An aplication of the Hahn-Banach separation theorem: multiplier rule











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In convex analysis optimization, I would like to show that the necessary conditions of the multiplier rule correspond to the nonexistence of a decrease direction. I would like to prove the following theorem:



Theorem: Let ${zeta_i : i = 1,2,...,k }$ finite subset in $X^{*}$ - dual space of the normed space $X$. The following are equivalent:



$(a)$ There is no $v in X$ such that $langle zeta_i , v rangle < 0 , forall i = 1,...,k$;



$(b)$ The set ${zeta_i : i = 1,2,...,k }$ is positively linearly dependent : there exists a nonzero nonnegative vector $gamma in mathbb{R}^k$ such that $sum_{1}^{k} gamma_i zeta_i = 0$.



$quad$ To prove $(a) implies (b)$, I will construct two subsets and I try to use the separation theorem. Before, I enunciate such theorem:



(Hahn-Banach separation theorem)



Let $K_1$ and $K_2$ be nonempty, disjoint
convex subsets of the normed space $X$. If $K_1$ is open, then the sets can be separated. That is, there exist $gamma$$X^{*}$ and $eta$ ∈ R such that
$$langle gamma , x rangle < eta leq langle gamma , y rangle, quad forall x in K_1 , y in K_2.$$



To apply the separation theorem, let



$$K_1 = {y in mathbb{R}^k : y_i < 0, forall i}, quad K_2 = { (langle zeta_1 , v rangle , ..., zeta_k , v rangle) : v in X }$$



The sets $K_1 , K_2$ are both convex and nonempty. By $(a)$ the sets are disjoint. Then, by the separation theorem, exist $eta in mathbb{R}$ and $gamma in mathbb{R}^k$. It is straightforward show that $eta = 0$ and



$$ 0 leq sum gamma_i langle zeta_i , v rangle, quad forall v in X.$$



I can't show the nonnegative of $gamma$ and the other inequality



$$ 0 geq sum gamma_i langle zeta_i , v rangle, quad forall v in X.$$



Some help?










share|cite|improve this question


























    up vote
    1
    down vote

    favorite












    In convex analysis optimization, I would like to show that the necessary conditions of the multiplier rule correspond to the nonexistence of a decrease direction. I would like to prove the following theorem:



    Theorem: Let ${zeta_i : i = 1,2,...,k }$ finite subset in $X^{*}$ - dual space of the normed space $X$. The following are equivalent:



    $(a)$ There is no $v in X$ such that $langle zeta_i , v rangle < 0 , forall i = 1,...,k$;



    $(b)$ The set ${zeta_i : i = 1,2,...,k }$ is positively linearly dependent : there exists a nonzero nonnegative vector $gamma in mathbb{R}^k$ such that $sum_{1}^{k} gamma_i zeta_i = 0$.



    $quad$ To prove $(a) implies (b)$, I will construct two subsets and I try to use the separation theorem. Before, I enunciate such theorem:



    (Hahn-Banach separation theorem)



    Let $K_1$ and $K_2$ be nonempty, disjoint
    convex subsets of the normed space $X$. If $K_1$ is open, then the sets can be separated. That is, there exist $gamma$$X^{*}$ and $eta$ ∈ R such that
    $$langle gamma , x rangle < eta leq langle gamma , y rangle, quad forall x in K_1 , y in K_2.$$



    To apply the separation theorem, let



    $$K_1 = {y in mathbb{R}^k : y_i < 0, forall i}, quad K_2 = { (langle zeta_1 , v rangle , ..., zeta_k , v rangle) : v in X }$$



    The sets $K_1 , K_2$ are both convex and nonempty. By $(a)$ the sets are disjoint. Then, by the separation theorem, exist $eta in mathbb{R}$ and $gamma in mathbb{R}^k$. It is straightforward show that $eta = 0$ and



    $$ 0 leq sum gamma_i langle zeta_i , v rangle, quad forall v in X.$$



    I can't show the nonnegative of $gamma$ and the other inequality



    $$ 0 geq sum gamma_i langle zeta_i , v rangle, quad forall v in X.$$



    Some help?










    share|cite|improve this question
























      up vote
      1
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      1
      down vote

      favorite











      In convex analysis optimization, I would like to show that the necessary conditions of the multiplier rule correspond to the nonexistence of a decrease direction. I would like to prove the following theorem:



      Theorem: Let ${zeta_i : i = 1,2,...,k }$ finite subset in $X^{*}$ - dual space of the normed space $X$. The following are equivalent:



      $(a)$ There is no $v in X$ such that $langle zeta_i , v rangle < 0 , forall i = 1,...,k$;



      $(b)$ The set ${zeta_i : i = 1,2,...,k }$ is positively linearly dependent : there exists a nonzero nonnegative vector $gamma in mathbb{R}^k$ such that $sum_{1}^{k} gamma_i zeta_i = 0$.



