solving natural log inequality
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How can I show that
$0 le (sum_{x=1}^{n}frac{1}{x})-ln(n) le 1 - frac{1}{n}$
Do I raise both sides by $e$ or perhaps take integral of both sides? If so, I'm still not quite sure where to go from there
calculus inequality proof-writing logarithms proof-explanation
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
favorite
How can I show that
$0 le (sum_{x=1}^{n}frac{1}{x})-ln(n) le 1 - frac{1}{n}$
Do I raise both sides by $e$ or perhaps take integral of both sides? If so, I'm still not quite sure where to go from there
calculus inequality proof-writing logarithms proof-explanation
1
Use $ln n =int_1^n frac{1}{x} ; dx$ and think about the graph of the sum and the graph of $1/x.$
– B. Goddard
Nov 16 at 12:14
@B.Goddard it seems to give 1 as the higher bound not $1-frac{1}{n}$
– Arnaud Mégret
Nov 16 at 12:37
3
well the property is wrong as for n=1, it gives $1 le 0$
– Arnaud Mégret
Nov 16 at 12:40
If you have the rectangle for $1/1$ abutting the $y$-axis, then the graph of $1/x$ is above all the rectangles. There are little triangle-ish pieces between the curve and the stair steps. Each triangle-oid is above the next, so you can push them all to the left, into the $1times 1$ square. If you stop at $n$, there is a black space in the bottom of that first square, and it's area is at least $1/n.$
– B. Goddard
Nov 16 at 13:14
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
favorite
up vote
1
down vote
favorite
How can I show that
$0 le (sum_{x=1}^{n}frac{1}{x})-ln(n) le 1 - frac{1}{n}$
Do I raise both sides by $e$ or perhaps take integral of both sides? If so, I'm still not quite sure where to go from there
calculus inequality proof-writing logarithms proof-explanation
How can I show that
$0 le (sum_{x=1}^{n}frac{1}{x})-ln(n) le 1 - frac{1}{n}$
Do I raise both sides by $e$ or perhaps take integral of both sides? If so, I'm still not quite sure where to go from there
calculus inequality proof-writing logarithms proof-explanation
calculus inequality proof-writing logarithms proof-explanation
asked Nov 16 at 11:38
user3427042
314112
314112
1
Use $ln n =int_1^n frac{1}{x} ; dx$ and think about the graph of the sum and the graph of $1/x.$
– B. Goddard
Nov 16 at 12:14
@B.Goddard it seems to give 1 as the higher bound not $1-frac{1}{n}$
– Arnaud Mégret
Nov 16 at 12:37
3
well the property is wrong as for n=1, it gives $1 le 0$
– Arnaud Mégret
Nov 16 at 12:40
If you have the rectangle for $1/1$ abutting the $y$-axis, then the graph of $1/x$ is above all the rectangles. There are little triangle-ish pieces between the curve and the stair steps. Each triangle-oid is above the next, so you can push them all to the left, into the $1times 1$ square. If you stop at $n$, there is a black space in the bottom of that first square, and it's area is at least $1/n.$
– B. Goddard
Nov 16 at 13:14
add a comment |
1
Use $ln n =int_1^n frac{1}{x} ; dx$ and think about the graph of the sum and the graph of $1/x.$
– B. Goddard
Nov 16 at 12:14
@B.Goddard it seems to give 1 as the higher bound not $1-frac{1}{n}$
– Arnaud Mégret
Nov 16 at 12:37
3
well the property is wrong as for n=1, it gives $1 le 0$
– Arnaud Mégret
Nov 16 at 12:40
If you have the rectangle for $1/1$ abutting the $y$-axis, then the graph of $1/x$ is above all the rectangles. There are little triangle-ish pieces between the curve and the stair steps. Each triangle-oid is above the next, so you can push them all to the left, into the $1times 1$ square. If you stop at $n$, there is a black space in the bottom of that first square, and it's area is at least $1/n.$
– B. Goddard
Nov 16 at 13:14
1
1
Use $ln n =int_1^n frac{1}{x} ; dx$ and think about the graph of the sum and the graph of $1/x.$
– B. Goddard
Nov 16 at 12:14
Use $ln n =int_1^n frac{1}{x} ; dx$ and think about the graph of the sum and the graph of $1/x.$
– B. Goddard
Nov 16 at 12:14
@B.Goddard it seems to give 1 as the higher bound not $1-frac{1}{n}$
– Arnaud Mégret
Nov 16 at 12:37
@B.Goddard it seems to give 1 as the higher bound not $1-frac{1}{n}$
– Arnaud Mégret
Nov 16 at 12:37
3
3
well the property is wrong as for n=1, it gives $1 le 0$
– Arnaud Mégret
Nov 16 at 12:40
well the property is wrong as for n=1, it gives $1 le 0$
– Arnaud Mégret
Nov 16 at 12:40
If you have the rectangle for $1/1$ abutting the $y$-axis, then the graph of $1/x$ is above all the rectangles. There are little triangle-ish pieces between the curve and the stair steps. Each triangle-oid is above the next, so you can push them all to the left, into the $1times 1$ square. If you stop at $n$, there is a black space in the bottom of that first square, and it's area is at least $1/n.$
– B. Goddard
Nov 16 at 13:14
If you have the rectangle for $1/1$ abutting the $y$-axis, then the graph of $1/x$ is above all the rectangles. There are little triangle-ish pieces between the curve and the stair steps. Each triangle-oid is above the next, so you can push them all to the left, into the $1times 1$ square. If you stop at $n$, there is a black space in the bottom of that first square, and it's area is at least $1/n.$
– B. Goddard
Nov 16 at 13:14
add a comment |
2 Answers
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Start with a basic integration of $frac{1}{x}$ from $n-1$ to $n$.
