if $ f(f(x))= x^2 + 1$ , then $ f(6)= $?











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1
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I want to know how to solve this type of questions. How can I find $ f(x)$ from $ f(f(x))$



Suppose, $ f(f(x)) = x$ , then $ f(x)=x$ or $ f(x)=dfrac{(x+1)}{(x-1)}$

how to find these solutions..

I have found one.. $ f(6) = sqrt{222} $

Is this correct?










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  • 1




    There are infinitely many real-valued functions of a real variable such that $f(f(x)) = x$, not just the two you give.
    – Rob Arthan
    Jan 14 '16 at 17:29






  • 1




    The set of involutions is not made by just those functions, and $f(f(x))=x^2+1$ does not give enough information to find a unique value $f(6)$. Do you want to find all the possible values of $f(6)$, given $f(f(x))=x^2+1$?
    – Jack D'Aurizio
    Jan 14 '16 at 17:30










  • For large values of $x$, $f(f(x))approx x^2$, for which a solution is $f(x)=x^{sqrt2}$.
    – Yves Daoust
    Jan 14 '16 at 17:30












  • Related: math.stackexchange.com/questions/3633/….
    – Martin R
    Jan 14 '16 at 17:39















up vote
1
down vote

favorite












I want to know how to solve this type of questions. How can I find $ f(x)$ from $ f(f(x))$



Suppose, $ f(f(x)) = x$ , then $ f(x)=x$ or $ f(x)=dfrac{(x+1)}{(x-1)}$

how to find these solutions..

I have found one.. $ f(6) = sqrt{222} $

Is this correct?










share|cite|improve this question




















  • 1




    There are infinitely many real-valued functions of a real variable such that $f(f(x)) = x$, not just the two you give.
    – Rob Arthan
    Jan 14 '16 at 17:29






  • 1




    The set of involutions is not made by just those functions, and $f(f(x))=x^2+1$ does not give enough information to find a unique value $f(6)$. Do you want to find all the possible values of $f(6)$, given $f(f(x))=x^2+1$?
    – Jack D'Aurizio
    Jan 14 '16 at 17:30










  • For large values of $x$, $f(f(x))approx x^2$, for which a solution is $f(x)=x^{sqrt2}$.
    – Yves Daoust
    Jan 14 '16 at 17:30












  • Related: math.stackexchange.com/questions/3633/….
    – Martin R
    Jan 14 '16 at 17:39













up vote
1
down vote

favorite









up vote
1
down vote

favorite











I want to know how to solve this type of questions. How can I find $ f(x)$ from $ f(f(x))$



Suppose, $ f(f(x)) = x$ , then $ f(x)=x$ or $ f(x)=dfrac{(x+1)}{(x-1)}$

how to find these solutions..

I have found one.. $ f(6) = sqrt{222} $

Is this correct?










share|cite|improve this question















I want to know how to solve this type of questions. How can I find $ f(x)$ from $ f(f(x))$



Suppose, $ f(f(x)) = x$ , then $ f(x)=x$ or $ f(x)=dfrac{(x+1)}{(x-1)}$

how to find these solutions..

I have found one.. $ f(6) = sqrt{222} $

Is this correct?







functions functional-equations






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share|cite|improve this question













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share|cite|improve this question








edited Jan 23 '16 at 5:05









Rezwan Arefin

1,668528




1,668528










asked Jan 14 '16 at 17:23









Symon Saroar

347




347








  • 1




    There are infinitely many real-valued functions of a real variable such that $f(f(x)) = x$, not just the two you give.
    – Rob Arthan
    Jan 14 '16 at 17:29






  • 1




    The set of involutions is not made by just those functions, and $f(f(x))=x^2+1$ does not give enough information to find a unique value $f(6)$. Do you want to find all the possible values of $f(6)$, given $f(f(x))=x^2+1$?
    – Jack D'Aurizio
    Jan 14 '16 at 17:30










  • For large values of $x$, $f(f(x))approx x^2$, for which a solution is $f(x)=x^{sqrt2}$.
    – Yves Daoust
    Jan 14 '16 at 17:30












  • Related: math.stackexchange.com/questions/3633/….
    – Martin R
    Jan 14 '16 at 17:39














