One point compactification. (Pushout)











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2
down vote

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I apologize in advance for the formatting. I am new to commutative diagrams in latex.



Let $V$ and $W$ be finite dimensional vector spaces over $mathbb{R}$, with the pushout



$require{AMScd}$
begin{CD}
(V^{infty}times {infty})cup({infty}times W^{infty}) @>{}>> V^{infty}times W^{infty}\
@VVV @VVV\
{infty} @>{}>> Y
end{CD}



Show that $(Vtimes W)^{infty}$ is homeomorphic to Y



Here $"infty"$ denotes the 1-point compactification of a set




Previously, we proved a few remarks about pushouts.



If $X$ and $B$ are topological spaces and $Asubset B$ a closed subspace with inclusion function $alpha:Arightarrow B$, and continuous mapping $f:Arightarrow X$.



We define the equivalence relation "$sim$" on $Xcoprod B$ as $inc_Xcirc f(a)sim inc_Bcircalpha(a)$ for each $ain A$. We thus define $Y:=(Xcoprod Y)/sim$ (quotient space).



It was shown (universal property of the pushout) that given a commuting diagram marked in the below picture of solid maps/arrows, there exists a unique mapping $g:Yrightarrow W$, which makes the whole diagram commutative.



I want to somehow use this property (I think) to show there exists a homoemorphism $h$ from $Y$ to $(Vtimes W)^{infty}$



I honestly have no clue how to approach this problem, and would appreciate a hint or two to guide me in the right direction. Any help would be much appreciated!



Universal property of the pushout (picture)










share|cite|improve this question






















  • Pushouts are unique. So all you have to do is to show that you can use $(Vtimes W)^{infty}$ instead of $Y$ to obtain pushout. If you can then they have to be isomorphic in the given category. In case of topological spaces it means homeomorphic.
    – freakish
    Nov 20 at 9:03










  • Also this depends on what the upper arrow is. Is that inclusion? Note that this depends on the left arrow as well, but in this case there's no choice.
    – freakish
    Nov 20 at 10:15












  • My apologies, the upper arrow is the inclusion map, the right arrow is the quotient map, the left arrow is the continuous function f.
    – Math is Life
    Nov 20 at 10:16















up vote
2
down vote

favorite













I apologize in advance for the formatting. I am new to commutative diagrams in latex.



Let $V$ and $W$ be finite dimensional vector spaces over $mathbb{R}$, with the pushout



$require{AMScd}$
begin{CD}
(V^{infty}times {infty})cup({infty}times W^{infty}) @>{}>> V^{infty}times W^{infty}\
@VVV @VVV\
{infty} @>{}>> Y
end{CD}



Show that $(Vtimes W)^{infty}$ is homeomorphic to Y



Here $"infty"$ denotes the 1-point compactification of a set




Previously, we proved a few remarks about pushouts.



If $X$ and $B$ are topological spaces and $Asubset B$ a closed subspace with inclusion function $alpha:Arightarrow B$, and continuous mapping $f:Arightarrow X$.



We define the equivalence relation "$sim$" on $Xcoprod B$ as $inc_Xcirc f(a)sim inc_Bcircalpha(a)$ for each $ain A$. We thus define $Y:=(Xcoprod Y)/sim$ (quotient space).



It was shown (universal property of the pushout) that given a commuting diagram marked in the below picture of solid maps/arrows, there exists a unique mapping $g:Yrightarrow W$, which makes the whole diagram commutative.



I want to somehow use this property (I think) to show there exists a homoemorphism $h$ from $Y$ to $(Vtimes W)^{infty}$



I honestly have no clue how to approach this problem, and would appreciate a hint or two to guide me in the right direction. Any help would be much appreciated!