      $quad$ To prove $(a) implies (b)$, I will construct two subsets and I try to use the separation theorem. Before, I enunciate such theorem:



      (Hahn-Banach separation theorem)



      Let $K_1$ and $K_2$ be nonempty, disjoint
      convex subsets of the normed space $X$. If $K_1$ is open, then the sets can be separated. That is, there exist $gamma$$X^{*}$ and $eta$ ∈ R such that
      $$langle gamma , x rangle < eta leq langle gamma , y rangle, quad forall x in K_1 , y in K_2.$$



      To apply the separation theorem, let



      $$K_1 = {y in mathbb{R}^k : y_i < 0, forall i}, quad K_2 = { (langle zeta_1 , v rangle , ..., zeta_k , v rangle) : v in X }$$



      The sets $K_1 , K_2$ are both convex and nonempty. By $(a)$ the sets are disjoint. Then, by the separation theorem, exist $eta in mathbb{R}$ and $gamma in mathbb{R}^k$. It is straightforward show that $eta = 0$ and



      $$ 0 leq sum gamma_i langle zeta_i , v rangle, quad forall v in X.$$



      I can't show the nonnegative of $gamma$ and the other inequality



      $$ 0 geq sum gamma_i langle zeta_i , v rangle, quad forall v in X.$$



      Some help?










      share|cite|improve this question













      In convex analysis optimization, I would like to show that the necessary conditions of the multiplier rule correspond to the nonexistence of a decrease direction. I would like to prove the following theorem:



      Theorem: Let ${zeta_i : i = 1,2,...,k }$ finite subset in $X^{*}$ - dual space of the normed space $X$. The following are equivalent:



      $(a)$ There is no $v in X$ such that $langle zeta_i , v rangle < 0 , forall i = 1,...,k$;



      $(b)$ The set ${zeta_i : i = 1,2,...,k }$ is positively linearly dependent : there exists a nonzero nonnegative vector $gamma in mathbb{R}^k$ such that $sum_{1}^{k} gamma_i zeta_i = 0$.



      $quad$ To prove $(a) implies (b)$, I will construct two subsets and I try to use the separation theorem. Before, I enunciate such theorem:



      (Hahn-Banach separation theorem)



      Let $K_1$ and $K_2$ be nonempty, disjoint
      convex subsets of the normed space $X$. If $K_1$ is open, then the sets can be separated. That is, there exist $gamma$$X^{*}$ and $eta$ ∈ R such that
      $$langle gamma , x rangle < eta leq langle gamma , y rangle, quad forall x in K_1 , y in K_2.$$



      To apply the separation theorem, let



      $$K_1 = {y in mathbb{R}^k : y_i < 0, forall i}, quad K_2 = { (langle zeta_1 , v rangle , ..., zeta_k , v rangle) : v in X }$$



      The sets $K_1 , K_2$ are both convex and nonempty. By $(a)$ the sets are disjoint. Then, by the separation theorem, exist $eta in mathbb{R}$ and $gamma in mathbb{R}^k$. It is straightforward show that $eta = 0$ and



      $$ 0 leq sum gamma_i langle zeta_i , v rangle, quad forall v in X.$$



      I can't show the nonnegative of $gamma$ and the other inequality



      $$ 0 geq sum gamma_i langle zeta_i , v rangle, quad forall v in X.$$



      Some help?







      convex-analysis separation-axioms






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      asked Nov 19 at 21:56









      orrillo

      296110




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          1 Answer
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          up vote
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          Hints:




          1. Assume $gamma_m<0$ for some $m$. Then fix $x_0in K_1$ and note that $x_t=x_0-t e_min K_1$, $forall tge 0$ ($e_m$ is the $m$th vector of the canonical basis of $Bbb R^k$). What $langlegamma, x_trangle<0$ would mean for $tto+infty$?

          2. Other inequality: $-vin X$.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • Yes, this is true. I think I focused a lot on the $K_2$ set and not on the $K_1$ set. Thank you!
            – orrillo
            Nov 20 at 2:21










          • Only one doubt. I tried to imagine the set $K_2 $ in small dimensions. For example. I think that in the case $k = 2$ we have lines $x = 0$ or $y = 0$ and in the case $k = 3$, maybe planes of the form $x = 0$, $y = 0$ or $z = 0$. Or maybe lines in the tridemsional space.
            – orrillo
            Nov 20 at 2:26