  • 1




    There are infinitely many real-valued functions of a real variable such that $f(f(x)) = x$, not just the two you give.
    – Rob Arthan
    Jan 14 '16 at 17:29






  • 1




    The set of involutions is not made by just those functions, and $f(f(x))=x^2+1$ does not give enough information to find a unique value $f(6)$. Do you want to find all the possible values of $f(6)$, given $f(f(x))=x^2+1$?
    – Jack D'Aurizio
    Jan 14 '16 at 17:30










  • For large values of $x$, $f(f(x))approx x^2$, for which a solution is $f(x)=x^{sqrt2}$.
    – Yves Daoust
    Jan 14 '16 at 17:30












  • Related: math.stackexchange.com/questions/3633/….
    – Martin R
    Jan 14 '16 at 17:39








1




1




There are infinitely many real-valued functions of a real variable such that $f(f(x)) = x$, not just the two you give.
– Rob Arthan
Jan 14 '16 at 17:29




There are infinitely many real-valued functions of a real variable such that $f(f(x)) = x$, not just the two you give.
– Rob Arthan
Jan 14 '16 at 17:29




1




1




The set of involutions is not made by just those functions, and $f(f(x))=x^2+1$ does not give enough information to find a unique value $f(6)$. Do you want to find all the possible values of $f(6)$, given $f(f(x))=x^2+1$?
– Jack D'Aurizio
Jan 14 '16 at 17:30




The set of involutions is not made by just those functions, and $f(f(x))=x^2+1$ does not give enough information to find a unique value $f(6)$. Do you want to find all the possible values of $f(6)$, given $f(f(x))=x^2+1$?
– Jack D'Aurizio
Jan 14 '16 at 17:30












For large values of $x$, $f(f(x))approx x^2$, for which a solution is $f(x)=x^{sqrt2}$.
– Yves Daoust
Jan 14 '16 at 17:30






For large values of $x$, $f(f(x))approx x^2$, for which a solution is $f(x)=x^{sqrt2}$.
– Yves Daoust
Jan 14 '16 at 17:30














Related: math.stackexchange.com/questions/3633/….
– Martin R
Jan 14 '16 at 17:39




Related: math.stackexchange.com/questions/3633/….
– Martin R
Jan 14 '16 at 17:39










2 Answers
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Assume $f(x_1)=f(x_2)$. Then $x_1^2+1=f(f(x_1))=f(f(x_2))=x_2^2+1$ and so $x_2=pm x_1$.
Then from $f(f(-x))=f(f(x))$ we conclude that $f(-x)=pm f(x)$ for all $x$.



Define $gcolon [0,infty)to [0,infty)$ by $g(x)=|f(x)|$.
For $x$ with $g(x)=f(x)$ we have $$g(g(x))=|f(f(x))|=|x^2+1|=x^2+1.$$
And for $x$ with $g(x)=-f(x)$ we have $$g(g(x))=|f(-f(x))|=|pm f(f(x))|=|f(f(x))|=x^2+1$$
as well. Hence $g(g(x))=x^2+1$ for all $xge 0$.
Given a function $g$ with this property, we can easily construct a suitable $f$: Just let $f(x)=begin{cases}g(x)&xge0\g(-x)&x<0end{cases}$. If $g$ is additionally continuous then so is $f$.
We can find a lot of continuous $g$:



Pick $a_1in(0,1)$, let $a_0=0$ and recursively $a_n=a_{n-2}^2+1$ for $nge 2$. Then the sequence $(a_n)$ is strictly increasing towards $infty$.
Now let $g_1colon[0,a_1]to[a_1,1]$ be an arbitrary increasing bijection. We can work our way to infinity from there: Assume we have an increasing bijection $g_ncolon [0,a_n]to [a_1,a_{n+1}]$ such that $g(g(x))=x^2+1$ for $0le xle a_{n-1}$. Then define $g_{n+1}colon [0,a_{n+1}]to[a_1,a_{n+1}]$ by $$g_{n+1}(x)=begin{cases}g_n(x)&0le xle a_n\g_n^{-1}(x)^2+1&a_1< xle a_{n+1}end{cases}$$
(noting that the two cases agree for $a_1le xle a_n$)
and finally $g(x)=g_n(x)$ for any $n$ with $a_nge x$. One verifies that this is well-defined and indeed $g(g(x))=x^2+1$ for all $x$.