Universal property of the pushout (picture)










share|cite|improve this question






















  • Pushouts are unique. So all you have to do is to show that you can use $(Vtimes W)^{infty}$ instead of $Y$ to obtain pushout. If you can then they have to be isomorphic in the given category. In case of topological spaces it means homeomorphic.
    – freakish
    Nov 20 at 9:03










  • Also this depends on what the upper arrow is. Is that inclusion? Note that this depends on the left arrow as well, but in this case there's no choice.
    – freakish
    Nov 20 at 10:15












  • My apologies, the upper arrow is the inclusion map, the right arrow is the quotient map, the left arrow is the continuous function f.
    – Math is Life
    Nov 20 at 10:16













up vote
2
down vote

favorite









up vote
2
down vote

favorite












I apologize in advance for the formatting. I am new to commutative diagrams in latex.



Let $V$ and $W$ be finite dimensional vector spaces over $mathbb{R}$, with the pushout



$require{AMScd}$
begin{CD}
(V^{infty}times {infty})cup({infty}times W^{infty}) @>{}>> V^{infty}times W^{infty}\
@VVV @VVV\
{infty} @>{}>> Y
end{CD}



Show that $(Vtimes W)^{infty}$ is homeomorphic to Y



Here $"infty"$ denotes the 1-point compactification of a set




Previously, we proved a few remarks about pushouts.



If $X$ and $B$ are topological spaces and $Asubset B$ a closed subspace with inclusion function $alpha:Arightarrow B$, and continuous mapping $f:Arightarrow X$.



We define the equivalence relation "$sim$" on $Xcoprod B$ as $inc_Xcirc f(a)sim inc_Bcircalpha(a)$ for each $ain A$. We thus define $Y:=(Xcoprod Y)/sim$ (quotient space).



It was shown (universal property of the pushout) that given a commuting diagram marked in the below picture of solid maps/arrows, there exists a unique mapping $g:Yrightarrow W$, which makes the whole diagram commutative.



I want to somehow use this property (I think) to show there exists a homoemorphism $h$ from $Y$ to $(Vtimes W)^{infty}$



I honestly have no clue how to approach this problem, and would appreciate a hint or two to guide me in the right direction. Any help would be much appreciated!



Universal property of the pushout (picture)










share|cite|improve this question














I apologize in advance for the formatting. I am new to commutative diagrams in latex.



Let $V$ and $W$ be finite dimensional vector spaces over $mathbb{R}$, with the pushout



$require{AMScd}$
begin{CD}
(V^{infty}times {infty})cup({infty}times W^{infty}) @>{}>> V^{infty}times W^{infty}\
@VVV @VVV\
{infty} @>{}>> Y
end{CD}



Show that $(Vtimes W)^{infty}$ is homeomorphic to Y



Here $"infty"$ denotes the 1-point compactification of a set




Previously, we proved a few remarks about pushouts.



If $X$ and $B$ are topological spaces and $Asubset B$ a closed subspace with inclusion function $alpha:Arightarrow B$, and continuous mapping $f:Arightarrow X$.



We define the equivalence relation "$sim$" on $Xcoprod B$ as $inc_Xcirc f(a)sim inc_Bcircalpha(a)$ for each $ain A$. We thus define $Y:=(Xcoprod Y)/sim$ (quotient space).



It was shown (universal property of the pushout) that given a commuting diagram marked in the below picture of solid maps/arrows, there exists a unique mapping $g:Yrightarrow W$, which makes the whole diagram commutative.



I want to somehow use this property (I think) to show there exists a homoemorphism $h$ from $Y$ to $(Vtimes W)^{infty}$



I honestly have no clue how to approach this problem, and would appreciate a hint or two to guide me in the right direction. Any help would be much appreciated!



