Binomial coefficient from a double sequence ${a_{n,k}}$ of Pascal Triangle











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I really need help with the 13-th prob. Chap. 2 in the book Kuratowski "Introduction to Calculus", it says:



We consider the following table (i.e. double sequence ${a_{n,k}}$):



begin{array}{cccccc}
1 & 1 & 1 & 1 & 1 & cdots \
1 & 2 & 3 & 4 & 5 & cdots \
1 & 3 & 6 & 10 & 15 & cdots \
1 & 4 & 10 & 20 & 35 & cdots \
1 & 5 & 15 & 35 & 70 & cdots \
cdots & cdots & cdots & cdots &cdots & cdots \
end{array}



This table is defined as follows: the firs line consists of nothing but 1, i.e. $a_{1,k}=1$; the $k$-th term in the $n$-th line is the sum of the first $k$ terms of the $(n-1)$-th line, i.e.
begin{equation}
a_{n,k}=a_{n-1,1}+a_{n-1,2}+ cdots + a_{n-1,k}.
end{equation}

Prove that $$a_{n,k}=frac{(k+n-2)!}{(k-1)!(n-1)!}$$ and that the terms $a_{n,1}$, $a_{n-1,1}$,..., $a_{1,n}$ are successive coefficients of the Newton expansion of the expression $(a+b)^{n-1}$ (as is easily seen they are the terms of the table lying on the straight line joining the $n$-th term of the first line with the first term of the $n$-th line).



I tried to do induction but i don't know what to do with the two indexes, and when i tried to do something with the formula $a_{n,k}$ it becomes to difficult to manipulate.



I'll appreciate all the help or ideas.










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    up vote
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    down vote

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    I really need help with the 13-th prob. Chap. 2 in the book Kuratowski "Introduction to Calculus", it says:



    We consider the following table (i.e. double sequence ${a_{n,k}}$):



    begin{array}{cccccc}
    1 & 1 & 1 & 1 & 1 & cdots \
    1 & 2 & 3 & 4 & 5 & cdots \
    1 & 3 & 6 & 10 & 15 & cdots \
    1 & 4 & 10 & 20 & 35 & cdots \
    1 & 5 & 15 & 35 & 70 & cdots \
    cdots & cdots & cdots & cdots &cdots & cdots \
    end{array}



    This table is defined as follows: the firs line consists of nothing but 1, i.e. $a_{1,k}=1$; the $k$-th term in the $n$-th line is the sum of the first $k$ terms of the $(n-1)$-th line, i.e.
    begin{equation}
    a_{n,k}=a_{n-1,1}+a_{n-1,2}+ cdots + a_{n-1,k}.
    end{equation}

    Prove that $$a_{n,k}=frac{(k+n-2)!}{(k-1)!(n-1)!}$$ and that the terms $a_{n,1}$, $a_{n-1,1}$,..., $a_{1,n}$ are successive coefficients of the Newton expansion of the expression $(a+b)^{n-1}$ (as is easily seen they are the terms of the table lying on the straight line joining the $n$-th term of the first line with the first term of the $n$-th line).



    I tried to do induction but i don't know what to do with the two indexes, and when i tried to do something with the formula $a_{n,k}$ it becomes to difficult to manipulate.



    I'll appreciate all the help or ideas.










    share|cite|improve this question


























      up vote
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      down vote

      favorite
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      I really need help with the 13-th prob. Chap. 2 in the book Kuratowski "Introduction to Calculus", it says:



      We consider the following table (i.e. double sequence ${a_{n,k}}$):



      begin{array}{cccccc}
      1 & 1 & 1 & 1 & 1 & cdots \
      1 & 2 & 3 & 4 & 5 & cdots \
      1 & 3 & 6 & 10 & 15 & cdots \
      1 & 4 & 10 & 20 & 35 & cdots \
      1 & 5 & 15 & 35 & 70 & cdots \
      cdots & cdots & cdots & cdots &cdots & cdots \
      end{array}



      This table is defined as follows: the firs line consists of nothing but 1, i.e. $a_{1,k}=1$; the $k$-th term in the $n$-th line is the sum of the first $k$ terms of the $(n-1)$-th line, i.e.
      begin{equation}
      a_{n,k}=a_{n-1,1}+a_{n-1,2}+ cdots + a_{n-1,k}.
      end{equation}

      Prove that $$a_{n,k}=frac{(k+n-2)!}{(k-1)!(n-1)!}$$ and that the terms $a_{n,1}$, $a_{n-1,1}$,..., $a_{1,n}$ are successive coefficients of the Newton expansion of the expression $(a+b)^{n-1}$ (as is easily seen they are the terms of the table lying on the straight line joining the $n$-th term of the first line with the first term of the $n$-th line).



      I tried to do induction but i don't know what to do with the two indexes, and when i tried to do something with the formula $a_{n,k}$ it becomes to difficult to manipulate.



