One point compactification. (Pushout)
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2
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I apologize in advance for the formatting. I am new to commutative diagrams in latex.
Let $V$ and $W$ be finite dimensional vector spaces over $mathbb{R}$, with the pushout
$require{AMScd}$
begin{CD}
(V^{infty}times {infty})cup({infty}times W^{infty}) @>{}>> V^{infty}times W^{infty}\
@VVV @VVV\
{infty} @>{}>> Y
end{CD}
Show that $(Vtimes W)^{infty}$ is homeomorphic to Y
Here $"infty"$ denotes the 1-point compactification of a set
Previously, we proved a few remarks about pushouts.
If $X$ and $B$ are topological spaces and $Asubset B$ a closed subspace with inclusion function $alpha:Arightarrow B$, and continuous mapping $f:Arightarrow X$.
We define the equivalence relation "$sim$" on $Xcoprod B$ as $inc_Xcirc f(a)sim inc_Bcircalpha(a)$ for each $ain A$. We thus define $Y:=(Xcoprod Y)/sim$ (quotient space).
It was shown (universal property of the pushout) that given a commuting diagram marked in the below picture of solid maps/arrows, there exists a unique mapping $g:Yrightarrow W$, which makes the whole diagram commutative.
I want to somehow use this property (I think) to show there exists a homoemorphism $h$ from $Y$ to $(Vtimes W)^{infty}$
I honestly have no clue how to approach this problem, and would appreciate a hint or two to guide me in the right direction. Any help would be much appreciated!
Universal property of the pushout (picture)
general-topology
add a comment |
up vote
2
down vote
favorite
I apologize in advance for the formatting. I am new to commutative diagrams in latex.
Let $V$ and $W$ be finite dimensional vector spaces over $mathbb{R}$, with the pushout
$require{AMScd}$
begin{CD}
(V^{infty}times {infty})cup({infty}times W^{infty}) @>{}>> V^{infty}times W^{infty}\
@VVV @VVV\
{infty} @>{}>> Y
end{CD}
Show that $(Vtimes W)^{infty}$ is homeomorphic to Y
Here $"infty"$ denotes the 1-point compactification of a set
Previously, we proved a few remarks about pushouts.
If $X$ and $B$ are topological spaces and $Asubset B$ a closed subspace with inclusion function $alpha:Arightarrow B$, and continuous mapping $f:Arightarrow X$.
We define the equivalence relation "$sim$" on $Xcoprod B$ as $inc_Xcirc f(a)sim inc_Bcircalpha(a)$ for each $ain A$. We thus define $Y:=(Xcoprod Y)/sim$ (quotient space).
It was shown (universal property of the pushout) that given a commuting diagram marked in the below picture of solid maps/arrows, there exists a unique mapping $g:Yrightarrow W$, which makes the whole diagram commutative.
I want to somehow use this property (I think) to show there exists a homoemorphism $h$ from $Y$ to $(Vtimes W)^{infty}$
I honestly have no clue how to approach this problem, and would appreciate a hint or two to guide me in the right direction. Any help would be much appreciated!
Universal property of the pushout (picture)
general-topology
Pushouts are unique. So all you have to do is to show that you can use $(Vtimes W)^{infty}$ instead of $Y$ to obtain pushout. If you can then they have to be isomorphic in the given category. In case of topological spaces it means homeomorphic.
– freakish
Nov 20 at 9:03
Also this depends on what the upper arrow is. Is that inclusion? Note that this depends on the left arrow as well, but in this case there's no choice.
– freakish
Nov 20 at 10:15
My apologies, the upper arrow is the inclusion map, the right arrow is the quotient map, the left arrow is the continuous function f.
– Math is Life
Nov 20 at 10:16
add a comment |
up vote
2
down vote
favorite
up vote
2
down vote
favorite
I apologize in advance for the formatting. I am new to commutative diagrams in latex.
