begin{align}
S_k
&= sum_{0 le t le n} binom{t}{k}
end{align}$
Define the generating function:
$begin{align}
S(z)
&= sum_{k ge 0} S_k z^k \
&= sum_{k ge 0} z^k sum_{0 le t le n} binom{t}{k} \
&= sum_{0 le t le n} sum_{k ge 0} binom{t}{k} z^k \
&= sum_{0 le t le n} (1 + z)^t \
&= frac{(1 + z)^{n + 1} - 1}{(1 + z) - 1} \
&= z^{-1} left( (1 + z)^{n + 1} - 1 right)
end{align}$
So we are interested in the coefficient of $z^k$ of this:
$begin{align}
[z^k] z^{-1} left( (1 + z)^{n + 1} - 1 right)
&= [z^{k + 1}] left( (1 + z)^{n + 1} - 1 right) \
&= binom{n + 1}{k + 1}
end{align}$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Another technique is to use snake oil. Call your sum:
$begin{align}
S_k
&= sum_{0 le t le n} binom{t}{k}
end{align}$
Define the generating function:
$begin{align}
S(z)
&= sum_{k ge 0} S_k z^k \
&= sum_{k ge 0} z^k sum_{0 le t le n} binom{t}{k} \
&= sum_{0 le t le n} sum_{k ge 0} binom{t}{k} z^k \
&= sum_{0 le t le n} (1 + z)^t \
&= frac{(1 + z)^{n + 1} - 1}{(1 + z) - 1} \
&= z^{-1} left( (1 + z)^{n + 1} - 1 right)
end{align}$
So we are interested in the coefficient of $z^k$ of this:
$begin{align}
[z^k] z^{-1} left( (1 + z)^{n + 1} - 1 right)
&= [z^{k + 1}] left( (1 + z)^{n + 1} - 1 right) \
&= binom{n + 1}{k + 1}
end{align}$
$endgroup$
Another technique is to use snake oil. Call your sum:
$begin{align}
S_k
&= sum_{0 le t le n} binom{t}{k}
end{align}$
Define the generating function:
$begin{align}
S(z)
&= sum_{k ge 0} S_k z^k \
&= sum_{k ge 0} z^k sum_{0 le t le n} binom{t}{k} \
&= sum_{0 le t le n} sum_{k ge 0} binom{t}{k} z^k \
&= sum_{0 le t le n} (1 + z)^t \
&= frac{(1 + z)^{n + 1} - 1}{(1 + z) - 1} \
&= z^{-1} left( (1 + z)^{n + 1} - 1 right)
end{align}$
So we are interested in the coefficient of $z^k$ of this:
$begin{align}
[z^k] z^{-1} left( (1 + z)^{n + 1} - 1 right)
&= [z^{k + 1}] left( (1 + z)^{n + 1} - 1 right) \
&= binom{n + 1}{k + 1}
end{align}$
edited Oct 21 '15 at 16:07
answered Oct 21 '15 at 15:58
vonbrandvonbrand
19.9k63158
19.9k63158
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
We can use the integral representation of the binomial coefficient $$dbinom{t}{k}=frac{1}{2pi i}oint_{left|zright|=1}frac{left(1+zright)^{t}}{z^{k+1}}dztag{1}
$$ and get $$sum_{t=0}^{n}dbinom{t}{k}=frac{1}{2pi i}oint_{left|zright|=1}frac{sum_{k=0}^{n}left(1+zright)^{t}}{z^{k+1}}dz
$$ $$=frac{1}{2pi i}oint_{left|zright|=1}frac{left(z+1right)^{n+1}}{z^{k+2}}dz-frac{1}{2pi i}oint_{left|zright|=1}frac{1}{z^{k+2}}dz
$$ and so usign again $(1)$ we have $$sum_{t=0}^{n}dbinom{t}{k}=dbinom{n+1}{k+1}-0=color{red}{dbinom{n+1}{k+1}.}$$
$endgroup$
2
$begingroup$
It is so nice and weird. +1
$endgroup$
– Behrouz Maleki
Jul 5 '16 at 10:27
$begingroup$
+1. Nice work. You must subtract $displaystyle{delta_{k,-1}}$ in order to take account of the case $displaystyle{k = -1}$. When $displaystyle{k = -1}$, the LHS is equal to $displaystyle{0}$ and your RHS is equal to $displaystyle{1}$. With the $displaystyle{delta_{k,-1}}$ you'll get $displaystyle{1 - 1 = 0}$.
$endgroup$
– Felix Marin
Jul 6 '16 at 21:50
add a comment |
$begingroup$
We can use the integral representation of the binomial coefficient $$dbinom{t}{k}=frac{1}{2pi i}oint_{left|zright|=1}frac{left(1+zright)^{t}}{z^{k+1}}dztag{1}
$$ and get $$sum_{t=0}^{n}dbinom{t}{k}=frac{1}{2pi i}oint_{left|zright|=1}frac{sum_{k=0}^{n}left(1+zright)^{t}}{z^{k+1}}dz
$$ $$=frac{1}{2pi i}oint_{left|zright|=1}frac{left(z+1right)^{n+1}}{z^{k+2}}dz-frac{1}{2pi i}oint_{left|zright|=1}frac{1}{z^{k+2}}dz
$$ and so usign again $(1)$ we have $$sum_{t=0}^{n}dbinom{t}{k}=dbinom{n+1}{k+1}-0=color{red}{dbinom{n+1}{k+1}.}$$
$endgroup$
2
$begingroup$
It is so nice and weird. +1
$endgroup$
– Behrouz Maleki
Jul 5 '16 at 10:27
$begingroup$
+1. Nice work. You must subtract $displaystyle{delta_{k,-1}}$ in order to take account of the case $displaystyle{k = -1}$. When $displaystyle{k = -1}$, the LHS is equal to $displaystyle{0}$ and your RHS is equal to $displaystyle{1}$. With the $displaystyle{delta_{k,-1}}$ you'll get $displaystyle{1 - 1 = 0}$.