          • 1




            @orrillo For $k=2$: if $zeta_1$, $zeta_2$ are linearly independent then $K_2={Bbb R}^2$. If they are linearly dependent then $K_2$ is a line through the origin. It can be any line, not just the axes $x=0$ or $y=0$. If we denote $x=langlezeta_1,vrangle$ and $y=langlezeta_2,vrangle$, for dependent $zeta_i$ we can find $gamma_1$, $gamma_2$ such that $gamma_1x+gamma_2y=langlegamma_1zeta_1+gamma_2zeta_2,vrangle=0$. However, if (a) is true, the line cannot go in the third quadrant, which is $K_1$.
            – A.Γ.
            Nov 20 at 7:14













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          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

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          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes








          up vote
          1
          down vote



          accepted










          Hints:




          1. Assume $gamma_m<0$ for some $m$. Then fix $x_0in K_1$ and note that $x_t=x_0-t e_min K_1$, $forall tge 0$ ($e_m$ is the $m$th vector of the canonical basis of $Bbb R^k$). What $langlegamma, x_trangle<0$ would mean for $tto+infty$?

          2. Other inequality: $-vin X$.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • Yes, this is true. I think I focused a lot on the $K_2$ set and not on the $K_1$ set. Thank you!
            – orrillo
            Nov 20 at 2:21










          • Only one doubt. I tried to imagine the set $K_2 $ in small dimensions. For example. I think that in the case $k = 2$ we have lines $x = 0$ or $y = 0$ and in the case $k = 3$, maybe planes of the form $x = 0$, $y = 0$ or $z = 0$. Or maybe lines in the tridemsional space.
            – orrillo
            Nov 20 at 2:26








          • 1




            @orrillo For $k=2$: if $zeta_1$, $zeta_2$ are linearly independent then $K_2={Bbb R}^2$. If they are linearly dependent then $K_2$ is a line through the origin. It can be any line, not just the axes $x=0$ or $y=0$. If we denote $x=langlezeta_1,vrangle$ and $y=langlezeta_2,vrangle$, for dependent $zeta_i$ we can find $gamma_1$, $gamma_2$ such that $gamma_1x+gamma_2y=langlegamma_1zeta_1+gamma_2zeta_2,vrangle=0$. However, if (a) is true, the line cannot go in the third quadrant, which is $K_1$.
            – A.Γ.
            Nov 20 at 7:14

















          up vote
          1
          down vote



          accepted










          Hints:




          1. Assume $gamma_m<0$ for some $m$. Then fix $x_0in K_1$ and note that $x_t=x_0-t e_min K_1$, $forall tge 0$ ($e_m$ is the $m$th vector of the canonical basis of $Bbb R^k$). What $langlegamma, x_trangle<0$ would mean for $tto+infty$?

          2. Other inequality: $-vin X$.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • Yes, this is true. I think I focused a lot on the $K_2$ set and not on the $K_1$ set. Thank you!
            – orrillo
            Nov 20 at 2:21










          • Only one doubt. I tried to imagine the set $K_2 $ in small dimensions. For example. I think that in the case $k = 2$ we have lines $x = 0$ or $y = 0$ and in the case $k = 3$, maybe planes of the form $x = 0$, $y = 0$ or $z = 0$. Or maybe lines in the tridemsional space.
            – orrillo
            Nov 20 at 2:26








          • 1




            @orrillo For $k=2$: if $zeta_1$, $zeta_2$ are linearly independent then $K_2={Bbb R}^2$. If they are linearly dependent then $K_2$ is a line through the origin. It can be any line, not just the axes $x=0$ or $y=0$. If we denote $x=langlezeta_1,vrangle$ and $y=langlezeta_2,vrangle$, for dependent $zeta_i$ we can find $gamma_1$, $gamma_2$ such that $gamma_1x+gamma_2y=langlegamma_1zeta_1+gamma_2zeta_2,vrangle=0$. However, if (a) is true, the line cannot go in the third quadrant, which is $K_1$.
            – A.Γ.
            Nov 20 at 7:14















          up vote
          1
          down vote



          accepted







          up vote
          1
          down vote



          accepted






          Hints:




          1. Assume $gamma_m<0$ for some $m$. Then fix $x_0in K_1$ and note that $x_t=x_0-t e_min K_1$, $forall tge 0$ ($e_m$ is the $m$th vector of the canonical basis of $Bbb R^k$). What $langlegamma, x_trangle<0$ would mean for $tto+infty$?

          2. Other inequality: $-vin X$.






          share|cite|improve this answer












          Hints:




          1. Assume $gamma_m<0$ for some $m$. Then fix $x_0in K_1$ and note that $x_t=x_0-t e_min K_1$, $forall tge 0$ ($e_m$ is the $m$th vector of the canonical basis of $Bbb R^k$). What $langlegamma, x_trangle<0$ would mean for $tto+infty$?

          2. Other inequality: $-vin X$.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Nov 19 at 23:04









          A.Γ.