Let $V$ and $W$ be finite dimensional vector spaces over $mathbb{R}$, with the pushout
$require{AMScd}$
begin{CD}
(V^{infty}times {infty})cup({infty}times W^{infty}) @>{}>> V^{infty}times W^{infty}\
@VVV @VVV\
{infty} @>{}>> Y
end{CD}
Show that $(Vtimes W)^{infty}$ is homeomorphic to Y
Here $"infty"$ denotes the 1-point compactification of a set
Previously, we proved a few remarks about pushouts.
If $X$ and $B$ are topological spaces and $Asubset B$ a closed subspace with inclusion function $alpha:Arightarrow B$, and continuous mapping $f:Arightarrow X$.
We define the equivalence relation "$sim$" on $Xcoprod B$ as $inc_Xcirc f(a)sim inc_Bcircalpha(a)$ for each $ain A$. We thus define $Y:=(Xcoprod Y)/sim$ (quotient space).
It was shown (universal property of the pushout) that given a commuting diagram marked in the below picture of solid maps/arrows, there exists a unique mapping $g:Yrightarrow W$, which makes the whole diagram commutative.
I want to somehow use this property (I think) to show there exists a homoemorphism $h$ from $Y$ to $(Vtimes W)^{infty}$
I honestly have no clue how to approach this problem, and would appreciate a hint or two to guide me in the right direction. Any help would be much appreciated!
Universal property of the pushout (picture)
general-topology
I apologize in advance for the formatting. I am new to commutative diagrams in latex.
Let $V$ and $W$ be finite dimensional vector spaces over $mathbb{R}$, with the pushout
$require{AMScd}$
begin{CD}
(V^{infty}times {infty})cup({infty}times W^{infty}) @>{}>> V^{infty}times W^{infty}\
@VVV @VVV\
{infty} @>{}>> Y
end{CD}
Show that $(Vtimes W)^{infty}$ is homeomorphic to Y
Here $"infty"$ denotes the 1-point compactification of a set
Previously, we proved a few remarks about pushouts.
If $X$ and $B$ are topological spaces and $Asubset B$ a closed subspace with inclusion function $alpha:Arightarrow B$, and continuous mapping $f:Arightarrow X$.
We define the equivalence relation "$sim$" on $Xcoprod B$ as $inc_Xcirc f(a)sim inc_Bcircalpha(a)$ for each $ain A$. We thus define $Y:=(Xcoprod Y)/sim$ (quotient space).
It was shown (universal property of the pushout) that given a commuting diagram marked in the below picture of solid maps/arrows, there exists a unique mapping $g:Yrightarrow W$, which makes the whole diagram commutative.
I want to somehow use this property (I think) to show there exists a homoemorphism $h$ from $Y$ to $(Vtimes W)^{infty}$
I honestly have no clue how to approach this problem, and would appreciate a hint or two to guide me in the right direction. Any help would be much appreciated!
Universal property of the pushout (picture)
general-topology
general-topology
asked Nov 20 at 8:01
Math is Life
574
574
Pushouts are unique. So all you have to do is to show that you can use $(Vtimes W)^{infty}$ instead of $Y$ to obtain pushout. If you can then they have to be isomorphic in the given category. In case of topological spaces it means homeomorphic.
– freakish
Nov 20 at 9:03
Also this depends on what the upper arrow is. Is that inclusion? Note that this depends on the left arrow as well, but in this case there's no choice.
– freakish
Nov 20 at 10:15
My apologies, the upper arrow is the inclusion map, the right arrow is the quotient map, the left arrow is the continuous function f.
– Math is Life
Nov 20 at 10:16
add a comment |
Pushouts are unique. So all you have to do is to show that you can use $(Vtimes W)^{infty}$ instead of $Y$ to obtain pushout. If you can then they have to be isomorphic in the given category. In case of topological spaces it means homeomorphic.
– freakish
Nov 20 at 9:03
Also this depends on what the upper arrow is. Is that inclusion? Note that this depends on the left arrow as well, but in this case there's no choice.