$$int_{n}^{n+1}frac{1}{n} - frac{1}{x}dx$$
Since $frac1n$ is the lower limit of this decreasing function, the value of the integrand will always be greater than or equal to $0$ through out the interval of integration.
Now if you sum this up from $n = 1$ to $n-1$, you get
$$int_{1}^{n}left(frac{1}{1} + frac{1}{2}+ frac{1}{3}...frac{1}{n-1}right) - frac{1}{x} dx$$
$$int_{1}^{n} left(sum_{i=1}^{n-1}frac{1}{i}right)- frac{1}{x}dx$$
$$left(sum_{i=1}^{n-1}frac{1}{i}right) - log n$$
Sum of non negative quantities always give a non negative quantity, and hence the above quantity is $geq 0$, thus proving the first part of the inequality.
For the second part, sketch out the box using the graph of $frac1x$ from $n$ to $n+1$ on x-axis with $frac1n$ to $frac{1}{n+1}$ on y-axis. Now if you shade the area of this box that pertains to the integrand in the first equation, you'll notice that it is always less than equal to the area of the box.
$$left(int_{n}^{n+1}frac{1}{n} - frac{1}{x}dxright) leq A_{box}$$
$$A_{box} = left(frac{1}{n} - frac1{n+1}right)(n+1 - n) = left(frac{1}{n} - frac1{n+1}right)$$
Similarly as before, sum the inequality on both sides from $1$ to $n-1$ to get
$$left(sum_{i=1}^{n-1}frac{1}{i}right) - log n leq (1 -frac12) + (frac12 - frac13) + (frac13 - frac14) ... (frac1{n-1} -frac1n) $$
$$left(sum_{i=1}^{n-1}frac{1}{i}right) - log n leq 1 - frac1n $$
Thus, proving the second part of the inequality
add a comment |
up vote
0
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Actually we have
$$displaystylesum_{k=1}^{n}frac{1}{k+1}<ln (n+1)<displaystylesum_{k=1}^{n}frac{1}{k}$$
which maybe is what you exactly want.
Notice that we only need to prove
$$frac{1}{k+1}<ln (1+frac{1}{k})<frac{1}{k}quadforall kin mathbb{Z}^+$$
which can be yielded by
$$(frac{k+1}{k})^k<e<(frac{k+1}{k})^{k+1}$$
The inequality can be revealed by monotonicity of $(1+frac{1}{n})^{n}$ and $(1+frac{1}{n})^{n+1}$ .
And for this we have an interesting elementary proof as follows,
we have
$$ln left(1+tfrac{1}{n+1}right) = int_{1}^{1+frac{1}{n+1}}frac{1}{x},dx>frac{1}{n+2}=frac{nleft(n+1right)}{n+2}int_{1+frac{1}{n+1}}^{1+frac{1}{n}},dx > nint_{1+frac{1}{n+1}}^{1+frac{1}{n}}frac{1}{x},dx$$
Now add
$$nln left(1+tfrac{1}{n+1}right) = nint_{1}^{1+frac{1}{n+1}}frac{1}{x},dx$$
We get
$$left(n+1right)ln left(1+tfrac{1}{n+1}right) > nint_{1}^{1+frac{1}{n}}frac{1}{x},dx = nln left(1+tfrac{1}{n}right)$$
which means $(1+frac{1}{n})^{n}$ is strictly increasing.