$endgroup$
– Felix Marin
Jul 6 '16 at 21:50
add a comment |
$begingroup$
We can use the integral representation of the binomial coefficient $$dbinom{t}{k}=frac{1}{2pi i}oint_{left|zright|=1}frac{left(1+zright)^{t}}{z^{k+1}}dztag{1}
$$ and get $$sum_{t=0}^{n}dbinom{t}{k}=frac{1}{2pi i}oint_{left|zright|=1}frac{sum_{k=0}^{n}left(1+zright)^{t}}{z^{k+1}}dz
$$ $$=frac{1}{2pi i}oint_{left|zright|=1}frac{left(z+1right)^{n+1}}{z^{k+2}}dz-frac{1}{2pi i}oint_{left|zright|=1}frac{1}{z^{k+2}}dz
$$ and so usign again $(1)$ we have $$sum_{t=0}^{n}dbinom{t}{k}=dbinom{n+1}{k+1}-0=color{red}{dbinom{n+1}{k+1}.}$$
$endgroup$
We can use the integral representation of the binomial coefficient $$dbinom{t}{k}=frac{1}{2pi i}oint_{left|zright|=1}frac{left(1+zright)^{t}}{z^{k+1}}dztag{1}
$$ and get $$sum_{t=0}^{n}dbinom{t}{k}=frac{1}{2pi i}oint_{left|zright|=1}frac{sum_{k=0}^{n}left(1+zright)^{t}}{z^{k+1}}dz
$$ $$=frac{1}{2pi i}oint_{left|zright|=1}frac{left(z+1right)^{n+1}}{z^{k+2}}dz-frac{1}{2pi i}oint_{left|zright|=1}frac{1}{z^{k+2}}dz
$$ and so usign again $(1)$ we have $$sum_{t=0}^{n}dbinom{t}{k}=dbinom{n+1}{k+1}-0=color{red}{dbinom{n+1}{k+1}.}$$
answered Jul 5 '16 at 10:13
Marco CantariniMarco Cantarini
29.1k23373
29.1k23373
2
$begingroup$
It is so nice and weird. +1
$endgroup$
– Behrouz Maleki
Jul 5 '16 at 10:27
$begingroup$
+1. Nice work. You must subtract $displaystyle{delta_{k,-1}}$ in order to take account of the case $displaystyle{k = -1}$. When $displaystyle{k = -1}$, the LHS is equal to $displaystyle{0}$ and your RHS is equal to $displaystyle{1}$. With the $displaystyle{delta_{k,-1}}$ you'll get $displaystyle{1 - 1 = 0}$.
$endgroup$
– Felix Marin
Jul 6 '16 at 21:50
add a comment |
2
$begingroup$
It is so nice and weird. +1
$endgroup$
– Behrouz Maleki
Jul 5 '16 at 10:27
$begingroup$
+1. Nice work. You must subtract $displaystyle{delta_{k,-1}}$ in order to take account of the case $displaystyle{k = -1}$. When $displaystyle{k = -1}$, the LHS is equal to $displaystyle{0}$ and your RHS is equal to $displaystyle{1}$. With the $displaystyle{delta_{k,-1}}$ you'll get $displaystyle{1 - 1 = 0}$.
$endgroup$
– Felix Marin
Jul 6 '16 at 21:50
2
2
$begingroup$
It is so nice and weird. +1
$endgroup$
– Behrouz Maleki
Jul 5 '16 at 10:27
$begingroup$
It is so nice and weird. +1
$endgroup$
– Behrouz Maleki
Jul 5 '16 at 10:27
$begingroup$
+1. Nice work. You must subtract $displaystyle{delta_{k,-1}}$ in order to take account of the case $displaystyle{k = -1}$. When $displaystyle{k = -1}$, the LHS is equal to $displaystyle{0}$ and your RHS is equal to $displaystyle{1}$. With the $displaystyle{delta_{k,-1}}$ you'll get $displaystyle{1 - 1 = 0}$.
$endgroup$
– Felix Marin
Jul 6 '16 at 21:50
$begingroup$
+1. Nice work. You must subtract $displaystyle{delta_{k,-1}}$ in order to take account of the case $displaystyle{k = -1}$. When $displaystyle{k = -1}$, the LHS is equal to $displaystyle{0}$ and your RHS is equal to $displaystyle{1}$. With the $displaystyle{delta_{k,-1}}$ you'll get $displaystyle{1 - 1 = 0}$.
$endgroup$
– Felix Marin
Jul 6 '16 at 21:50
add a comment |
$begingroup$
You remember that:
$$
(1+x)^m = sum_k binom{m}{k} x^k
$$
So the sum
$$
sum_{m=0}^M binom{m+k}{k}
$$
is the coefficient of $ x^k $ in:
$$
sum_{m=0}^M (1+x)^{m+k}
$$ Yes?
So now use the geometric series formula given:
$$
sum_{m=0}^M (1+x)^{m+k} = -frac{(1+x)^k}{x} left( 1 - (1+x)^{M+1} right)
$$
And now you want to know what is coefficient of $x^k $ in there. You got it from here.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
You remember that:
$$
(1+x)^m = sum_k binom{m}{k} x^k
$$
So the sum
$$
sum_{m=0}^M binom{m+k}{k}
$$
is the coefficient of $ x^k $ in:
$$
sum_{m=0}^M (1+x)^{m+k}
$$ Yes?
So now use the geometric series formula given:
$$
sum_{m=0}^M (1+x)^{m+k} = -frac{(1+x)^k}{x} left( 1 - (1+x)^{M+1} right)
$$
And now you want to know what is coefficient of $x^k $ in there. You got it from here.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
You remember that:
$$
(1+x)^m = sum_k binom{m}{k} x^k
$$
So the sum
$$
sum_{m=0}^M binom{m+k}{k}
$$
is the coefficient of $ x^k $ in:
$$
sum_{m=0}^M (1+x)^{m+k}
$$ Yes?
So now use the geometric series formula given:
$$
sum_{m=0}^M (1+x)^{m+k} = -frac{(1+x)^k}{x} left( 1 - (1+x)^{M+1} right)
$$
And now you want to know what is coefficient of $x^k $ in there. You got it from here.
$endgroup$
You remember that:
$$
(1+x)^m = sum_k binom{m}{k} x^k
$$
So the sum
$$
sum_{m=0}^M binom{m+k}{k}
$$
is the coefficient of $ x^k $ in:
$$
sum_{m=0}^M (1+x)^{m+k}
$$ Yes?
So now use the geometric series formula given:
$$
sum_{m=0}^M (1+x)^{m+k} = -frac{(1+x)^k}{x} left( 1 - (1+x)^{M+1} right)
$$
And now you want to know what is coefficient of $x^k $ in there. You got it from here.
answered May 22 '13 at 2:39
user78883user78883
411
411
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
In this answer, I prove the identity
$$
binom{-n}{k}=(-1)^kbinom{n+k-1}{k}tag{1}
$$
Here is a generalization of the identity in question, proven using the Vandermonde Identity
$$
begin{align}
sum_{m=0}^Mbinom{m+k}{k}binom{M-m}{n}
&=sum_{m=0}^Mbinom{m+k}{m}binom{M-m}{M-m-n}tag{2}\
&=sum_{m=0}^M(-1)^mbinom{-k-1}{m}(-1)^{M-m-n}binom{-n-1}{M-m-n}tag{3}\
&=(-1)^{M-n}sum_{m=0}^Mbinom{-k-1}{m}binom{-n-1}{M-m-n}tag{4}\
&=(-1)^{M-n}binom{-k-n-2}{M-n}tag{5}\
&=binom{M+k+1}{M-n}tag{6}\
&=binom{M+k+1}{n+k+1}tag{7}
end{align}
$$
Explanation:
$(2)$: $binom{n}{k}=binom{n}{n-k}$
$(3)$: apply $(1)$ to each binomial coefficient
$(4)$: combine the powers of $-1$ which can then be pulled out front
$(5)$: apply Vandermonde
$(6)$: apply $(1)$
$(7)$: $binom{n}{k}=binom{n}{n-k}$
To get the identity in the question, set $n=0$.