Note that the sequence of $a_n$ goes like this: $$0, a_1, 1, a_1^2+1, 2, (a_1^2+1)^2+1, 5, ((a_1^2+1)^2+1)^2+1, 26, ldots$$ and that it is quite clear that we can make our choices (even under the restriction of requiring continuous $f$) at least such that $f(x)$ is an arbitrary number between $6$ and $26$.






share|cite|improve this answer




























    up vote
    0
    down vote













    Here is a javascript function that conforms to the original poster's requirement that $f(f(x)) = x^2+1$. The original poster asked what is $f(6)$. This program computes that



    $f(6)=12.813735153397387$



    and



    $f(12.813735153397387)=37$



    QED we see $f(f(6)) = 6^2+1=37$



    function f(x) {
    x<0 && (x=-x);
    return x==x+1 ? Math.pow(x, Math.sqrt(2)) : Math.sqrt(f(x*x+1)-1);
    }


    It is not known that the function $f(x)$ can be expressed in mathematical terms (closed-form). It may be the $f(x)$ implementation in javascript above could help in discovering such a closed-form solution. I only know that the above javascript code adheres to the OP's requirement that $f(f(x)) = x^2+1$ for all $-infty<x<infty$ insofar as javascript has finite precision.



    I wrote the code, BTW. I am sharing it in the hopes that it will be useful.



    Javascript can be executed in a browser sandbox, here is one (no affiliation):
    https://jsconsole.com/



    Here is the equivalent description of the function implemented above:
    $f(x)=begin{cases}f(-x)&x<0\x^{sqrt{2}}&xapprox x+1\sqrt {f(x^2+1)-1}end{cases}$



    I believe this function is the optimal solution for $f(f(x)) = x^2+1$ but I can't prove it.






    share|cite|improve this answer























    • As the existing answer says, there's an infinite number of reasonable choices for $f$ resulting in an infinite number of possibilities for $f(6)$. So suggesting a numerical algorithm for a particular $f$ (with no explanation of or motivation for the algorithm, at that) seems rather beside the point.
      – epimorphic
      Nov 11 at 15:49












    • What's specifically wrong with it?
      – epimorphic
      Nov 11 at 18:43










    • Elaboration would be great! :)
      – epimorphic
      Nov 12 at 7:20










    • I'm looking for a smooth f(x) function that doesn't have zig-zags or elbows or a discernable period to it. The solutions that arise from Hagen von Eitzen's scheme (and it is indeed clever) seem jarring to the eye in comparison to the nice, smooth $x^2+1$ curve. They have monotonically increasing $f(x)$ but not monotonically increasing slope. Also they are only the product of an algorithm, likely making a closed-form solution unattainable. The curve my function produces suffers from none of the objections I've brought up and may be expressable in a closed-form solution. I just don't know.
      – dashxdr
      Nov 12 at 7:49













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    Assume $f(x_1)=f(x_2)$. Then $x_1^2+1=f(f(x_1))=f(f(x_2))=x_2^2+1$ and so $x_2=pm x_1$.
    Then from $f(f(-x))=f(f(x))$ we conclude that $f(-x)=pm f(x)$ for all $x$.



    Define $gcolon [0,infty)to [0,infty)$ by $g(x)=|f(x)|$.
    For $x$ with $g(x)=f(x)$ we have $$g(g(x))=|f(f(x))|=|x^2+1|=x^2+1.$$
    And for $x$ with $g(x)=-f(x)$ we have $$g(g(x))=|f(-f(x))|=|pm f(f(x))|=|f(f(x))|=x^2+1$$
    as well. Hence $g(g(x))=x^2+1$ for all $xge 0$.
    Given a function $g$ with this property, we can easily construct a suitable $f$: Just let $f(x)=begin{cases}g(x)&xge0\g(-x)&x<0end{cases}$. If $g$ is additionally continuous then so is $f$.
    We can find a lot of continuous $g$:



    Pick $a_1in(0,1)$, let $a_0=0$ and recursively $a_n=a_{n-2}^2+1$ for $nge 2$. Then the sequence $(a_n)$ is strictly increasing towards $infty$.
    Now let $g_1colon[0,a_1]to[a_1,1]$ be an arbitrary increasing bijection. We can work our way to infinity from there: Assume we have an increasing bijection $g_ncolon [0,a_n]to [a_1,a_{n+1}]$ such that $g(g(x))=x^2+1$ for $0le xle a_{n-1}$. Then define $g_{n+1}colon [0,a_{n+1}]to[a_1,a_{n+1}]$ by $$g_{n+1}(x)=begin{cases}g_n(x)&0le xle a_n\g_n^{-1}(x)^2+1&a_1< xle a_{n+1}end{cases}$$
    (noting that the two cases agree for $a_1le xle a_n$)
    and finally $g(x)=g_n(x)$ for any $n$ with $a_nge x$. One verifies that this is well-defined and indeed $g(g(x))=x^2+1$ for all $x$.



    Note that the sequence of $a_n$ goes like this: $$0, a_1, 1, a_1^2+1, 2, (a_1^2+1)^2+1, 5, ((a_1^2+1)^2+1)^2+1, 26, ldots$$ and that it is quite clear that we can make our choices (even under the restriction of requiring continuous $f$) at least such that $f(x)$ is an arbitrary number between $6$ and $26$.






    share|cite|improve this answer

























      up vote
      7
      down vote













      Assume $f(x_1)=f(x_2)$. Then $x_1^2+1=f(f(x_1))=f(f(x_2))=x_2^2+1$ and so $x_2=pm x_1$.
      Then from $f(f(-x))=f(f(x))$ we conclude that $f(-x)=pm f(x)$ for all $x$.



      Define $gcolon [0,infty)to [0,infty)$ by $g(x)=|f(x)|$.
      For $x$ with $g(x)=f(x)$ we have $$g(g(x))=|f(f(x))|=|x^2+1|=x^2+1.$$
      And for $x$ with $g(x)=-f(x)$ we have $$g(g(x))=|f(-f(x))|=|pm f(f(x))|=|f(f(x))|=x^2+1$$
      as well. Hence $g(g(x))=x^2+1$ for all $xge 0$.
      Given a function $g$ with this property, we can easily construct a suitable $f$: Just let $f(x)=begin{cases}g(x)&xge0\g(-x)&x<0end{cases}$. If $g$ is additionally continuous then so is $f$.
      We can find a lot of continuous $g$:



      Pick $a_1in(0,1)$, let $a_0=0$ and recursively $a_n=a_{n-2}^2+1$ for $nge 2$. Then the sequence $(a_n)$ is strictly increasing towards $infty$.
      Now let $g_1colon[0,a_1]to[a_1,1]$ be an arbitrary increasing bijection. We can work our way to infinity from there: Assume we have an increasing bijection $g_ncolon [0,a_n]to [a_1,a_{n+1}]$ such that $g(g(x))=x^2+1$ for $0le xle a_{n-1}$. Then define $g_{n+1}colon [0,a_{n+1}]to[a_1,a_{n+1}]$ by $$g_{n+1}(x)=begin{cases}g_n(x)&0le xle a_n\g_n^{-1}(x)^2+1&a_1< xle a_{n+1}end{cases}$$
      (noting that the two cases agree for $a_1le xle a_n$)
      and finally $g(x)=g_n(x)$ for any $n$ with $a_nge x$. One verifies that this is well-defined and indeed $g(g(x))=x^2+1$ for all $x$.



      Note that the sequence of $a_n$ goes like this: $$0, a_1, 1, a_1^2+1, 2, (a_1^2+1)^2+1, 5, ((a_1^2+1)^2+1)^2+1, 26, ldots$$ and that it is quite clear that we can make our choices (even under the restriction of requiring continuous $f$) at least such that $f(x)$ is an arbitrary number between $6$ and $26$.






      share|cite|improve this answer























        up vote
        7
        down vote










        up vote
        7
        down vote









        Assume $f(x_1)=f(x_2)$. Then $x_1^2+1=f(f(x_1))=f(f(x_2))=x_2^2+1$ and so $x_2=pm x_1$.
        Then from $f(f(-x))=f(f(x))$ we conclude that $f(-x)=pm f(x)$ for all $x$.