The monotonicity of the other sequence can be similarly proved.
Added:(another elementary proof of the monotonicity)
$$ nln left(1+tfrac{1}{n}right)=int_{0}^{1}frac{n}{x+n},dx=int_{0}^{1}frac{1}{frac{x}{n}+1},dx$$
hence it is clear that the RHS is increasing, since for any $xin(0,1)$ and any $N>n$ we have
$$ frac{1}{frac{x}{n}+1}<frac{1}{frac{x}{N}+1}$$
so we have $(1+frac{1}{n})^{n}$ is strictly increasing.
The monotonicity of the other sequence can be similarly proved.
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
0
down vote
Start with a basic integration of $frac{1}{x}$ from $n-1$ to $n$.
$$int_{n}^{n+1}frac{1}{n} - frac{1}{x}dx$$
Since $frac1n$ is the lower limit of this decreasing function, the value of the integrand will always be greater than or equal to $0$ through out the interval of integration.
Now if you sum this up from $n = 1$ to $n-1$, you get
$$int_{1}^{n}left(frac{1}{1} + frac{1}{2}+ frac{1}{3}...frac{1}{n-1}right) - frac{1}{x} dx$$
$$int_{1}^{n} left(sum_{i=1}^{n-1}frac{1}{i}right)- frac{1}{x}dx$$
$$left(sum_{i=1}^{n-1}frac{1}{i}right) - log n$$
Sum of non negative quantities always give a non negative quantity, and hence the above quantity is $geq 0$, thus proving the first part of the inequality.
For the second part, sketch out the box using the graph of $frac1x$ from $n$ to $n+1$ on x-axis with $frac1n$ to $frac{1}{n+1}$ on y-axis. Now if you shade the area of this box that pertains to the integrand in the first equation, you'll notice that it is always less than equal to the area of the box.
$$left(int_{n}^{n+1}frac{1}{n} - frac{1}{x}dxright) leq A_{box}$$
$$A_{box} = left(frac{1}{n} - frac1{n+1}right)(n+1 - n) = left(frac{1}{n} - frac1{n+1}right)$$
Similarly as before, sum the inequality on both sides from $1$ to $n-1$ to get
$$left(sum_{i=1}^{n-1}frac{1}{i}right) - log n leq (1 -frac12) + (frac12 - frac13) + (frac13 - frac14) ... (frac1{n-1} -frac1n) $$
$$left(sum_{i=1}^{n-1}frac{1}{i}right) - log n leq 1 - frac1n $$
Thus, proving the second part of the inequality
add a comment |
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0
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Start with a basic integration of $frac{1}{x}$ from $n-1$ to $n$.
$$int_{n}^{n+1}frac{1}{n} - frac{1}{x}dx$$
Since $frac1n$ is the lower limit of this decreasing function, the value of the integrand will always be greater than or equal to $0$ through out the interval of integration.
Now if you sum this up from $n = 1$ to $n-1$, you get
$$int_{1}^{n}left(frac{1}{1} + frac{1}{2}+ frac{1}{3}...frac{1}{n-1}right) - frac{1}{x} dx$$
$$int_{1}^{n} left(sum_{i=1}^{n-1}frac{1}{i}right)- frac{1}{x}dx$$
$$left(sum_{i=1}^{n-1}frac{1}{i}right) - log n$$
Sum of non negative quantities always give a non negative quantity, and hence the above quantity is $geq 0$, thus proving the first part of the inequality.
For the second part, sketch out the box using the graph of $frac1x$ from $n$ to $n+1$ on x-axis with $frac1n$ to $frac{1}{n+1}$ on y-axis. Now if you shade the area of this box that pertains to the integrand in the first equation, you'll notice that it is always less than equal to the area of the box.
$$left(int_{n}^{n+1}frac{1}{n} - frac{1}{x}dxright) leq A_{box}$$
$$A_{box} = left(frac{1}{n} - frac1{n+1}right)(n+1 - n) = left(frac{1}{n} - frac1{n+1}right)$$
Similarly as before, sum the inequality on both sides from $1$ to $n-1$ to get
$$left(sum_{i=1}^{n-1}frac{1}{i}right) - log n leq (1 -frac12) + (frac12 - frac13) + (frac13 - frac14) ... (frac1{n-1} -frac1n) $$
$$left(sum_{i=1}^{n-1}frac{1}{i}right) - log n leq 1 - frac1n $$
Thus, proving the second part of the inequality
add a comment |
up vote
0
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up vote
0
down vote
Start with a basic integration of $frac{1}{x}$ from $n-1$ to $n$.
$$int_{n}^{n+1}frac{1}{n} - frac{1}{x}dx$$
Since $frac1n$ is the lower limit of this decreasing function, the value of the integrand will always be greater than or equal to $0$ through out the interval of integration.