$endgroup$
2
$begingroup$
@FoF: I have added a link here and answered your other question. Thanks for mentioning the difficulty.
$endgroup$
– robjohn♦
Dec 7 '13 at 12:33
1
$begingroup$
@FoF: That is the Vandermonde Identity that I mentioned at the beginning.
$endgroup$
– robjohn♦
Dec 8 '13 at 18:56
1
$begingroup$
@FoF: I added an explanation for each line.
$endgroup$
– robjohn♦
Dec 9 '13 at 2:20
1
$begingroup$
I answered my own question about $(5, 6$) here.
$endgroup$
– NaN
Dec 10 '13 at 8:54
1
$begingroup$
@FoF: Ah. That is why I added the Explanation when I saw difficulty in following the argument.
$endgroup$
– robjohn♦
Dec 11 '13 at 7:46
|
show 6 more comments
$begingroup$
In this answer, I prove the identity
$$
binom{-n}{k}=(-1)^kbinom{n+k-1}{k}tag{1}
$$
Here is a generalization of the identity in question, proven using the Vandermonde Identity
$$
begin{align}
sum_{m=0}^Mbinom{m+k}{k}binom{M-m}{n}
&=sum_{m=0}^Mbinom{m+k}{m}binom{M-m}{M-m-n}tag{2}\
&=sum_{m=0}^M(-1)^mbinom{-k-1}{m}(-1)^{M-m-n}binom{-n-1}{M-m-n}tag{3}\
&=(-1)^{M-n}sum_{m=0}^Mbinom{-k-1}{m}binom{-n-1}{M-m-n}tag{4}\
&=(-1)^{M-n}binom{-k-n-2}{M-n}tag{5}\
&=binom{M+k+1}{M-n}tag{6}\
&=binom{M+k+1}{n+k+1}tag{7}
end{align}
$$
Explanation:
$(2)$: $binom{n}{k}=binom{n}{n-k}$
$(3)$: apply $(1)$ to each binomial coefficient
$(4)$: combine the powers of $-1$ which can then be pulled out front
$(5)$: apply Vandermonde
$(6)$: apply $(1)$
$(7)$: $binom{n}{k}=binom{n}{n-k}$
To get the identity in the question, set $n=0$.
$endgroup$
2
$begingroup$
@FoF: I have added a link here and answered your other question. Thanks for mentioning the difficulty.
$endgroup$
– robjohn♦
Dec 7 '13 at 12:33
1
$begingroup$
@FoF: That is the Vandermonde Identity that I mentioned at the beginning.
$endgroup$
– robjohn♦
Dec 8 '13 at 18:56
1
$begingroup$
@FoF: I added an explanation for each line.
$endgroup$
– robjohn♦
Dec 9 '13 at 2:20
1
$begingroup$
I answered my own question about $(5, 6$) here.
$endgroup$
– NaN
Dec 10 '13 at 8:54
1
$begingroup$
@FoF: Ah. That is why I added the Explanation when I saw difficulty in following the argument.
$endgroup$
– robjohn♦
Dec 11 '13 at 7:46
|
show 6 more comments
$begingroup$
In this answer, I prove the identity
$$
binom{-n}{k}=(-1)^kbinom{n+k-1}{k}tag{1}
$$
Here is a generalization of the identity in question, proven using the Vandermonde Identity
$$
begin{align}
sum_{m=0}^Mbinom{m+k}{k}binom{M-m}{n}
&=sum_{m=0}^Mbinom{m+k}{m}binom{M-m}{M-m-n}tag{2}\
&=sum_{m=0}^M(-1)^mbinom{-k-1}{m}(-1)^{M-m-n}binom{-n-1}{M-m-n}tag{3}\
&=(-1)^{M-n}sum_{m=0}^Mbinom{-k-1}{m}binom{-n-1}{M-m-n}tag{4}\
&=(-1)^{M-n}binom{-k-n-2}{M-n}tag{5}\
&=binom{M+k+1}{M-n}tag{6}\
&=binom{M+k+1}{n+k+1}tag{7}
end{align}
$$
Explanation:
$(2)$: $binom{n}{k}=binom{n}{n-k}$
$(3)$: apply $(1)$ to each binomial coefficient
$(4)$: combine the powers of $-1$ which can then be pulled out front
$(5)$: apply Vandermonde
$(6)$: apply $(1)$
$(7)$: $binom{n}{k}=binom{n}{n-k}$
To get the identity in the question, set $n=0$.
$endgroup$
In this answer, I prove the identity
$$
binom{-n}{k}=(-1)^kbinom{n+k-1}{k}tag{1}
$$
Here is a generalization of the identity in question, proven using the Vandermonde Identity
$$
begin{align}
sum_{m=0}^Mbinom{m+k}{k}binom{M-m}{n}
&=sum_{m=0}^Mbinom{m+k}{m}binom{M-m}{M-m-n}tag{2}\
&=sum_{m=0}^M(-1)^mbinom{-k-1}{m}(-1)^{M-m-n}binom{-n-1}{M-m-n}tag{3}\
&=(-1)^{M-n}sum_{m=0}^Mbinom{-k-1}{m}binom{-n-1}{M-m-n}tag{4}\
&=(-1)^{M-n}binom{-k-n-2}{M-n}tag{5}\
&=binom{M+k+1}{M-n}tag{6}\
&=binom{M+k+1}{n+k+1}tag{7}
end{align}
$$
Explanation:
$(2)$: $binom{n}{k}=binom{n}{n-k}$
$(3)$: apply $(1)$ to each binomial coefficient
$(4)$: combine the powers of $-1$ which can then be pulled out front
$(5)$: apply Vandermonde
$(6)$: apply $(1)$
$(7)$: $binom{n}{k}=binom{n}{n-k}$
To get the identity in the question, set $n=0$.
edited Apr 13 '17 at 12:19
Community♦
1
1
answered May 22 '13 at 13:13
robjohn♦robjohn
267k27308632
267k27308632
2
$begingroup$
@FoF: I have added a link here and answered your other question. Thanks for mentioning the difficulty.
$endgroup$
– robjohn♦
Dec 7 '13 at 12:33
1
$begingroup$
@FoF: That is the Vandermonde Identity that I mentioned at the beginning.
$endgroup$
– robjohn♦
Dec 8 '13 at 18:56
1
$begingroup$
@FoF: I added an explanation for each line.
$endgroup$
– robjohn♦
Dec 9 '13 at 2:20
1
$begingroup$
I answered my own question about $(5, 6$) here.
$endgroup$
– NaN
Dec 10 '13 at 8:54
1
$begingroup$
@FoF: Ah. That is why I added the Explanation when I saw difficulty in following the argument.
$endgroup$
– robjohn♦
Dec 11 '13 at 7:46
|
show 6 more comments
2
$begingroup$
@FoF: I have added a link here and answered your other question. Thanks for mentioning the difficulty.