        Define $gcolon [0,infty)to [0,infty)$ by $g(x)=|f(x)|$.
        For $x$ with $g(x)=f(x)$ we have $$g(g(x))=|f(f(x))|=|x^2+1|=x^2+1.$$
        And for $x$ with $g(x)=-f(x)$ we have $$g(g(x))=|f(-f(x))|=|pm f(f(x))|=|f(f(x))|=x^2+1$$
        as well. Hence $g(g(x))=x^2+1$ for all $xge 0$.
        Given a function $g$ with this property, we can easily construct a suitable $f$: Just let $f(x)=begin{cases}g(x)&xge0\g(-x)&x<0end{cases}$. If $g$ is additionally continuous then so is $f$.
        We can find a lot of continuous $g$:



        Pick $a_1in(0,1)$, let $a_0=0$ and recursively $a_n=a_{n-2}^2+1$ for $nge 2$. Then the sequence $(a_n)$ is strictly increasing towards $infty$.
        Now let $g_1colon[0,a_1]to[a_1,1]$ be an arbitrary increasing bijection. We can work our way to infinity from there: Assume we have an increasing bijection $g_ncolon [0,a_n]to [a_1,a_{n+1}]$ such that $g(g(x))=x^2+1$ for $0le xle a_{n-1}$. Then define $g_{n+1}colon [0,a_{n+1}]to[a_1,a_{n+1}]$ by $$g_{n+1}(x)=begin{cases}g_n(x)&0le xle a_n\g_n^{-1}(x)^2+1&a_1< xle a_{n+1}end{cases}$$
        (noting that the two cases agree for $a_1le xle a_n$)
        and finally $g(x)=g_n(x)$ for any $n$ with $a_nge x$. One verifies that this is well-defined and indeed $g(g(x))=x^2+1$ for all $x$.



        Note that the sequence of $a_n$ goes like this: $$0, a_1, 1, a_1^2+1, 2, (a_1^2+1)^2+1, 5, ((a_1^2+1)^2+1)^2+1, 26, ldots$$ and that it is quite clear that we can make our choices (even under the restriction of requiring continuous $f$) at least such that $f(x)$ is an arbitrary number between $6$ and $26$.






        share|cite|improve this answer












        Assume $f(x_1)=f(x_2)$. Then $x_1^2+1=f(f(x_1))=f(f(x_2))=x_2^2+1$ and so $x_2=pm x_1$.
        Then from $f(f(-x))=f(f(x))$ we conclude that $f(-x)=pm f(x)$ for all $x$.



        Define $gcolon [0,infty)to [0,infty)$ by $g(x)=|f(x)|$.
        For $x$ with $g(x)=f(x)$ we have $$g(g(x))=|f(f(x))|=|x^2+1|=x^2+1.$$
        And for $x$ with $g(x)=-f(x)$ we have $$g(g(x))=|f(-f(x))|=|pm f(f(x))|=|f(f(x))|=x^2+1$$
        as well. Hence $g(g(x))=x^2+1$ for all $xge 0$.
        Given a function $g$ with this property, we can easily construct a suitable $f$: Just let $f(x)=begin{cases}g(x)&xge0\g(-x)&x<0end{cases}$. If $g$ is additionally continuous then so is $f$.
        We can find a lot of continuous $g$:



        Pick $a_1in(0,1)$, let $a_0=0$ and recursively $a_n=a_{n-2}^2+1$ for $nge 2$. Then the sequence $(a_n)$ is strictly increasing towards $infty$.
        Now let $g_1colon[0,a_1]to[a_1,1]$ be an arbitrary increasing bijection. We can work our way to infinity from there: Assume we have an increasing bijection $g_ncolon [0,a_n]to [a_1,a_{n+1}]$ such that $g(g(x))=x^2+1$ for $0le xle a_{n-1}$. Then define $g_{n+1}colon [0,a_{n+1}]to[a_1,a_{n+1}]$ by $$g_{n+1}(x)=begin{cases}g_n(x)&0le xle a_n\g_n^{-1}(x)^2+1&a_1< xle a_{n+1}end{cases}$$
        (noting that the two cases agree for $a_1le xle a_n$)
        and finally $g(x)=g_n(x)$ for any $n$ with $a_nge x$. One verifies that this is well-defined and indeed $g(g(x))=x^2+1$ for all $x$.