Universal property of the pushout (picture)







general-topology






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asked Nov 20 at 8:01









Math is Life

574




574












  • Pushouts are unique. So all you have to do is to show that you can use $(Vtimes W)^{infty}$ instead of $Y$ to obtain pushout. If you can then they have to be isomorphic in the given category. In case of topological spaces it means homeomorphic.
    – freakish
    Nov 20 at 9:03










  • Also this depends on what the upper arrow is. Is that inclusion? Note that this depends on the left arrow as well, but in this case there's no choice.
    – freakish
    Nov 20 at 10:15












  • My apologies, the upper arrow is the inclusion map, the right arrow is the quotient map, the left arrow is the continuous function f.
    – Math is Life
    Nov 20 at 10:16


















  • Pushouts are unique. So all you have to do is to show that you can use $(Vtimes W)^{infty}$ instead of $Y$ to obtain pushout. If you can then they have to be isomorphic in the given category. In case of topological spaces it means homeomorphic.
    – freakish
    Nov 20 at 9:03










  • Also this depends on what the upper arrow is. Is that inclusion? Note that this depends on the left arrow as well, but in this case there's no choice.
    – freakish
    Nov 20 at 10:15












  • My apologies, the upper arrow is the inclusion map, the right arrow is the quotient map, the left arrow is the continuous function f.
    – Math is Life
    Nov 20 at 10:16
















Pushouts are unique. So all you have to do is to show that you can use $(Vtimes W)^{infty}$ instead of $Y$ to obtain pushout. If you can then they have to be isomorphic in the given category. In case of topological spaces it means homeomorphic.
– freakish
Nov 20 at 9:03




Pushouts are unique. So all you have to do is to show that you can use $(Vtimes W)^{infty}$ instead of $Y$ to obtain pushout. If you can then they have to be isomorphic in the given category. In case of topological spaces it means homeomorphic.
– freakish
Nov 20 at 9:03












Also this depends on what the upper arrow is. Is that inclusion? Note that this depends on the left arrow as well, but in this case there's no choice.
– freakish
Nov 20 at 10:15






Also this depends on what the upper arrow is. Is that inclusion? Note that this depends on the left arrow as well, but in this case there's no choice.
– freakish
Nov 20 at 10:15














My apologies, the upper arrow is the inclusion map, the right arrow is the quotient map, the left arrow is the continuous function f.
– Math is Life
Nov 20 at 10:16




My apologies, the upper arrow is the inclusion map, the right arrow is the quotient map, the left arrow is the continuous function f.
– Math is Life
Nov 20 at 10:16










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
0
down vote



accepted










Have a look at the catgorical definition of pushout. It is enough to show that $(Vtimes W)^infty$ has the universal property. That's because pushouts are unique up to isomorphism.



I will use $V^inftyvee W^infty$, i.e. the wedge sum instead of $(V^inftytimes{infty})cup({infty}times W^infty)$ because thats what it is.



So we have a commutative diagram



$$begin{CD}
V^{infty}vee W^{infty} @>{i}>> V^{infty}times W^{infty}\
@VVV @VV{f}V\
{infty} @>{g}>> (Vtimes W)^infty
end{CD} $$



So $i$ is the inclusion, $g(infty)=infty$ and



$$f(v,w)=left{begin{matrix}infty &text{if }v=inftytext{ or }w=infty \ (v,w) &text{otherwise}end{matrix}right.$$



So this is the first part of the universal property. I encourage you to check that the diagram commutes and that $f$ is continuous.



Lets have a look at the second part of the universal property. Assume that
$$begin{CD}
V^{infty}vee W^{infty} @>{i}>> V^{infty}times W^{infty}\
@VVV @VV{a}V\
{infty} @>{b}>> P
end{CD} $$



is some commutative diagram. Define



$$phi:(Vtimes W)^inftyto P$$
$$phi(v,w)=a(v,w)$$
$$phi(infty)=b(infty)$$



So obviously $phicirc f=a$ and $phicirc g=b$. So all that is left is to show that $phi$ is continuous. Can you complete the proof?



Side note: If you look carefuly at each function I've defined you will see that there's no magic here. These are just natural choices.






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • This makes perfect sense. I just realized before you posted that I could swap $Y$ with $(Vtimes W)^{infty}$ and show it satisfies the universal pushout property. This really helps, thanks for taking the time to answer!
    – Math is Life
    Nov 20 at 11:23













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1 Answer
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active

oldest

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oldest

votes








up vote
0
down vote



accepted










Have a look at the catgorical definition of pushout. It is enough to show that $(Vtimes W)^infty$ has the universal property. That's because pushouts are unique up to isomorphism.