Now if you sum this up from $n = 1$ to $n-1$, you get
$$int_{1}^{n}left(frac{1}{1} + frac{1}{2}+ frac{1}{3}...frac{1}{n-1}right) - frac{1}{x} dx$$
$$int_{1}^{n} left(sum_{i=1}^{n-1}frac{1}{i}right)- frac{1}{x}dx$$
$$left(sum_{i=1}^{n-1}frac{1}{i}right) - log n$$
Sum of non negative quantities always give a non negative quantity, and hence the above quantity is $geq 0$, thus proving the first part of the inequality.
For the second part, sketch out the box using the graph of $frac1x$ from $n$ to $n+1$ on x-axis with $frac1n$ to $frac{1}{n+1}$ on y-axis. Now if you shade the area of this box that pertains to the integrand in the first equation, you'll notice that it is always less than equal to the area of the box.
$$left(int_{n}^{n+1}frac{1}{n} - frac{1}{x}dxright) leq A_{box}$$
$$A_{box} = left(frac{1}{n} - frac1{n+1}right)(n+1 - n) = left(frac{1}{n} - frac1{n+1}right)$$
Similarly as before, sum the inequality on both sides from $1$ to $n-1$ to get
$$left(sum_{i=1}^{n-1}frac{1}{i}right) - log n leq (1 -frac12) + (frac12 - frac13) + (frac13 - frac14) ... (frac1{n-1} -frac1n) $$
$$left(sum_{i=1}^{n-1}frac{1}{i}right) - log n leq 1 - frac1n $$
Thus, proving the second part of the inequality
Start with a basic integration of $frac{1}{x}$ from $n-1$ to $n$.
$$int_{n}^{n+1}frac{1}{n} - frac{1}{x}dx$$
Since $frac1n$ is the lower limit of this decreasing function, the value of the integrand will always be greater than or equal to $0$ through out the interval of integration.
Now if you sum this up from $n = 1$ to $n-1$, you get
$$int_{1}^{n}left(frac{1}{1} + frac{1}{2}+ frac{1}{3}...frac{1}{n-1}right) - frac{1}{x} dx$$
$$int_{1}^{n} left(sum_{i=1}^{n-1}frac{1}{i}right)- frac{1}{x}dx$$
$$left(sum_{i=1}^{n-1}frac{1}{i}right) - log n$$
Sum of non negative quantities always give a non negative quantity, and hence the above quantity is $geq 0$, thus proving the first part of the inequality.
For the second part, sketch out the box using the graph of $frac1x$ from $n$ to $n+1$ on x-axis with $frac1n$ to $frac{1}{n+1}$ on y-axis. Now if you shade the area of this box that pertains to the integrand in the first equation, you'll notice that it is always less than equal to the area of the box.
$$left(int_{n}^{n+1}frac{1}{n} - frac{1}{x}dxright) leq A_{box}$$
$$A_{box} = left(frac{1}{n} - frac1{n+1}right)(n+1 - n) = left(frac{1}{n} - frac1{n+1}right)$$
Similarly as before, sum the inequality on both sides from $1$ to $n-1$ to get
$$left(sum_{i=1}^{n-1}frac{1}{i}right) - log n leq (1 -frac12) + (frac12 - frac13) + (frac13 - frac14) ... (frac1{n-1} -frac1n) $$
$$left(sum_{i=1}^{n-1}frac{1}{i}right) - log n leq 1 - frac1n $$
Thus, proving the second part of the inequality
answered Nov 16 at 14:04
Sauhard Sharma
3508
3508
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0
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Actually we have
$$displaystylesum_{k=1}^{n}frac{1}{k+1}<ln (n+1)<displaystylesum_{k=1}^{n}frac{1}{k}$$
which maybe is what you exactly want.
Notice that we only need to prove
$$frac{1}{k+1}<ln (1+frac{1}{k})<frac{1}{k}quadforall kin mathbb{Z}^+$$
which can be yielded by
$$(frac{k+1}{k})^k<e<(frac{k+1}{k})^{k+1}$$
The inequality can be revealed by monotonicity of $(1+frac{1}{n})^{n}$ and $(1+frac{1}{n})^{n+1}$ .