        Note that the sequence of $a_n$ goes like this: $$0, a_1, 1, a_1^2+1, 2, (a_1^2+1)^2+1, 5, ((a_1^2+1)^2+1)^2+1, 26, ldots$$ and that it is quite clear that we can make our choices (even under the restriction of requiring continuous $f$) at least such that $f(x)$ is an arbitrary number between $6$ and $26$.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Jan 14 '16 at 20:07









        Hagen von Eitzen

        273k21266493




        273k21266493






















            up vote
            0
            down vote













            Here is a javascript function that conforms to the original poster's requirement that $f(f(x)) = x^2+1$. The original poster asked what is $f(6)$. This program computes that



            $f(6)=12.813735153397387$



            and



            $f(12.813735153397387)=37$



            QED we see $f(f(6)) = 6^2+1=37$



            function f(x) {
            x<0 && (x=-x);
            return x==x+1 ? Math.pow(x, Math.sqrt(2)) : Math.sqrt(f(x*x+1)-1);
            }


            It is not known that the function $f(x)$ can be expressed in mathematical terms (closed-form). It may be the $f(x)$ implementation in javascript above could help in discovering such a closed-form solution. I only know that the above javascript code adheres to the OP's requirement that $f(f(x)) = x^2+1$ for all $-infty<x<infty$ insofar as javascript has finite precision.



            I wrote the code, BTW. I am sharing it in the hopes that it will be useful.



            Javascript can be executed in a browser sandbox, here is one (no affiliation):
            https://jsconsole.com/



            Here is the equivalent description of the function implemented above:
            $f(x)=begin{cases}f(-x)&x<0\x^{sqrt{2}}&xapprox x+1\sqrt {f(x^2+1)-1}end{cases}$



            I believe this function is the optimal solution for $f(f(x)) = x^2+1$ but I can't prove it.






            share|cite|improve this answer























            • As the existing answer says, there's an infinite number of reasonable choices for $f$ resulting in an infinite number of possibilities for $f(6)$. So suggesting a numerical algorithm for a particular $f$ (with no explanation of or motivation for the algorithm, at that) seems rather beside the point.
              – epimorphic
              Nov 11 at 15:49












            • What's specifically wrong with it?
              – epimorphic
              Nov 11 at 18:43










            • Elaboration would be great! :)
              – epimorphic
              Nov 12 at 7:20










            • I'm looking for a smooth f(x) function that doesn't have zig-zags or elbows or a discernable period to it. The solutions that arise from Hagen von Eitzen's scheme (and it is indeed clever) seem jarring to the eye in comparison to the nice, smooth $x^2+1$ curve. They have monotonically increasing $f(x)$ but not monotonically increasing slope. Also they are only the product of an algorithm, likely making a closed-form solution unattainable. The curve my function produces suffers from none of the objections I've brought up and may be expressable in a closed-form solution. I just don't know.
              – dashxdr
              Nov 12 at 7:49

















            up vote
            0
            down vote













            Here is a javascript function that conforms to the original poster's requirement that $f(f(x)) = x^2+1$. The original poster asked what is $f(6)$. This program computes that



            $f(6)=12.813735153397387$



            and



            $f(12.813735153397387)=37$



            QED we see $f(f(6)) = 6^2+1=37$



            function f(x) {
            x<0 && (x=-x);
            return x==x+1 ? Math.pow(x, Math.sqrt(2)) : Math.sqrt(f(x*x+1)-1);
            }


            It is not known that the function $f(x)$ can be expressed in mathematical terms (closed-form). It may be the $f(x)$ implementation in javascript above could help in discovering such a closed-form solution. I only know that the above javascript code adheres to the OP's requirement that $f(f(x)) = x^2+1$ for all $-infty<x<infty$ insofar as javascript has finite precision.



            I wrote the code, BTW. I am sharing it in the hopes that it will be useful.