$endgroup$
– robjohn♦
Dec 7 '13 at 12:33
1
$begingroup$
@FoF: That is the Vandermonde Identity that I mentioned at the beginning.
$endgroup$
– robjohn♦
Dec 8 '13 at 18:56
1
$begingroup$
@FoF: I added an explanation for each line.
$endgroup$
– robjohn♦
Dec 9 '13 at 2:20
1
$begingroup$
I answered my own question about $(5, 6$) here.
$endgroup$
– NaN
Dec 10 '13 at 8:54
1
$begingroup$
@FoF: Ah. That is why I added the Explanation when I saw difficulty in following the argument.
$endgroup$
– robjohn♦
Dec 11 '13 at 7:46
2
2
$begingroup$
@FoF: I have added a link here and answered your other question. Thanks for mentioning the difficulty.
$endgroup$
– robjohn♦
Dec 7 '13 at 12:33
$begingroup$
@FoF: I have added a link here and answered your other question. Thanks for mentioning the difficulty.
$endgroup$
– robjohn♦
Dec 7 '13 at 12:33
1
1
$begingroup$
@FoF: That is the Vandermonde Identity that I mentioned at the beginning.
$endgroup$
– robjohn♦
Dec 8 '13 at 18:56
$begingroup$
@FoF: That is the Vandermonde Identity that I mentioned at the beginning.
$endgroup$
– robjohn♦
Dec 8 '13 at 18:56
1
1
$begingroup$
@FoF: I added an explanation for each line.
$endgroup$
– robjohn♦
Dec 9 '13 at 2:20
$begingroup$
@FoF: I added an explanation for each line.
$endgroup$
– robjohn♦
Dec 9 '13 at 2:20
1
1
$begingroup$
I answered my own question about $(5, 6$) here.
$endgroup$
– NaN
Dec 10 '13 at 8:54
$begingroup$
I answered my own question about $(5, 6$) here.
$endgroup$
– NaN
Dec 10 '13 at 8:54
1
1
$begingroup$
@FoF: Ah. That is why I added the Explanation when I saw difficulty in following the argument.
$endgroup$
– robjohn♦
Dec 11 '13 at 7:46
$begingroup$
@FoF: Ah. That is why I added the Explanation when I saw difficulty in following the argument.
$endgroup$
– robjohn♦
Dec 11 '13 at 7:46
|
show 6 more comments
$begingroup$
Recall that for $kinBbb N$ we have the generating function
$$sum_{nge 0}binom{n+k}kx^n=frac1{(1-x)^{k+1}};.$$
The identity in the question can therefore be rewritten as
$$left(sum_{nge 0}binom{n+k}kx^nright)left(sum_{nge 0}x^nright)=sum_{nge 0}binom{n+k+1}{k+1}x^n;.$$
The coefficient of $x^n$ in the product on the left is
$$sum_{i=0}^nbinom{i+k}kcdot1=sum_{i=0}^nbinom{i+k}k;,$$
and the $n$-th term of the discrete convolution of the sequences $leftlanglebinom{n+k}k:ninBbb Nrightrangle$ and $langle 1,1,1,dotsrangle$. And at this point you’re practically done.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Is there a typo in the second equation (first sum)? I believe $k$ should be indexed.
$endgroup$
– AlanH
May 27 '13 at 6:20
$begingroup$
@Alan: No, the sum is over $n$; $k$ is fixed throughout.
$endgroup$
– Brian M. Scott
May 27 '13 at 7:19
$begingroup$
In my text, I have an identity $sum_{rgeq 0} binom{r + n}{r} x^r = 1/(1-x)^{n+1}$ This may be the cause of my confusion, but is this identity correct and is it equivalent to the one you used?
$endgroup$
– AlanH
May 27 '13 at 8:22
$begingroup$
@Alan: Sure: your $r$ is my $n$, and your $n$ is my $k$.
$endgroup$
– Brian M. Scott
May 27 '13 at 8:28
1
$begingroup$
@Alan: $binom{r+n}r=binom{r+n}n$; now do the translation. (Sorry: I didn’t notice before that you’d used the symmetrically opposite binomial coefficient.)
$endgroup$
– Brian M. Scott
May 27 '13 at 19:19
|
show 1 more comment
$begingroup$
Recall that for $kinBbb N$ we have the generating function
$$sum_{nge 0}binom{n+k}kx^n=frac1{(1-x)^{k+1}};.$$
The identity in the question can therefore be rewritten as
$$left(sum_{nge 0}binom{n+k}kx^nright)left(sum_{nge 0}x^nright)=sum_{nge 0}binom{n+k+1}{k+1}x^n;.$$
The coefficient of $x^n$ in the product on the left is
$$sum_{i=0}^nbinom{i+k}kcdot1=sum_{i=0}^nbinom{i+k}k;,$$
and the $n$-th term of the discrete convolution of the sequences $leftlanglebinom{n+k}k:ninBbb Nrightrangle$ and $langle 1,1,1,dotsrangle$. And at this point you’re practically done.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Is there a typo in the second equation (first sum)? I believe $k$ should be indexed.
$endgroup$
– AlanH
May 27 '13 at 6:20
$begingroup$
@Alan: No, the sum is over $n$; $k$ is fixed throughout.
$endgroup$
– Brian M. Scott
May 27 '13 at 7:19
$begingroup$
In my text, I have an identity $sum_{rgeq 0} binom{r + n}{r} x^r = 1/(1-x)^{n+1}$ This may be the cause of my confusion, but is this identity correct and is it equivalent to the one you used?
$endgroup$
– AlanH
May 27 '13 at 8:22
$begingroup$
@Alan: Sure: your $r$ is my $n$, and your $n$ is my $k$.
$endgroup$
– Brian M. Scott
May 27 '13 at 8:28
1
$begingroup$
@Alan: $binom{r+n}r=binom{r+n}n$; now do the translation. (Sorry: I didn’t notice before that you’d used the symmetrically opposite binomial coefficient.)
$endgroup$
– Brian M. Scott
May 27 '13 at 19:19
|
show 1 more comment
$begingroup$
Recall that for $kinBbb N$ we have the generating function
$$sum_{nge 0}binom{n+k}kx^n=frac1{(1-x)^{k+1}};.$$
The identity in the question can therefore be rewritten as
$$left(sum_{nge 0}binom{n+k}kx^nright)left(sum_{nge 0}x^nright)=sum_{nge 0}binom{n+k+1}{k+1}x^n;.$$
The coefficient of $x^n$ in the product on the left is
$$sum_{i=0}^nbinom{i+k}kcdot1=sum_{i=0}^nbinom{i+k}k;,$$
and the $n$-th term of the discrete convolution of the sequences $leftlanglebinom{n+k}k:ninBbb Nrightrangle$ and $langle 1,1,1,dotsrangle$. And at this point you’re practically done.