      I'll appreciate all the help or ideas.










      share|cite|improve this question















      I really need help with the 13-th prob. Chap. 2 in the book Kuratowski "Introduction to Calculus", it says:



      We consider the following table (i.e. double sequence ${a_{n,k}}$):



      begin{array}{cccccc}
      1 & 1 & 1 & 1 & 1 & cdots \
      1 & 2 & 3 & 4 & 5 & cdots \
      1 & 3 & 6 & 10 & 15 & cdots \
      1 & 4 & 10 & 20 & 35 & cdots \
      1 & 5 & 15 & 35 & 70 & cdots \
      cdots & cdots & cdots & cdots &cdots & cdots \
      end{array}



      This table is defined as follows: the firs line consists of nothing but 1, i.e. $a_{1,k}=1$; the $k$-th term in the $n$-th line is the sum of the first $k$ terms of the $(n-1)$-th line, i.e.
      begin{equation}
      a_{n,k}=a_{n-1,1}+a_{n-1,2}+ cdots + a_{n-1,k}.
      end{equation}

      Prove that $$a_{n,k}=frac{(k+n-2)!}{(k-1)!(n-1)!}$$ and that the terms $a_{n,1}$, $a_{n-1,1}$,..., $a_{1,n}$ are successive coefficients of the Newton expansion of the expression $(a+b)^{n-1}$ (as is easily seen they are the terms of the table lying on the straight line joining the $n$-th term of the first line with the first term of the $n$-th line).



      I tried to do induction but i don't know what to do with the two indexes, and when i tried to do something with the formula $a_{n,k}$ it becomes to difficult to manipulate.



      I'll appreciate all the help or ideas.







      calculus sequences-and-series number-theory binomial-coefficients






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      edited Nov 19 at 22:56









      darij grinberg

      10.2k33061




      10.2k33061










      asked Nov 19 at 20:54









      RichardMoon15

      53




      53






















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          We can work by induction on the quantity $Y=k+n$. If $Y=2$ then $k=1$ and $n=1$ so
          $$
          a_{1, 1}=1=frac{(1+1-2)!}{(1-1)!(1-1)!}
          $$



          Now suppose that for a certain $Y$ the equality holds for every $k, n$ such that $Y=k+n$, so now set $n, k$ such that $n+k=Y+1$. If $n=1$ then
          $$
          a_{1, k}=frac{(k-1)!}{(k-1)!}=1
          $$



          Otherwise if $n>1$ we have
          $$
          a_{n, k}=a_{n-1, 1}+a_{n-1, 2}+dotsb+a_{n-1, k-1}+a_{n-1, k}=a_{n, k-1}+a_{n-1, k}
          $$

          with $n+k-1=n-1+k=Y$ and so we can use induction to obtain



          $$
          a_{n, k}=frac{(k+n-3)!}{(k-2)!(n-1)!}+frac{(k+n-3)!}{(k-1)!(n-2)!}=frac{(k+n-3)!}{(k-2)!(n-2)!(n-1)}+frac{(k+n-3)!}{(k-2)!(n-2)!(k-1)}=frac{(k+n-3)!(k-1)+(k+n-3)!(n-1)}{(k-2)!(n-2)!(k-1)(n-1)}=frac{(k+n-3)!(k+n-2)}{(k-1)!(n-1)!}=frac{(k+n-2)!}{(k-1)!(n-1)!}
          $$



          Obtaining so the initial statement.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















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            We can work by induction on the quantity $Y=k+n$. If $Y=2$ then $k=1$ and $n=1$ so
            $$
            a_{1, 1}=1=frac{(1+1-2)!}{(1-1)!(1-1)!}
            $$



            Now suppose that for a certain $Y$ the equality holds for every $k, n$ such that $Y=k+n$, so now set $n, k$ such that $n+k=Y+1$. If $n=1$ then
            $$
            a_{1, k}=frac{(k-1)!}{(k-1)!}=1
            $$



            Otherwise if $n>1$ we have
            $$
            a_{n, k}=a_{n-1, 1}+a_{n-1, 2}+dotsb+a_{n-1, k-1}+a_{n-1, k}=a_{n, k-1}+a_{n-1, k}
            $$

            with $n+k-1=n-1+k=Y$ and so we can use induction to obtain



            $$
            a_{n, k}=frac{(k+n-3)!}{(k-2)!(n-1)!}+frac{(k+n-3)!}{(k-1)!(n-2)!}=frac{(k+n-3)!}{(k-2)!(n-2)!(n-1)}+frac{(k+n-3)!}{(k-2)!(n-2)!(k-1)}=frac{(k+n-3)!(k-1)+(k+n-3)!(n-1)}{(k-2)!(n-2)!(k-1)(n-1)}=frac{(k+n-3)!(k+n-2)}{(k-1)!(n-1)!}=frac{(k+n-2)!}{(k-1)!(n-1)!}
            $$