– freakish
Nov 20 at 10:15
My apologies, the upper arrow is the inclusion map, the right arrow is the quotient map, the left arrow is the continuous function f.
– Math is Life
Nov 20 at 10:16
Pushouts are unique. So all you have to do is to show that you can use $(Vtimes W)^{infty}$ instead of $Y$ to obtain pushout. If you can then they have to be isomorphic in the given category. In case of topological spaces it means homeomorphic.
– freakish
Nov 20 at 9:03
Pushouts are unique. So all you have to do is to show that you can use $(Vtimes W)^{infty}$ instead of $Y$ to obtain pushout. If you can then they have to be isomorphic in the given category. In case of topological spaces it means homeomorphic.
– freakish
Nov 20 at 9:03
Also this depends on what the upper arrow is. Is that inclusion? Note that this depends on the left arrow as well, but in this case there's no choice.
– freakish
Nov 20 at 10:15
Also this depends on what the upper arrow is. Is that inclusion? Note that this depends on the left arrow as well, but in this case there's no choice.
– freakish
Nov 20 at 10:15
My apologies, the upper arrow is the inclusion map, the right arrow is the quotient map, the left arrow is the continuous function f.
– Math is Life
Nov 20 at 10:16
My apologies, the upper arrow is the inclusion map, the right arrow is the quotient map, the left arrow is the continuous function f.
– Math is Life
Nov 20 at 10:16
add a comment |
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
up vote
0
down vote
accepted
Have a look at the catgorical definition of pushout. It is enough to show that $(Vtimes W)^infty$ has the universal property. That's because pushouts are unique up to isomorphism.
I will use $V^inftyvee W^infty$, i.e. the wedge sum instead of $(V^inftytimes{infty})cup({infty}times W^infty)$ because thats what it is.
So we have a commutative diagram
$$begin{CD}
V^{infty}vee W^{infty} @>{i}>> V^{infty}times W^{infty}\
@VVV @VV{f}V\
{infty} @>{g}>> (Vtimes W)^infty
end{CD} $$
So $i$ is the inclusion, $g(infty)=infty$ and
$$f(v,w)=left{begin{matrix}infty &text{if }v=inftytext{ or }w=infty \ (v,w) &text{otherwise}end{matrix}right.$$
So this is the first part of the universal property. I encourage you to check that the diagram commutes and that $f$ is continuous.
Lets have a look at the second part of the universal property. Assume that
$$begin{CD}
V^{infty}vee W^{infty} @>{i}>> V^{infty}times W^{infty}\
@VVV @VV{a}V\
{infty} @>{b}>> P
end{CD} $$
is some commutative diagram. Define
$$phi:(Vtimes W)^inftyto P$$
$$phi(v,w)=a(v,w)$$
$$phi(infty)=b(infty)$$
So obviously $phicirc f=a$ and $phicirc g=b$. So all that is left is to show that $phi$ is continuous. Can you complete the proof?
Side note: If you look carefuly at each function I've defined you will see that there's no magic here. These are just natural choices.
This makes perfect sense. I just realized before you posted that I could swap $Y$ with $(Vtimes W)^{infty}$ and show it satisfies the universal pushout property. This really helps, thanks for taking the time to answer!
– Math is Life
Nov 20 at 11:23
add a comment |
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
0
down vote
accepted
Have a look at the catgorical definition of pushout. It is enough to show that $(Vtimes W)^infty$ has the universal property. That's because pushouts are unique up to isomorphism.
I will use $V^inftyvee W^infty$, i.e. the wedge sum instead of $(V^inftytimes{infty})cup({infty}times W^infty)$ because thats what it is.