$endgroup$
Recall that for $kinBbb N$ we have the generating function
$$sum_{nge 0}binom{n+k}kx^n=frac1{(1-x)^{k+1}};.$$
The identity in the question can therefore be rewritten as
$$left(sum_{nge 0}binom{n+k}kx^nright)left(sum_{nge 0}x^nright)=sum_{nge 0}binom{n+k+1}{k+1}x^n;.$$
The coefficient of $x^n$ in the product on the left is
$$sum_{i=0}^nbinom{i+k}kcdot1=sum_{i=0}^nbinom{i+k}k;,$$
and the $n$-th term of the discrete convolution of the sequences $leftlanglebinom{n+k}k:ninBbb Nrightrangle$ and $langle 1,1,1,dotsrangle$. And at this point you’re practically done.
answered May 22 '13 at 5:32
Brian M. ScottBrian M. Scott
457k38510909
457k38510909
$begingroup$
Is there a typo in the second equation (first sum)? I believe $k$ should be indexed.
$endgroup$
– AlanH
May 27 '13 at 6:20
$begingroup$
@Alan: No, the sum is over $n$; $k$ is fixed throughout.
$endgroup$
– Brian M. Scott
May 27 '13 at 7:19
$begingroup$
In my text, I have an identity $sum_{rgeq 0} binom{r + n}{r} x^r = 1/(1-x)^{n+1}$ This may be the cause of my confusion, but is this identity correct and is it equivalent to the one you used?
$endgroup$
– AlanH
May 27 '13 at 8:22
$begingroup$
@Alan: Sure: your $r$ is my $n$, and your $n$ is my $k$.
$endgroup$
– Brian M. Scott
May 27 '13 at 8:28
1
$begingroup$
@Alan: $binom{r+n}r=binom{r+n}n$; now do the translation. (Sorry: I didn’t notice before that you’d used the symmetrically opposite binomial coefficient.)
$endgroup$
– Brian M. Scott
May 27 '13 at 19:19
|
show 1 more comment
$begingroup$
Is there a typo in the second equation (first sum)? I believe $k$ should be indexed.
$endgroup$
– AlanH
May 27 '13 at 6:20
$begingroup$
@Alan: No, the sum is over $n$; $k$ is fixed throughout.
$endgroup$
– Brian M. Scott
May 27 '13 at 7:19
$begingroup$
In my text, I have an identity $sum_{rgeq 0} binom{r + n}{r} x^r = 1/(1-x)^{n+1}$ This may be the cause of my confusion, but is this identity correct and is it equivalent to the one you used?
$endgroup$
– AlanH
May 27 '13 at 8:22
$begingroup$
@Alan: Sure: your $r$ is my $n$, and your $n$ is my $k$.
$endgroup$
– Brian M. Scott
May 27 '13 at 8:28
1
$begingroup$
@Alan: $binom{r+n}r=binom{r+n}n$; now do the translation. (Sorry: I didn’t notice before that you’d used the symmetrically opposite binomial coefficient.)
$endgroup$
– Brian M. Scott
May 27 '13 at 19:19
$begingroup$
Is there a typo in the second equation (first sum)? I believe $k$ should be indexed.
$endgroup$
– AlanH
May 27 '13 at 6:20
$begingroup$
Is there a typo in the second equation (first sum)? I believe $k$ should be indexed.
$endgroup$
– AlanH
May 27 '13 at 6:20
$begingroup$
@Alan: No, the sum is over $n$; $k$ is fixed throughout.
$endgroup$
– Brian M. Scott
May 27 '13 at 7:19
$begingroup$
@Alan: No, the sum is over $n$; $k$ is fixed throughout.
$endgroup$
– Brian M. Scott
May 27 '13 at 7:19
$begingroup$
In my text, I have an identity $sum_{rgeq 0} binom{r + n}{r} x^r = 1/(1-x)^{n+1}$ This may be the cause of my confusion, but is this identity correct and is it equivalent to the one you used?
$endgroup$
– AlanH
May 27 '13 at 8:22
$begingroup$
In my text, I have an identity $sum_{rgeq 0} binom{r + n}{r} x^r = 1/(1-x)^{n+1}$ This may be the cause of my confusion, but is this identity correct and is it equivalent to the one you used?
$endgroup$
– AlanH
May 27 '13 at 8:22
$begingroup$
@Alan: Sure: your $r$ is my $n$, and your $n$ is my $k$.
$endgroup$
– Brian M. Scott
May 27 '13 at 8:28
$begingroup$
@Alan: Sure: your $r$ is my $n$, and your $n$ is my $k$.
$endgroup$
– Brian M. Scott
May 27 '13 at 8:28
1
1
$begingroup$
@Alan: $binom{r+n}r=binom{r+n}n$; now do the translation. (Sorry: I didn’t notice before that you’d used the symmetrically opposite binomial coefficient.)
$endgroup$
– Brian M. Scott
May 27 '13 at 19:19
$begingroup$
@Alan: $binom{r+n}r=binom{r+n}n$; now do the translation. (Sorry: I didn’t notice before that you’d used the symmetrically opposite binomial coefficient.)
$endgroup$
– Brian M. Scott
May 27 '13 at 19:19
|
show 1 more comment
$begingroup$
A standard technique to prove such identities $sum_{i=0}^Mf(i)=F(M)$, involving on one hand a sum where only the upper bound $M$ is variable and on the other hand an explicit expression in terms of$~M$, is to use induction on$~M$. It amounts to showing that $f(M)=F(M)-F(M-1)$ (and that $F(0)=f(0)$). This is similar to using the fundamental theorem of calculus in showing that $int_0^{x_0}f(x)mathrm dx=F(x_0)$ by establishing $f(x)=F'(x)$ (and $F(0)=0$).
So here you need to check (apart from the obvious starting case $M=0$) that $binom{M+k}k=binom{M+k+1}{k+1}-binom{M+k}{k+1}$. This is just in instance of Pascal's recurrence for binomial coefficients.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
A standard technique to prove such identities $sum_{i=0}^Mf(i)=F(M)$, involving on one hand a sum where only the upper bound $M$ is variable and on the other hand an explicit expression in terms of$~M$, is to use induction on$~M$. It amounts to showing that $f(M)=F(M)-F(M-1)$ (and that $F(0)=f(0)$). This is similar to using the fundamental theorem of calculus in showing that $int_0^{x_0}f(x)mathrm dx=F(x_0)$ by establishing $f(x)=F'(x)$ (and $F(0)=0$).
So here you need to check (apart from the obvious starting case $M=0$) that $binom{M+k}k=binom{M+k+1}{k+1}-binom{M+k}{k+1}$. This is just in instance of Pascal's recurrence for binomial coefficients.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
A standard technique to prove such identities $sum_{i=0}^Mf(i)=F(M)$, involving on one hand a sum where only the upper bound $M$ is variable and on the other hand an explicit expression in terms of$~M$, is to use induction on$~M$. It amounts to showing that $f(M)=F(M)-F(M-1)$ (and that $F(0)=f(0)$). This is similar to using the fundamental theorem of calculus in showing that $int_0^{x_0}f(x)mathrm dx=F(x_0)$ by establishing $f(x)=F'(x)$ (and $F(0)=0$).