            Javascript can be executed in a browser sandbox, here is one (no affiliation):
            https://jsconsole.com/



            Here is the equivalent description of the function implemented above:
            $f(x)=begin{cases}f(-x)&x<0\x^{sqrt{2}}&xapprox x+1\sqrt {f(x^2+1)-1}end{cases}$



            I believe this function is the optimal solution for $f(f(x)) = x^2+1$ but I can't prove it.






            share|cite|improve this answer























            • As the existing answer says, there's an infinite number of reasonable choices for $f$ resulting in an infinite number of possibilities for $f(6)$. So suggesting a numerical algorithm for a particular $f$ (with no explanation of or motivation for the algorithm, at that) seems rather beside the point.
              – epimorphic
              Nov 11 at 15:49












            • What's specifically wrong with it?
              – epimorphic
              Nov 11 at 18:43










            • Elaboration would be great! :)
              – epimorphic
              Nov 12 at 7:20










            • I'm looking for a smooth f(x) function that doesn't have zig-zags or elbows or a discernable period to it. The solutions that arise from Hagen von Eitzen's scheme (and it is indeed clever) seem jarring to the eye in comparison to the nice, smooth $x^2+1$ curve. They have monotonically increasing $f(x)$ but not monotonically increasing slope. Also they are only the product of an algorithm, likely making a closed-form solution unattainable. The curve my function produces suffers from none of the objections I've brought up and may be expressable in a closed-form solution. I just don't know.
              – dashxdr
              Nov 12 at 7:49















            up vote
            0
            down vote










            up vote
            0
            down vote









            Here is a javascript function that conforms to the original poster's requirement that $f(f(x)) = x^2+1$. The original poster asked what is $f(6)$. This program computes that



            $f(6)=12.813735153397387$



            and



            $f(12.813735153397387)=37$



            QED we see $f(f(6)) = 6^2+1=37$



            function f(x) {
            x<0 && (x=-x);
            return x==x+1 ? Math.pow(x, Math.sqrt(2)) : Math.sqrt(f(x*x+1)-1);
            }


            It is not known that the function $f(x)$ can be expressed in mathematical terms (closed-form). It may be the $f(x)$ implementation in javascript above could help in discovering such a closed-form solution. I only know that the above javascript code adheres to the OP's requirement that $f(f(x)) = x^2+1$ for all $-infty<x<infty$ insofar as javascript has finite precision.



            I wrote the code, BTW. I am sharing it in the hopes that it will be useful.



            Javascript can be executed in a browser sandbox, here is one (no affiliation):
            https://jsconsole.com/



            Here is the equivalent description of the function implemented above:
            $f(x)=begin{cases}f(-x)&x<0\x^{sqrt{2}}&xapprox x+1\sqrt {f(x^2+1)-1}end{cases}$



            I believe this function is the optimal solution for $f(f(x)) = x^2+1$ but I can't prove it.






            share|cite|improve this answer














            Here is a javascript function that conforms to the original poster's requirement that $f(f(x)) = x^2+1$. The original poster asked what is $f(6)$. This program computes that



            $f(6)=12.813735153397387$



            and



            $f(12.813735153397387)=37$



            QED we see $f(f(6)) = 6^2+1=37$



            function f(x) {
            x<0 && (x=-x);
            return x==x+1 ? Math.pow(x, Math.sqrt(2)) : Math.sqrt(f(x*x+1)-1);
            }


            It is not known that the function $f(x)$ can be expressed in mathematical terms (closed-form). It may be the $f(x)$ implementation in javascript above could help in discovering such a closed-form solution. I only know that the above javascript code adheres to the OP's requirement that $f(f(x)) = x^2+1$ for all $-infty<x<infty$ insofar as javascript has finite precision.



            I wrote the code, BTW. I am sharing it in the hopes that it will be useful.