So we have a commutative diagram
$$begin{CD}
V^{infty}vee W^{infty} @>{i}>> V^{infty}times W^{infty}\
@VVV @VV{f}V\
{infty} @>{g}>> (Vtimes W)^infty
end{CD} $$
So $i$ is the inclusion, $g(infty)=infty$ and
$$f(v,w)=left{begin{matrix}infty &text{if }v=inftytext{ or }w=infty \ (v,w) &text{otherwise}end{matrix}right.$$
So this is the first part of the universal property. I encourage you to check that the diagram commutes and that $f$ is continuous.
Lets have a look at the second part of the universal property. Assume that
$$begin{CD}
V^{infty}vee W^{infty} @>{i}>> V^{infty}times W^{infty}\
@VVV @VV{a}V\
{infty} @>{b}>> P
end{CD} $$
is some commutative diagram. Define
$$phi:(Vtimes W)^inftyto P$$
$$phi(v,w)=a(v,w)$$
$$phi(infty)=b(infty)$$
So obviously $phicirc f=a$ and $phicirc g=b$. So all that is left is to show that $phi$ is continuous. Can you complete the proof?
Side note: If you look carefuly at each function I've defined you will see that there's no magic here. These are just natural choices.
This makes perfect sense. I just realized before you posted that I could swap $Y$ with $(Vtimes W)^{infty}$ and show it satisfies the universal pushout property. This really helps, thanks for taking the time to answer!
– Math is Life
Nov 20 at 11:23
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
accepted
Have a look at the catgorical definition of pushout. It is enough to show that $(Vtimes W)^infty$ has the universal property. That's because pushouts are unique up to isomorphism.
I will use $V^inftyvee W^infty$, i.e. the wedge sum instead of $(V^inftytimes{infty})cup({infty}times W^infty)$ because thats what it is.
So we have a commutative diagram
$$begin{CD}
V^{infty}vee W^{infty} @>{i}>> V^{infty}times W^{infty}\
@VVV @VV{f}V\
{infty} @>{g}>> (Vtimes W)^infty
end{CD} $$
So $i$ is the inclusion, $g(infty)=infty$ and
$$f(v,w)=left{begin{matrix}infty &text{if }v=inftytext{ or }w=infty \ (v,w) &text{otherwise}end{matrix}right.$$
So this is the first part of the universal property. I encourage you to check that the diagram commutes and that $f$ is continuous.
Lets have a look at the second part of the universal property. Assume that
$$begin{CD}
V^{infty}vee W^{infty} @>{i}>> V^{infty}times W^{infty}\
@VVV @VV{a}V\
{infty} @>{b}>> P
end{CD} $$
is some commutative diagram. Define
$$phi:(Vtimes W)^inftyto P$$
$$phi(v,w)=a(v,w)$$
$$phi(infty)=b(infty)$$
So obviously $phicirc f=a$ and $phicirc g=b$. So all that is left is to show that $phi$ is continuous. Can you complete the proof?
Side note: If you look carefuly at each function I've defined you will see that there's no magic here. These are just natural choices.
This makes perfect sense. I just realized before you posted that I could swap $Y$ with $(Vtimes W)^{infty}$ and show it satisfies the universal pushout property. This really helps, thanks for taking the time to answer!
– Math is Life
Nov 20 at 11:23
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
accepted
up vote
0
down vote
accepted
Have a look at the catgorical definition of pushout. It is enough to show that $(Vtimes W)^infty$ has the universal property. That's because pushouts are unique up to isomorphism.
I will use $V^inftyvee W^infty$, i.e. the wedge sum instead of $(V^inftytimes{infty})cup({infty}times W^infty)$ because thats what it is.
So we have a commutative diagram
$$begin{CD}
V^{infty}vee W^{infty} @>{i}>> V^{infty}times W^{infty}\
@VVV @VV{f}V\
{infty} @>{g}>> (Vtimes W)^infty
end{CD} $$
So $i$ is the inclusion, $g(infty)=infty$ and
$$f(v,w)=left{begin{matrix}infty &text{if }v=inftytext{ or }w=infty \ (v,w) &text{otherwise}end{matrix}right.$$
So this is the first part of the universal property. I encourage you to check that the diagram commutes and that $f$ is continuous.