So here you need to check (apart from the obvious starting case $M=0$) that $binom{M+k}k=binom{M+k+1}{k+1}-binom{M+k}{k+1}$. This is just in instance of Pascal's recurrence for binomial coefficients.
$endgroup$
A standard technique to prove such identities $sum_{i=0}^Mf(i)=F(M)$, involving on one hand a sum where only the upper bound $M$ is variable and on the other hand an explicit expression in terms of$~M$, is to use induction on$~M$. It amounts to showing that $f(M)=F(M)-F(M-1)$ (and that $F(0)=f(0)$). This is similar to using the fundamental theorem of calculus in showing that $int_0^{x_0}f(x)mathrm dx=F(x_0)$ by establishing $f(x)=F'(x)$ (and $F(0)=0$).
So here you need to check (apart from the obvious starting case $M=0$) that $binom{M+k}k=binom{M+k+1}{k+1}-binom{M+k}{k+1}$. This is just in instance of Pascal's recurrence for binomial coefficients.
edited Dec 23 '13 at 14:25
answered Dec 23 '13 at 11:46
Marc van LeeuwenMarc van Leeuwen
87.1k5108223
87.1k5108223
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
$newcommand{angles}[1]{leftlangle,{#1},rightrangle}
newcommand{braces}[1]{leftlbrace,{#1},rightrbrace}
newcommand{bracks}[1]{leftlbrack,{#1},rightrbrack}
newcommand{dd}{mathrm{d}}
newcommand{ds}[1]{displaystyle{#1}}
newcommand{expo}[1]{,mathrm{e}^{#1},}
newcommand{half}{{1 over 2}}
newcommand{ic}{mathrm{i}}
newcommand{iff}{Leftrightarrow}
newcommand{imp}{Longrightarrow}
newcommand{ol}[1]{overline{#1}}
newcommand{pars}[1]{left(,{#1},right)}
newcommand{partiald}[3]{frac{partial^{#1} #2}{partial #3^{#1}}}
newcommand{root}[2]{,sqrt[#1]{,{#2},},}
newcommand{totald}[3]{frac{mathrm{d}^{#1} #2}{mathrm{d} #3^{#1}}}
newcommand{verts}[1]{leftvert,{#1},rightvert}$
Assuming $ds{M geq 0}$:
begin{equation}
mbox{Note that}quad
sum_{m = 0}^{M}{m + k choose k} = sum_{m = k}^{M + k}{m choose k} =
a_{M + k} - a_{k - 1}quadmbox{where}quad a_{n} equiv
sum_{m = 0}^{n}{m choose k}tag{1}
end{equation}
Then,
begin{align}
color{#f00}{a_{n}} & equiv sum_{m = 0}^{n}{m choose k} =
sum_{m = 0}^{n} overbrace{%
oint_{verts{z} = 1}{pars{1 + z}^{m} over z^{k + 1}},{dd z over 2piic}}
^{ds{m choose k}} =
oint_{verts{z} = 1}{1 over z^{k + 1}}sum_{m = 0}^{n}pars{1 + z}^{m}
,{dd z over 2piic}
\[3mm] & =
oint_{verts{z} = 1}{1 over z^{k + 1}},
{pars{1 + z}^{n + 1} - 1 over pars{1 + z} - 1},{dd z over 2piic} =
underbrace{oint_{verts{z} = 1}{pars{1 + z}^{n + 1} over z^{k + 2}}
,{dd z over 2piic}}_{ds{n + 1 choose k + 1}} -
underbrace{oint_{verts{z} = 1}{1 over z^{k + 2}},{dd z over 2piic}}
_{ds{delta_{k + 2,1}}}
\[8mm] imp color{#f00}{a_{n}} & = fbox{$ds{quad%
{n + 1 choose k + 1} - delta_{k,-1}quad}$}
end{align}
begin{align}
mbox{With} pars{1},,quad
color{#f00}{sum_{m = 0}^{M}{m + k choose k}} & =
bracks{{M + k + 1 choose k + 1} - delta_{k,-1}} -
bracks{{k choose k + 1} - delta_{k,-1}}
\[3mm] & =
{M + k + 1 choose k + 1} - {k choose k + 1}
end{align}
Thanks to $ds{@robjohn}$ user who pointed out the following feature:
$$
{k choose k + 1} = {-k + k + 1 - 1 choose k + 1}pars{-1}^{k + 1} =
-pars{-1}^{k}{0 choose k + 1} = delta_{k,-1}
$$
such that
$$
begin{array}{|c|}hlinembox{}\
ds{quadcolor{#f00}{sum_{m = 0}^{M}{m + k choose k}} =
color{#f00}{{M + k + 1 choose k + 1} - delta_{k,-1}}quad}
\ mbox{}\ hline
end{array}
$$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Since $k=-1$ is covered in the first part, it should be noted that since $binom{-1}{0}=1$, $$binom{k}{k+1}-delta_{k,-1}=0$$ therefore the final answer seems it should be $$binom{M+k+1}{k+1}-delta_{k,-1}$$
$endgroup$
– robjohn♦
Jul 25 '16 at 13:00
$begingroup$
@robjohn Thanks. I'm checking everything right now.
$endgroup$
– Felix Marin
Jul 25 '16 at 21:48
$begingroup$
@robjohn Thanks. Fixed.