            Obtaining so the initial statement.






            share|cite|improve this answer

























              up vote
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              down vote













              We can work by induction on the quantity $Y=k+n$. If $Y=2$ then $k=1$ and $n=1$ so
              $$
              a_{1, 1}=1=frac{(1+1-2)!}{(1-1)!(1-1)!}
              $$



              Now suppose that for a certain $Y$ the equality holds for every $k, n$ such that $Y=k+n$, so now set $n, k$ such that $n+k=Y+1$. If $n=1$ then
              $$
              a_{1, k}=frac{(k-1)!}{(k-1)!}=1
              $$



              Otherwise if $n>1$ we have
              $$
              a_{n, k}=a_{n-1, 1}+a_{n-1, 2}+dotsb+a_{n-1, k-1}+a_{n-1, k}=a_{n, k-1}+a_{n-1, k}
              $$

              with $n+k-1=n-1+k=Y$ and so we can use induction to obtain



              $$
              a_{n, k}=frac{(k+n-3)!}{(k-2)!(n-1)!}+frac{(k+n-3)!}{(k-1)!(n-2)!}=frac{(k+n-3)!}{(k-2)!(n-2)!(n-1)}+frac{(k+n-3)!}{(k-2)!(n-2)!(k-1)}=frac{(k+n-3)!(k-1)+(k+n-3)!(n-1)}{(k-2)!(n-2)!(k-1)(n-1)}=frac{(k+n-3)!(k+n-2)}{(k-1)!(n-1)!}=frac{(k+n-2)!}{(k-1)!(n-1)!}
              $$



              Obtaining so the initial statement.






              share|cite|improve this answer























                up vote
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                up vote
                0
                down vote









                We can work by induction on the quantity $Y=k+n$. If $Y=2$ then $k=1$ and $n=1$ so
                $$
                a_{1, 1}=1=frac{(1+1-2)!}{(1-1)!(1-1)!}
                $$



                Now suppose that for a certain $Y$ the equality holds for every $k, n$ such that $Y=k+n$, so now set $n, k$ such that $n+k=Y+1$. If $n=1$ then
                $$
                a_{1, k}=frac{(k-1)!}{(k-1)!}=1
                $$



                Otherwise if $n>1$ we have
                $$
                a_{n, k}=a_{n-1, 1}+a_{n-1, 2}+dotsb+a_{n-1, k-1}+a_{n-1, k}=a_{n, k-1}+a_{n-1, k}
                $$

                with $n+k-1=n-1+k=Y$ and so we can use induction to obtain



                $$
                a_{n, k}=frac{(k+n-3)!}{(k-2)!(n-1)!}+frac{(k+n-3)!}{(k-1)!(n-2)!}=frac{(k+n-3)!}{(k-2)!(n-2)!(n-1)}+frac{(k+n-3)!}{(k-2)!(n-2)!(k-1)}=frac{(k+n-3)!(k-1)+(k+n-3)!(n-1)}{(k-2)!(n-2)!(k-1)(n-1)}=frac{(k+n-3)!(k+n-2)}{(k-1)!(n-1)!}=frac{(k+n-2)!}{(k-1)!(n-1)!}
                $$



                Obtaining so the initial statement.






                share|cite|improve this answer












                We can work by induction on the quantity $Y=k+n$. If $Y=2$ then $k=1$ and $n=1$ so
                $$
                a_{1, 1}=1=frac{(1+1-2)!}{(1-1)!(1-1)!}
                $$



                Now suppose that for a certain $Y$ the equality holds for every $k, n$ such that $Y=k+n$, so now set $n, k$ such that $n+k=Y+1$. If $n=1$ then
                $$
                a_{1, k}=frac{(k-1)!}{(k-1)!}=1
                $$



                Otherwise if $n>1$ we have
                $$
                a_{n, k}=a_{n-1, 1}+a_{n-1, 2}+dotsb+a_{n-1, k-1}+a_{n-1, k}=a_{n, k-1}+a_{n-1, k}
                $$

                with $n+k-1=n-1+k=Y$ and so we can use induction to obtain



                $$
                a_{n, k}=frac{(k+n-3)!}{(k-2)!(n-1)!}+frac{(k+n-3)!}{(k-1)!(n-2)!}=frac{(k+n-3)!}{(k-2)!(n-2)!(n-1)}+frac{(k+n-3)!}{(k-2)!(n-2)!(k-1)}=frac{(k+n-3)!(k-1)+(k+n-3)!(n-1)}{(k-2)!(n-2)!(k-1)(n-1)}=frac{(k+n-3)!(k+n-2)}{(k-1)!(n-1)!}=frac{(k+n-2)!}{(k-1)!(n-1)!}
                $$



                Obtaining so the initial statement.







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                answered Nov 19 at 21:24









                P De Donato

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