Lets have a look at the second part of the universal property. Assume that
$$begin{CD}
V^{infty}vee W^{infty} @>{i}>> V^{infty}times W^{infty}\
@VVV @VV{a}V\
{infty} @>{b}>> P
end{CD} $$
is some commutative diagram. Define
$$phi:(Vtimes W)^inftyto P$$
$$phi(v,w)=a(v,w)$$
$$phi(infty)=b(infty)$$
So obviously $phicirc f=a$ and $phicirc g=b$. So all that is left is to show that $phi$ is continuous. Can you complete the proof?
Side note: If you look carefuly at each function I've defined you will see that there's no magic here. These are just natural choices.
Have a look at the catgorical definition of pushout. It is enough to show that $(Vtimes W)^infty$ has the universal property. That's because pushouts are unique up to isomorphism.
I will use $V^inftyvee W^infty$, i.e. the wedge sum instead of $(V^inftytimes{infty})cup({infty}times W^infty)$ because thats what it is.
So we have a commutative diagram
$$begin{CD}
V^{infty}vee W^{infty} @>{i}>> V^{infty}times W^{infty}\
@VVV @VV{f}V\
{infty} @>{g}>> (Vtimes W)^infty
end{CD} $$
So $i$ is the inclusion, $g(infty)=infty$ and
$$f(v,w)=left{begin{matrix}infty &text{if }v=inftytext{ or }w=infty \ (v,w) &text{otherwise}end{matrix}right.$$
So this is the first part of the universal property. I encourage you to check that the diagram commutes and that $f$ is continuous.
Lets have a look at the second part of the universal property. Assume that
$$begin{CD}
V^{infty}vee W^{infty} @>{i}>> V^{infty}times W^{infty}\
@VVV @VV{a}V\
{infty} @>{b}>> P
end{CD} $$
is some commutative diagram. Define
$$phi:(Vtimes W)^inftyto P$$
$$phi(v,w)=a(v,w)$$
$$phi(infty)=b(infty)$$
So obviously $phicirc f=a$ and $phicirc g=b$. So all that is left is to show that $phi$ is continuous. Can you complete the proof?
Side note: If you look carefuly at each function I've defined you will see that there's no magic here. These are just natural choices.
answered Nov 20 at 10:30
freakish
10.8k1527
10.8k1527
This makes perfect sense. I just realized before you posted that I could swap $Y$ with $(Vtimes W)^{infty}$ and show it satisfies the universal pushout property. This really helps, thanks for taking the time to answer!
– Math is Life
Nov 20 at 11:23
add a comment |
This makes perfect sense. I just realized before you posted that I could swap $Y$ with $(Vtimes W)^{infty}$ and show it satisfies the universal pushout property. This really helps, thanks for taking the time to answer!
– Math is Life
Nov 20 at 11:23
This makes perfect sense. I just realized before you posted that I could swap $Y$ with $(Vtimes W)^{infty}$ and show it satisfies the universal pushout property. This really helps, thanks for taking the time to answer!
– Math is Life
Nov 20 at 11:23
This makes perfect sense. I just realized before you posted that I could swap $Y$ with $(Vtimes W)^{infty}$ and show it satisfies the universal pushout property. This really helps, thanks for taking the time to answer!
– Math is Life
Nov 20 at 11:23
add a comment |
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Pushouts are unique. So all you have to do is to show that you can use $(Vtimes W)^{infty}$ instead of $Y$ to obtain pushout. If you can then they have to be isomorphic in the given category. In case of topological spaces it means homeomorphic.
– freakish
Nov 20 at 9:03
Also this depends on what the upper arrow is. Is that inclusion? Note that this depends on the left arrow as well, but in this case there's no choice.
– freakish
Nov 20 at 10:15
My apologies, the upper arrow is the inclusion map, the right arrow is the quotient map, the left arrow is the continuous function f.
– Math is Life
Nov 20 at 10:16