$endgroup$
– Felix Marin
Jul 25 '16 at 22:09
add a comment |
$begingroup$
$newcommand{angles}[1]{leftlangle,{#1},rightrangle}
newcommand{braces}[1]{leftlbrace,{#1},rightrbrace}
newcommand{bracks}[1]{leftlbrack,{#1},rightrbrack}
newcommand{dd}{mathrm{d}}
newcommand{ds}[1]{displaystyle{#1}}
newcommand{expo}[1]{,mathrm{e}^{#1},}
newcommand{half}{{1 over 2}}
newcommand{ic}{mathrm{i}}
newcommand{iff}{Leftrightarrow}
newcommand{imp}{Longrightarrow}
newcommand{ol}[1]{overline{#1}}
newcommand{pars}[1]{left(,{#1},right)}
newcommand{partiald}[3]{frac{partial^{#1} #2}{partial #3^{#1}}}
newcommand{root}[2]{,sqrt[#1]{,{#2},},}
newcommand{totald}[3]{frac{mathrm{d}^{#1} #2}{mathrm{d} #3^{#1}}}
newcommand{verts}[1]{leftvert,{#1},rightvert}$
Assuming $ds{M geq 0}$:
begin{equation}
mbox{Note that}quad
sum_{m = 0}^{M}{m + k choose k} = sum_{m = k}^{M + k}{m choose k} =
a_{M + k} - a_{k - 1}quadmbox{where}quad a_{n} equiv
sum_{m = 0}^{n}{m choose k}tag{1}
end{equation}
Then,
begin{align}
color{#f00}{a_{n}} & equiv sum_{m = 0}^{n}{m choose k} =
sum_{m = 0}^{n} overbrace{%
oint_{verts{z} = 1}{pars{1 + z}^{m} over z^{k + 1}},{dd z over 2piic}}
^{ds{m choose k}} =
oint_{verts{z} = 1}{1 over z^{k + 1}}sum_{m = 0}^{n}pars{1 + z}^{m}
,{dd z over 2piic}
\[3mm] & =
oint_{verts{z} = 1}{1 over z^{k + 1}},
{pars{1 + z}^{n + 1} - 1 over pars{1 + z} - 1},{dd z over 2piic} =
underbrace{oint_{verts{z} = 1}{pars{1 + z}^{n + 1} over z^{k + 2}}
,{dd z over 2piic}}_{ds{n + 1 choose k + 1}} -
underbrace{oint_{verts{z} = 1}{1 over z^{k + 2}},{dd z over 2piic}}
_{ds{delta_{k + 2,1}}}
\[8mm] imp color{#f00}{a_{n}} & = fbox{$ds{quad%
{n + 1 choose k + 1} - delta_{k,-1}quad}$}
end{align}
begin{align}
mbox{With} pars{1},,quad
color{#f00}{sum_{m = 0}^{M}{m + k choose k}} & =
bracks{{M + k + 1 choose k + 1} - delta_{k,-1}} -
bracks{{k choose k + 1} - delta_{k,-1}}
\[3mm] & =
{M + k + 1 choose k + 1} - {k choose k + 1}
end{align}
Thanks to $ds{@robjohn}$ user who pointed out the following feature:
$$
{k choose k + 1} = {-k + k + 1 - 1 choose k + 1}pars{-1}^{k + 1} =
-pars{-1}^{k}{0 choose k + 1} = delta_{k,-1}
$$
such that
$$
begin{array}{|c|}hlinembox{}\
ds{quadcolor{#f00}{sum_{m = 0}^{M}{m + k choose k}} =
color{#f00}{{M + k + 1 choose k + 1} - delta_{k,-1}}quad}
\ mbox{}\ hline
end{array}
$$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Since $k=-1$ is covered in the first part, it should be noted that since $binom{-1}{0}=1$, $$binom{k}{k+1}-delta_{k,-1}=0$$ therefore the final answer seems it should be $$binom{M+k+1}{k+1}-delta_{k,-1}$$
$endgroup$
– robjohn♦
Jul 25 '16 at 13:00
$begingroup$
@robjohn Thanks. I'm checking everything right now.
$endgroup$
– Felix Marin
Jul 25 '16 at 21:48
$begingroup$
@robjohn Thanks. Fixed.
$endgroup$
– Felix Marin
Jul 25 '16 at 22:09
add a comment |
$begingroup$
$newcommand{angles}[1]{leftlangle,{#1},rightrangle}
newcommand{braces}[1]{leftlbrace,{#1},rightrbrace}
newcommand{bracks}[1]{leftlbrack,{#1},rightrbrack}
newcommand{dd}{mathrm{d}}
newcommand{ds}[1]{displaystyle{#1}}
newcommand{expo}[1]{,mathrm{e}^{#1},}
newcommand{half}{{1 over 2}}
newcommand{ic}{mathrm{i}}
newcommand{iff}{Leftrightarrow}
newcommand{imp}{Longrightarrow}
newcommand{ol}[1]{overline{#1}}
newcommand{pars}[1]{left(,{#1},right)}
newcommand{partiald}[3]{frac{partial^{#1} #2}{partial #3^{#1}}}
newcommand{root}[2]{,sqrt[#1]{,{#2},},}
newcommand{totald}[3]{frac{mathrm{d}^{#1} #2}{mathrm{d} #3^{#1}}}
newcommand{verts}[1]{leftvert,{#1},rightvert}$
Assuming $ds{M geq 0}$:
begin{equation}
mbox{Note that}quad
sum_{m = 0}^{M}{m + k choose k} = sum_{m = k}^{M + k}{m choose k} =
a_{M + k} - a_{k - 1}quadmbox{where}quad a_{n} equiv
sum_{m = 0}^{n}{m choose k}tag{1}
end{equation}
Then,
begin{align}
color{#f00}{a_{n}} & equiv sum_{m = 0}^{n}{m choose k} =
sum_{m = 0}^{n} overbrace{%
oint_{verts{z} = 1}{pars{1 + z}^{m} over z^{k + 1}},{dd z over 2piic}}
^{ds{m choose k}} =
oint_{verts{z} = 1}{1 over z^{k + 1}}sum_{m = 0}^{n}pars{1 + z}^{m}
,{dd z over 2piic}
\[3mm] & =
oint_{verts{z} = 1}{1 over z^{k + 1}},
{pars{1 + z}^{n + 1} - 1 over pars{1 + z} - 1},{dd z over 2piic} =
underbrace{oint_{verts{z} = 1}{pars{1 + z}^{n + 1} over z^{k + 2}}
,{dd z over 2piic}}_{ds{n + 1 choose k + 1}} -
underbrace{oint_{verts{z} = 1}{1 over z^{k + 2}},{dd z over 2piic}}
_{ds{delta_{k + 2,1}}}
\[8mm] imp color{#f00}{a_{n}} & = fbox{$ds{quad%
{n + 1 choose k + 1} - delta_{k,-1}quad}$}
end{align}
begin{align}
mbox{With} pars{1},,quad
color{#f00}{sum_{m = 0}^{M}{m + k choose k}} & =
bracks{{M + k + 1 choose k + 1} - delta_{k,-1}} -
bracks{{k choose k + 1} - delta_{k,-1}}
\[3mm] & =
{M + k + 1 choose k + 1} - {k choose k + 1}
end{align}
Thanks to $ds{@robjohn}$ user who pointed out the following feature:
$$
{k choose k + 1} = {-k + k + 1 - 1 choose k + 1}pars{-1}^{k + 1} =
-pars{-1}^{k}{0 choose k + 1} = delta_{k,-1}
$$
such that
$$
begin{array}{|c|}hlinembox{}\
ds{quadcolor{#f00}{sum_{m = 0}^{M}{m + k choose k}} =
color{#f00}{{M + k + 1 choose k + 1} - delta_{k,-1}}quad}
\ mbox{}\ hline
end{array}
$$
$endgroup$
$newcommand{angles}[1]{leftlangle,{#1},rightrangle}
newcommand{braces}[1]{leftlbrace,{#1},rightrbrace}
newcommand{bracks}[1]{leftlbrack,{#1},rightrbrack}
newcommand{dd}{mathrm{d}}
newcommand{ds}[1]{displaystyle{#1}}
newcommand{expo}[1]{,mathrm{e}^{#1},}
newcommand{half}{{1 over 2}}
newcommand{ic}{mathrm{i}}
newcommand{iff}{Leftrightarrow}
newcommand{imp}{Longrightarrow}
newcommand{ol}[1]{overline{#1}}
newcommand{pars}[1]{left(,{#1},right)}
newcommand{partiald}[3]{frac{partial^{#1} #2}{partial #3^{#1}}}
newcommand{root}[2]{,sqrt[#1]{,{#2},},}
newcommand{totald}[3]{frac{mathrm{d}^{#1} #2}{mathrm{d} #3^{#1}}}
newcommand{verts}[1]{leftvert,{#1},rightvert}$
Assuming $ds{M geq 0}$:
begin{equation}