And for this we have an interesting elementary proof as follows,
we have
$$ln left(1+tfrac{1}{n+1}right) = int_{1}^{1+frac{1}{n+1}}frac{1}{x},dx>frac{1}{n+2}=frac{nleft(n+1right)}{n+2}int_{1+frac{1}{n+1}}^{1+frac{1}{n}},dx > nint_{1+frac{1}{n+1}}^{1+frac{1}{n}}frac{1}{x},dx$$
Now add
$$nln left(1+tfrac{1}{n+1}right) = nint_{1}^{1+frac{1}{n+1}}frac{1}{x},dx$$
We get
$$left(n+1right)ln left(1+tfrac{1}{n+1}right) > nint_{1}^{1+frac{1}{n}}frac{1}{x},dx = nln left(1+tfrac{1}{n}right)$$
which means $(1+frac{1}{n})^{n}$ is strictly increasing.
The monotonicity of the other sequence can be similarly proved.
Added:(another elementary proof of the monotonicity)
$$ nln left(1+tfrac{1}{n}right)=int_{0}^{1}frac{n}{x+n},dx=int_{0}^{1}frac{1}{frac{x}{n}+1},dx$$
hence it is clear that the RHS is increasing, since for any $xin(0,1)$ and any $N>n$ we have
$$ frac{1}{frac{x}{n}+1}<frac{1}{frac{x}{N}+1}$$
so we have $(1+frac{1}{n})^{n}$ is strictly increasing.
The monotonicity of the other sequence can be similarly proved.
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
Actually we have
$$displaystylesum_{k=1}^{n}frac{1}{k+1}<ln (n+1)<displaystylesum_{k=1}^{n}frac{1}{k}$$
which maybe is what you exactly want.
Notice that we only need to prove
$$frac{1}{k+1}<ln (1+frac{1}{k})<frac{1}{k}quadforall kin mathbb{Z}^+$$
which can be yielded by
$$(frac{k+1}{k})^k<e<(frac{k+1}{k})^{k+1}$$
The inequality can be revealed by monotonicity of $(1+frac{1}{n})^{n}$ and $(1+frac{1}{n})^{n+1}$ .
And for this we have an interesting elementary proof as follows,
we have
$$ln left(1+tfrac{1}{n+1}right) = int_{1}^{1+frac{1}{n+1}}frac{1}{x},dx>frac{1}{n+2}=frac{nleft(n+1right)}{n+2}int_{1+frac{1}{n+1}}^{1+frac{1}{n}},dx > nint_{1+frac{1}{n+1}}^{1+frac{1}{n}}frac{1}{x},dx$$
Now add
$$nln left(1+tfrac{1}{n+1}right) = nint_{1}^{1+frac{1}{n+1}}frac{1}{x},dx$$
We get
$$left(n+1right)ln left(1+tfrac{1}{n+1}right) > nint_{1}^{1+frac{1}{n}}frac{1}{x},dx = nln left(1+tfrac{1}{n}right)$$
which means $(1+frac{1}{n})^{n}$ is strictly increasing.
The monotonicity of the other sequence can be similarly proved.
Added:(another elementary proof of the monotonicity)
$$ nln left(1+tfrac{1}{n}right)=int_{0}^{1}frac{n}{x+n},dx=int_{0}^{1}frac{1}{frac{x}{n}+1},dx$$
hence it is clear that the RHS is increasing, since for any $xin(0,1)$ and any $N>n$ we have
$$ frac{1}{frac{x}{n}+1}<frac{1}{frac{x}{N}+1}$$
so we have $(1+frac{1}{n})^{n}$ is strictly increasing.
The monotonicity of the other sequence can be similarly proved.
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
up vote
0
down vote
Actually we have
$$displaystylesum_{k=1}^{n}frac{1}{k+1}<ln (n+1)<displaystylesum_{k=1}^{n}frac{1}{k}$$
which maybe is what you exactly want.
Notice that we only need to prove
$$frac{1}{k+1}<ln (1+frac{1}{k})<frac{1}{k}quadforall kin mathbb{Z}^+$$
which can be yielded by
$$(frac{k+1}{k})^k<e<(frac{k+1}{k})^{k+1}$$
The inequality can be revealed by monotonicity of $(1+frac{1}{n})^{n}$ and $(1+frac{1}{n})^{n+1}$ .