I will use $V^inftyvee W^infty$, i.e. the wedge sum instead of $(V^inftytimes{infty})cup({infty}times W^infty)$ because thats what it is.



So we have a commutative diagram



$$begin{CD}
V^{infty}vee W^{infty} @>{i}>> V^{infty}times W^{infty}\
@VVV @VV{f}V\
{infty} @>{g}>> (Vtimes W)^infty
end{CD} $$



So $i$ is the inclusion, $g(infty)=infty$ and



$$f(v,w)=left{begin{matrix}infty &text{if }v=inftytext{ or }w=infty \ (v,w) &text{otherwise}end{matrix}right.$$



So this is the first part of the universal property. I encourage you to check that the diagram commutes and that $f$ is continuous.



Lets have a look at the second part of the universal property. Assume that
$$begin{CD}
V^{infty}vee W^{infty} @>{i}>> V^{infty}times W^{infty}\
@VVV @VV{a}V\
{infty} @>{b}>> P
end{CD} $$



is some commutative diagram. Define



$$phi:(Vtimes W)^inftyto P$$
$$phi(v,w)=a(v,w)$$
$$phi(infty)=b(infty)$$



So obviously $phicirc f=a$ and $phicirc g=b$. So all that is left is to show that $phi$ is continuous. Can you complete the proof?



Side note: If you look carefuly at each function I've defined you will see that there's no magic here. These are just natural choices.






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • This makes perfect sense. I just realized before you posted that I could swap $Y$ with $(Vtimes W)^{infty}$ and show it satisfies the universal pushout property. This really helps, thanks for taking the time to answer!
    – Math is Life
    Nov 20 at 11:23

















up vote
0
down vote



accepted










Have a look at the catgorical definition of pushout. It is enough to show that $(Vtimes W)^infty$ has the universal property. That's because pushouts are unique up to isomorphism.



I will use $V^inftyvee W^infty$, i.e. the wedge sum instead of $(V^inftytimes{infty})cup({infty}times W^infty)$ because thats what it is.



So we have a commutative diagram



$$begin{CD}
V^{infty}vee W^{infty} @>{i}>> V^{infty}times W^{infty}\
@VVV @VV{f}V\
{infty} @>{g}>> (Vtimes W)^infty
end{CD} $$



So $i$ is the inclusion, $g(infty)=infty$ and



$$f(v,w)=left{begin{matrix}infty &text{if }v=inftytext{ or }w=infty \ (v,w) &text{otherwise}end{matrix}right.$$



So this is the first part of the universal property. I encourage you to check that the diagram commutes and that $f$ is continuous.



Lets have a look at the second part of the universal property. Assume that
$$begin{CD}
V^{infty}vee W^{infty} @>{i}>> V^{infty}times W^{infty}\
@VVV @VV{a}V\
{infty} @>{b}>> P
end{CD} $$



is some commutative diagram. Define



$$phi:(Vtimes W)^inftyto P$$
$$phi(v,w)=a(v,w)$$
$$phi(infty)=b(infty)$$



So obviously $phicirc f=a$ and $phicirc g=b$. So all that is left is to show that $phi$ is continuous. Can you complete the proof?



Side note: If you look carefuly at each function I've defined you will see that there's no magic here. These are just natural choices.






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • This makes perfect sense. I just realized before you posted that I could swap $Y$ with $(Vtimes W)^{infty}$ and show it satisfies the universal pushout property. This really helps, thanks for taking the time to answer!
    – Math is Life
    Nov 20 at 11:23















up vote
0
down vote



accepted







up vote
0
down vote



accepted






Have a look at the catgorical definition of pushout. It is enough to show that $(Vtimes W)^infty$ has the universal property. That's because pushouts are unique up to isomorphism.



I will use $V^inftyvee W^infty$, i.e. the wedge sum instead of $(V^inftytimes{infty})cup({infty}times W^infty)$ because thats what it is.