mbox{Note that}quad
sum_{m = 0}^{M}{m + k choose k} = sum_{m = k}^{M + k}{m choose k} =
a_{M + k} - a_{k - 1}quadmbox{where}quad a_{n} equiv
sum_{m = 0}^{n}{m choose k}tag{1}
end{equation}
Then,
begin{align}
color{#f00}{a_{n}} & equiv sum_{m = 0}^{n}{m choose k} =
sum_{m = 0}^{n} overbrace{%
oint_{verts{z} = 1}{pars{1 + z}^{m} over z^{k + 1}},{dd z over 2piic}}
^{ds{m choose k}} =
oint_{verts{z} = 1}{1 over z^{k + 1}}sum_{m = 0}^{n}pars{1 + z}^{m}
,{dd z over 2piic}
\[3mm] & =
oint_{verts{z} = 1}{1 over z^{k + 1}},
{pars{1 + z}^{n + 1} - 1 over pars{1 + z} - 1},{dd z over 2piic} =
underbrace{oint_{verts{z} = 1}{pars{1 + z}^{n + 1} over z^{k + 2}}
,{dd z over 2piic}}_{ds{n + 1 choose k + 1}} -
underbrace{oint_{verts{z} = 1}{1 over z^{k + 2}},{dd z over 2piic}}
_{ds{delta_{k + 2,1}}}
\[8mm] imp color{#f00}{a_{n}} & = fbox{$ds{quad%
{n + 1 choose k + 1} - delta_{k,-1}quad}$}
end{align}
begin{align}
mbox{With} pars{1},,quad
color{#f00}{sum_{m = 0}^{M}{m + k choose k}} & =
bracks{{M + k + 1 choose k + 1} - delta_{k,-1}} -
bracks{{k choose k + 1} - delta_{k,-1}}
\[3mm] & =
{M + k + 1 choose k + 1} - {k choose k + 1}
end{align}
Thanks to $ds{@robjohn}$ user who pointed out the following feature:
$$
{k choose k + 1} = {-k + k + 1 - 1 choose k + 1}pars{-1}^{k + 1} =
-pars{-1}^{k}{0 choose k + 1} = delta_{k,-1}
$$
such that
$$
begin{array}{|c|}hlinembox{}\
ds{quadcolor{#f00}{sum_{m = 0}^{M}{m + k choose k}} =
color{#f00}{{M + k + 1 choose k + 1} - delta_{k,-1}}quad}
\ mbox{}\ hline
end{array}
$$
edited Jul 25 '16 at 22:09
answered Jun 25 '16 at 4:10
Felix MarinFelix Marin
67.9k7107142
67.9k7107142
$begingroup$
Since $k=-1$ is covered in the first part, it should be noted that since $binom{-1}{0}=1$, $$binom{k}{k+1}-delta_{k,-1}=0$$ therefore the final answer seems it should be $$binom{M+k+1}{k+1}-delta_{k,-1}$$
$endgroup$
– robjohn♦
Jul 25 '16 at 13:00
$begingroup$
@robjohn Thanks. I'm checking everything right now.
$endgroup$
– Felix Marin
Jul 25 '16 at 21:48
$begingroup$
@robjohn Thanks. Fixed.
$endgroup$
– Felix Marin
Jul 25 '16 at 22:09
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Since $k=-1$ is covered in the first part, it should be noted that since $binom{-1}{0}=1$, $$binom{k}{k+1}-delta_{k,-1}=0$$ therefore the final answer seems it should be $$binom{M+k+1}{k+1}-delta_{k,-1}$$
$endgroup$
– robjohn♦
Jul 25 '16 at 13:00
$begingroup$
@robjohn Thanks. I'm checking everything right now.
$endgroup$
– Felix Marin
Jul 25 '16 at 21:48
$begingroup$
@robjohn Thanks. Fixed.
$endgroup$
– Felix Marin
Jul 25 '16 at 22:09
$begingroup$
Since $k=-1$ is covered in the first part, it should be noted that since $binom{-1}{0}=1$, $$binom{k}{k+1}-delta_{k,-1}=0$$ therefore the final answer seems it should be $$binom{M+k+1}{k+1}-delta_{k,-1}$$
$endgroup$
– robjohn♦
Jul 25 '16 at 13:00
$begingroup$
Since $k=-1$ is covered in the first part, it should be noted that since $binom{-1}{0}=1$, $$binom{k}{k+1}-delta_{k,-1}=0$$ therefore the final answer seems it should be $$binom{M+k+1}{k+1}-delta_{k,-1}$$
$endgroup$
– robjohn♦
Jul 25 '16 at 13:00
$begingroup$
@robjohn Thanks. I'm checking everything right now.
$endgroup$
– Felix Marin
Jul 25 '16 at 21:48
$begingroup$
@robjohn Thanks. I'm checking everything right now.
$endgroup$
– Felix Marin
Jul 25 '16 at 21:48
$begingroup$
@robjohn Thanks. Fixed.
$endgroup$
– Felix Marin
Jul 25 '16 at 22:09
$begingroup$
@robjohn Thanks. Fixed.
$endgroup$
– Felix Marin
Jul 25 '16 at 22:09
add a comment |
Thanks for contributing an answer to Mathematics Stack Exchange!
- Please be sure to answer the question. Provide details and share your research!
But avoid …
- Asking for help, clarification, or responding to other answers.
- Making statements based on opinion; back them up with references or personal experience.
Use MathJax to format equations. MathJax reference.
To learn more, see our tips on writing great answers.
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function () {
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
});
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
Required, but never shown
StackExchange.ready(
function () {
StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f1490794%2fproof-of-the-hockey-stick-identity-sum-limits-t-0n-binom-tk-binomn1%23new-answer', 'question_page');
}
);
Post as a guest
Required, but never shown
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function () {
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
});
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
Required, but never shown
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function () {
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
});
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
Required, but never shown
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function () {
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
});
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
Required, but never shown
6
$begingroup$
It is sometimes called the "hockey stick".
$endgroup$
– user940
Oct 21 '15 at 15:24
$begingroup$
There is another cute graphical illustration on the plane of $binom{n}{k}$
$endgroup$
– Eli Korvigo
Oct 21 '15 at 16:54
4
$begingroup$
It's pretty straightforward from the picture. Just switch the $1$ at the top of the stick with the $1$ directly below, then repeatedly replace adjacent numbers with the number in the cell below. This can be translated into a formal proof with words and symbols, but an animation or series of pictures is much more effective.
$endgroup$
– user2357112
Oct 22 '15 at 3:24
$begingroup$
See also this question. Some post which are linked there might be of interest, too.
$endgroup$
– Martin Sleziak
Jan 18 '16 at 15:05