And for this we have an interesting elementary proof as follows,
we have
$$ln left(1+tfrac{1}{n+1}right) = int_{1}^{1+frac{1}{n+1}}frac{1}{x},dx>frac{1}{n+2}=frac{nleft(n+1right)}{n+2}int_{1+frac{1}{n+1}}^{1+frac{1}{n}},dx > nint_{1+frac{1}{n+1}}^{1+frac{1}{n}}frac{1}{x},dx$$
Now add
$$nln left(1+tfrac{1}{n+1}right) = nint_{1}^{1+frac{1}{n+1}}frac{1}{x},dx$$
We get
$$left(n+1right)ln left(1+tfrac{1}{n+1}right) > nint_{1}^{1+frac{1}{n}}frac{1}{x},dx = nln left(1+tfrac{1}{n}right)$$
which means $(1+frac{1}{n})^{n}$ is strictly increasing.
The monotonicity of the other sequence can be similarly proved.
Added:(another elementary proof of the monotonicity)
$$ nln left(1+tfrac{1}{n}right)=int_{0}^{1}frac{n}{x+n},dx=int_{0}^{1}frac{1}{frac{x}{n}+1},dx$$
hence it is clear that the RHS is increasing, since for any $xin(0,1)$ and any $N>n$ we have
$$ frac{1}{frac{x}{n}+1}<frac{1}{frac{x}{N}+1}$$
so we have $(1+frac{1}{n})^{n}$ is strictly increasing.
The monotonicity of the other sequence can be similarly proved.
Actually we have
$$displaystylesum_{k=1}^{n}frac{1}{k+1}<ln (n+1)<displaystylesum_{k=1}^{n}frac{1}{k}$$
which maybe is what you exactly want.
Notice that we only need to prove
$$frac{1}{k+1}<ln (1+frac{1}{k})<frac{1}{k}quadforall kin mathbb{Z}^+$$
which can be yielded by
$$(frac{k+1}{k})^k<e<(frac{k+1}{k})^{k+1}$$
The inequality can be revealed by monotonicity of $(1+frac{1}{n})^{n}$ and $(1+frac{1}{n})^{n+1}$ .
And for this we have an interesting elementary proof as follows,
we have
$$ln left(1+tfrac{1}{n+1}right) = int_{1}^{1+frac{1}{n+1}}frac{1}{x},dx>frac{1}{n+2}=frac{nleft(n+1right)}{n+2}int_{1+frac{1}{n+1}}^{1+frac{1}{n}},dx > nint_{1+frac{1}{n+1}}^{1+frac{1}{n}}frac{1}{x},dx$$
Now add
$$nln left(1+tfrac{1}{n+1}right) = nint_{1}^{1+frac{1}{n+1}}frac{1}{x},dx$$
We get
$$left(n+1right)ln left(1+tfrac{1}{n+1}right) > nint_{1}^{1+frac{1}{n}}frac{1}{x},dx = nln left(1+tfrac{1}{n}right)$$
which means $(1+frac{1}{n})^{n}$ is strictly increasing.
The monotonicity of the other sequence can be similarly proved.
Added:(another elementary proof of the monotonicity)
$$ nln left(1+tfrac{1}{n}right)=int_{0}^{1}frac{n}{x+n},dx=int_{0}^{1}frac{1}{frac{x}{n}+1},dx$$
hence it is clear that the RHS is increasing, since for any $xin(0,1)$ and any $N>n$ we have
$$ frac{1}{frac{x}{n}+1}<frac{1}{frac{x}{N}+1}$$
so we have $(1+frac{1}{n})^{n}$ is strictly increasing.
The monotonicity of the other sequence can be similarly proved.
edited Nov 16 at 15:06
answered Nov 16 at 14:48
Zero
1118
1118
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1
Use $ln n =int_1^n frac{1}{x} ; dx$ and think about the graph of the sum and the graph of $1/x.$
– B. Goddard
Nov 16 at 12:14
@B.Goddard it seems to give 1 as the higher bound not $1-frac{1}{n}$
– Arnaud Mégret
Nov 16 at 12:37
3
well the property is wrong as for n=1, it gives $1 le 0$
– Arnaud Mégret
Nov 16 at 12:40
If you have the rectangle for $1/1$ abutting the $y$-axis, then the graph of $1/x$ is above all the rectangles. There are little triangle-ish pieces between the curve and the stair steps. Each triangle-oid is above the next, so you can push them all to the left, into the $1times 1$ square. If you stop at $n$, there is a black space in the bottom of that first square, and it's area is at least $1/n.$
– B. Goddard
Nov 16 at 13:14