So we have a commutative diagram



$$begin{CD}
V^{infty}vee W^{infty} @>{i}>> V^{infty}times W^{infty}\
@VVV @VV{f}V\
{infty} @>{g}>> (Vtimes W)^infty
end{CD} $$



So $i$ is the inclusion, $g(infty)=infty$ and



$$f(v,w)=left{begin{matrix}infty &text{if }v=inftytext{ or }w=infty \ (v,w) &text{otherwise}end{matrix}right.$$



So this is the first part of the universal property. I encourage you to check that the diagram commutes and that $f$ is continuous.



Lets have a look at the second part of the universal property. Assume that
$$begin{CD}
V^{infty}vee W^{infty} @>{i}>> V^{infty}times W^{infty}\
@VVV @VV{a}V\
{infty} @>{b}>> P
end{CD} $$



is some commutative diagram. Define



$$phi:(Vtimes W)^inftyto P$$
$$phi(v,w)=a(v,w)$$
$$phi(infty)=b(infty)$$



So obviously $phicirc f=a$ and $phicirc g=b$. So all that is left is to show that $phi$ is continuous. Can you complete the proof?



Side note: If you look carefuly at each function I've defined you will see that there's no magic here. These are just natural choices.






share|cite|improve this answer












Have a look at the catgorical definition of pushout. It is enough to show that $(Vtimes W)^infty$ has the universal property. That's because pushouts are unique up to isomorphism.



I will use $V^inftyvee W^infty$, i.e. the wedge sum instead of $(V^inftytimes{infty})cup({infty}times W^infty)$ because thats what it is.



So we have a commutative diagram



$$begin{CD}
V^{infty}vee W^{infty} @>{i}>> V^{infty}times W^{infty}\
@VVV @VV{f}V\
{infty} @>{g}>> (Vtimes W)^infty
end{CD} $$



So $i$ is the inclusion, $g(infty)=infty$ and



$$f(v,w)=left{begin{matrix}infty &text{if }v=inftytext{ or }w=infty \ (v,w) &text{otherwise}end{matrix}right.$$



So this is the first part of the universal property. I encourage you to check that the diagram commutes and that $f$ is continuous.



Lets have a look at the second part of the universal property. Assume that
$$begin{CD}
V^{infty}vee W^{infty} @>{i}>> V^{infty}times W^{infty}\
@VVV @VV{a}V\
{infty} @>{b}>> P
end{CD} $$



is some commutative diagram. Define



$$phi:(Vtimes W)^inftyto P$$
$$phi(v,w)=a(v,w)$$
$$phi(infty)=b(infty)$$



So obviously $phicirc f=a$ and $phicirc g=b$. So all that is left is to show that $phi$ is continuous. Can you complete the proof?



Side note: If you look carefuly at each function I've defined you will see that there's no magic here. These are just natural choices.







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Nov 20 at 10:30









freakish

10.8k1527




10.8k1527












  • This makes perfect sense. I just realized before you posted that I could swap $Y$ with $(Vtimes W)^{infty}$ and show it satisfies the universal pushout property. This really helps, thanks for taking the time to answer!
    – Math is Life
    Nov 20 at 11:23




















  • This makes perfect sense. I just realized before you posted that I could swap $Y$ with $(Vtimes W)^{infty}$ and show it satisfies the universal pushout property. This really helps, thanks for taking the time to answer!
    – Math is Life
    Nov 20 at 11:23


















This makes perfect sense. I just realized before you posted that I could swap $Y$ with $(Vtimes W)^{infty}$ and show it satisfies the universal pushout property. This really helps, thanks for taking the time to answer!
– Math is Life
Nov 20 at 11:23






This makes perfect sense. I just realized before you posted that I could swap $Y$ with $(Vtimes W)^{infty}$ and show it satisfies the universal pushout property. This really helps, thanks for taking the time to answer!
– Math is Life
Nov 20 at 11:23




















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