          21.4k22455




          21.4k22455












          • Yes, this is true. I think I focused a lot on the $K_2$ set and not on the $K_1$ set. Thank you!
            – orrillo
            Nov 20 at 2:21










          • Only one doubt. I tried to imagine the set $K_2 $ in small dimensions. For example. I think that in the case $k = 2$ we have lines $x = 0$ or $y = 0$ and in the case $k = 3$, maybe planes of the form $x = 0$, $y = 0$ or $z = 0$. Or maybe lines in the tridemsional space.
            – orrillo
            Nov 20 at 2:26








          • 1




            @orrillo For $k=2$: if $zeta_1$, $zeta_2$ are linearly independent then $K_2={Bbb R}^2$. If they are linearly dependent then $K_2$ is a line through the origin. It can be any line, not just the axes $x=0$ or $y=0$. If we denote $x=langlezeta_1,vrangle$ and $y=langlezeta_2,vrangle$, for dependent $zeta_i$ we can find $gamma_1$, $gamma_2$ such that $gamma_1x+gamma_2y=langlegamma_1zeta_1+gamma_2zeta_2,vrangle=0$. However, if (a) is true, the line cannot go in the third quadrant, which is $K_1$.
            – A.Γ.
            Nov 20 at 7:14




















          • Yes, this is true. I think I focused a lot on the $K_2$ set and not on the $K_1$ set. Thank you!
            – orrillo
            Nov 20 at 2:21










          • Only one doubt. I tried to imagine the set $K_2 $ in small dimensions. For example. I think that in the case $k = 2$ we have lines $x = 0$ or $y = 0$ and in the case $k = 3$, maybe planes of the form $x = 0$, $y = 0$ or $z = 0$. Or maybe lines in the tridemsional space.
            – orrillo
            Nov 20 at 2:26








          • 1




            @orrillo For $k=2$: if $zeta_1$, $zeta_2$ are linearly independent then $K_2={Bbb R}^2$. If they are linearly dependent then $K_2$ is a line through the origin. It can be any line, not just the axes $x=0$ or $y=0$. If we denote $x=langlezeta_1,vrangle$ and $y=langlezeta_2,vrangle$, for dependent $zeta_i$ we can find $gamma_1$, $gamma_2$ such that $gamma_1x+gamma_2y=langlegamma_1zeta_1+gamma_2zeta_2,vrangle=0$. However, if (a) is true, the line cannot go in the third quadrant, which is $K_1$.
            – A.Γ.
            Nov 20 at 7:14


















          Yes, this is true. I think I focused a lot on the $K_2$ set and not on the $K_1$ set. Thank you!
          – orrillo
          Nov 20 at 2:21




          Yes, this is true. I think I focused a lot on the $K_2$ set and not on the $K_1$ set. Thank you!
          – orrillo
          Nov 20 at 2:21












          Only one doubt. I tried to imagine the set $K_2 $ in small dimensions. For example. I think that in the case $k = 2$ we have lines $x = 0$ or $y = 0$ and in the case $k = 3$, maybe planes of the form $x = 0$, $y = 0$ or $z = 0$. Or maybe lines in the tridemsional space.
          – orrillo
          Nov 20 at 2:26






          Only one doubt. I tried to imagine the set $K_2 $ in small dimensions. For example. I think that in the case $k = 2$ we have lines $x = 0$ or $y = 0$ and in the case $k = 3$, maybe planes of the form $x = 0$, $y = 0$ or $z = 0$. Or maybe lines in the tridemsional space.
          – orrillo
          Nov 20 at 2:26






          1




          1




          @orrillo For $k=2$: if $zeta_1$, $zeta_2$ are linearly independent then $K_2={Bbb R}^2$. If they are linearly dependent then $K_2$ is a line through the origin. It can be any line, not just the axes $x=0$ or $y=0$. If we denote $x=langlezeta_1,vrangle$ and $y=langlezeta_2,vrangle$, for dependent $zeta_i$ we can find $gamma_1$, $gamma_2$ such that $gamma_1x+gamma_2y=langlegamma_1zeta_1+gamma_2zeta_2,vrangle=0$. However, if (a) is true, the line cannot go in the third quadrant, which is $K_1$.
          – A.Γ.
          Nov 20 at 7:14






          @orrillo For $k=2$: if $zeta_1$, $zeta_2$ are linearly independent then $K_2={Bbb R}^2$. If they are linearly dependent then $K_2$ is a line through the origin. It can be any line, not just the axes $x=0$ or $y=0$. If we denote $x=langlezeta_1,vrangle$ and $y=langlezeta_2,vrangle$, for dependent $zeta_i$ we can find $gamma_1$, $gamma_2$ such that $gamma_1x+gamma_2y=langlegamma_1zeta_1+gamma_2zeta_2,vrangle=0$. However, if (a) is true, the line cannot go in the third quadrant, which is $K_1$.
          – A.Γ.
          Nov 20 at 7:14




















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