            Javascript can be executed in a browser sandbox, here is one (no affiliation):
            https://jsconsole.com/



            Here is the equivalent description of the function implemented above:
            $f(x)=begin{cases}f(-x)&x<0\x^{sqrt{2}}&xapprox x+1\sqrt {f(x^2+1)-1}end{cases}$



            I believe this function is the optimal solution for $f(f(x)) = x^2+1$ but I can't prove it.







            share|cite|improve this answer














            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer








            edited Nov 14 at 4:20

























            answered Nov 11 at 14:05









            dashxdr

            63




            63












            • As the existing answer says, there's an infinite number of reasonable choices for $f$ resulting in an infinite number of possibilities for $f(6)$. So suggesting a numerical algorithm for a particular $f$ (with no explanation of or motivation for the algorithm, at that) seems rather beside the point.
              – epimorphic
              Nov 11 at 15:49












            • What's specifically wrong with it?
              – epimorphic
              Nov 11 at 18:43










            • Elaboration would be great! :)
              – epimorphic
              Nov 12 at 7:20










            • I'm looking for a smooth f(x) function that doesn't have zig-zags or elbows or a discernable period to it. The solutions that arise from Hagen von Eitzen's scheme (and it is indeed clever) seem jarring to the eye in comparison to the nice, smooth $x^2+1$ curve. They have monotonically increasing $f(x)$ but not monotonically increasing slope. Also they are only the product of an algorithm, likely making a closed-form solution unattainable. The curve my function produces suffers from none of the objections I've brought up and may be expressable in a closed-form solution. I just don't know.
              – dashxdr
              Nov 12 at 7:49




















            • As the existing answer says, there's an infinite number of reasonable choices for $f$ resulting in an infinite number of possibilities for $f(6)$. So suggesting a numerical algorithm for a particular $f$ (with no explanation of or motivation for the algorithm, at that) seems rather beside the point.
              – epimorphic
              Nov 11 at 15:49












            • What's specifically wrong with it?
              – epimorphic
              Nov 11 at 18:43










            • Elaboration would be great! :)
              – epimorphic
              Nov 12 at 7:20










            • I'm looking for a smooth f(x) function that doesn't have zig-zags or elbows or a discernable period to it. The solutions that arise from Hagen von Eitzen's scheme (and it is indeed clever) seem jarring to the eye in comparison to the nice, smooth $x^2+1$ curve. They have monotonically increasing $f(x)$ but not monotonically increasing slope. Also they are only the product of an algorithm, likely making a closed-form solution unattainable. The curve my function produces suffers from none of the objections I've brought up and may be expressable in a closed-form solution. I just don't know.
              – dashxdr
              Nov 12 at 7:49


















            As the existing answer says, there's an infinite number of reasonable choices for $f$ resulting in an infinite number of possibilities for $f(6)$. So suggesting a numerical algorithm for a particular $f$ (with no explanation of or motivation for the algorithm, at that) seems rather beside the point.
            – epimorphic
            Nov 11 at 15:49






            As the existing answer says, there's an infinite number of reasonable choices for $f$ resulting in an infinite number of possibilities for $f(6)$. So suggesting a numerical algorithm for a particular $f$ (with no explanation of or motivation for the algorithm, at that) seems rather beside the point.
            – epimorphic
            Nov 11 at 15:49














            What's specifically wrong with it?
            – epimorphic
            Nov 11 at 18:43




            What's specifically wrong with it?
            – epimorphic
            Nov 11 at 18:43












            Elaboration would be great! :)
            – epimorphic
            Nov 12 at 7:20




            Elaboration would be great! :)
            – epimorphic
            Nov 12 at 7:20












            I'm looking for a smooth f(x) function that doesn't have zig-zags or elbows or a discernable period to it. The solutions that arise from Hagen von Eitzen's scheme (and it is indeed clever) seem jarring to the eye in comparison to the nice, smooth $x^2+1$ curve. They have monotonically increasing $f(x)$ but not monotonically increasing slope. Also they are only the product of an algorithm, likely making a closed-form solution unattainable. The curve my function produces suffers from none of the objections I've brought up and may be expressable in a closed-form solution. I just don't know.
            – dashxdr
            Nov 12 at 7:49






            I'm looking for a smooth f(x) function that doesn't have zig-zags or elbows or a discernable period to it. The solutions that arise from Hagen von Eitzen's scheme (and it is indeed clever) seem jarring to the eye in comparison to the nice, smooth $x^2+1$ curve. They have monotonically increasing $f(x)$ but not monotonically increasing slope. Also they are only the product of an algorithm, likely making a closed-form solution unattainable. The curve my function produces suffers from none of the objections I've brought up and may be expressable in a closed-form solution. I just don't know.
            – dashxdr
            Nov 12 at 7:49




















             

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