if $ f(f(x))= x^2 + 1$ , then $ f(6)= $?
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I want to know how to solve this type of questions. How can I find $ f(x)$ from $ f(f(x))$
Suppose, $ f(f(x)) = x$ , then $ f(x)=x$ or $ f(x)=dfrac{(x+1)}{(x-1)}$
how to find these solutions..
I have found one.. $ f(6) = sqrt{222} $
Is this correct?
functions functional-equations
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up vote
1
down vote
favorite
I want to know how to solve this type of questions. How can I find $ f(x)$ from $ f(f(x))$
Suppose, $ f(f(x)) = x$ , then $ f(x)=x$ or $ f(x)=dfrac{(x+1)}{(x-1)}$
how to find these solutions..
I have found one.. $ f(6) = sqrt{222} $
Is this correct?
functions functional-equations
1
There are infinitely many real-valued functions of a real variable such that $f(f(x)) = x$, not just the two you give.
– Rob Arthan
Jan 14 '16 at 17:29
1
The set of involutions is not made by just those functions, and $f(f(x))=x^2+1$ does not give enough information to find a unique value $f(6)$. Do you want to find all the possible values of $f(6)$, given $f(f(x))=x^2+1$?
– Jack D'Aurizio
Jan 14 '16 at 17:30
For large values of $x$, $f(f(x))approx x^2$, for which a solution is $f(x)=x^{sqrt2}$.
– Yves Daoust
Jan 14 '16 at 17:30
Related: math.stackexchange.com/questions/3633/….
– Martin R
Jan 14 '16 at 17:39
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
favorite
up vote
1
down vote
favorite
I want to know how to solve this type of questions. How can I find $ f(x)$ from $ f(f(x))$
Suppose, $ f(f(x)) = x$ , then $ f(x)=x$ or $ f(x)=dfrac{(x+1)}{(x-1)}$
how to find these solutions..
I have found one.. $ f(6) = sqrt{222} $
Is this correct?
functions functional-equations
I want to know how to solve this type of questions. How can I find $ f(x)$ from $ f(f(x))$
Suppose, $ f(f(x)) = x$ , then $ f(x)=x$ or $ f(x)=dfrac{(x+1)}{(x-1)}$
how to find these solutions..
I have found one.. $ f(6) = sqrt{222} $
Is this correct?
functions functional-equations
functions functional-equations
edited Jan 23 '16 at 5:05
Rezwan Arefin
1,668528
1,668528
asked Jan 14 '16 at 17:23
Symon Saroar
347
347
1
There are infinitely many real-valued functions of a real variable such that $f(f(x)) = x$, not just the two you give.
– Rob Arthan
Jan 14 '16 at 17:29
1
The set of involutions is not made by just those functions, and $f(f(x))=x^2+1$ does not give enough information to find a unique value $f(6)$. Do you want to find all the possible values of $f(6)$, given $f(f(x))=x^2+1$?
– Jack D'Aurizio
Jan 14 '16 at 17:30
For large values of $x$, $f(f(x))approx x^2$, for which a solution is $f(x)=x^{sqrt2}$.
– Yves Daoust
Jan 14 '16 at 17:30
Related: math.stackexchange.com/questions/3633/….
– Martin R
Jan 14 '16 at 17:39
add a comment |
1
There are infinitely many real-valued functions of a real variable such that $f(f(x)) = x$, not just the two you give.
– Rob Arthan
Jan 14 '16 at 17:29
1
The set of involutions is not made by just those functions, and $f(f(x))=x^2+1$ does not give enough information to find a unique value $f(6)$. Do you want to find all the possible values of $f(6)$, given $f(f(x))=x^2+1$?
– Jack D'Aurizio
Jan 14 '16 at 17:30
For large values of $x$, $f(f(x))approx x^2$, for which a solution is $f(x)=x^{sqrt2}$.
– Yves Daoust
Jan 14 '16 at 17:30
Related: math.stackexchange.com/questions/3633/….
– Martin R
Jan 14 '16 at 17:39
1
1
There are infinitely many real-valued functions of a real variable such that $f(f(x)) = x$, not just the two you give.
– Rob Arthan
Jan 14 '16 at 17:29
There are infinitely many real-valued functions of a real variable such that $f(f(x)) = x$, not just the two you give.
– Rob Arthan
Jan 14 '16 at 17:29
1
1
The set of involutions is not made by just those functions, and $f(f(x))=x^2+1$ does not give enough information to find a unique value $f(6)$. Do you want to find all the possible values of $f(6)$, given $f(f(x))=x^2+1$?
– Jack D'Aurizio
Jan 14 '16 at 17:30
The set of involutions is not made by just those functions, and $f(f(x))=x^2+1$ does not give enough information to find a unique value $f(6)$. Do you want to find all the possible values of $f(6)$, given $f(f(x))=x^2+1$?
– Jack D'Aurizio
Jan 14 '16 at 17:30
For large values of $x$, $f(f(x))approx x^2$, for which a solution is $f(x)=x^{sqrt2}$.
– Yves Daoust
Jan 14 '16 at 17:30
For large values of $x$, $f(f(x))approx x^2$, for which a solution is $f(x)=x^{sqrt2}$.
– Yves Daoust
Jan 14 '16 at 17:30
Related: math.stackexchange.com/questions/3633/….
– Martin R
Jan 14 '16 at 17:39
Related: math.stackexchange.com/questions/3633/….
– Martin R
Jan 14 '16 at 17:39
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
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up vote
7
down vote
Assume $f(x_1)=f(x_2)$. Then $x_1^2+1=f(f(x_1))=f(f(x_2))=x_2^2+1$ and so $x_2=pm x_1$.
Then from $f(f(-x))=f(f(x))$ we conclude that $f(-x)=pm f(x)$ for all $x$.
Define $gcolon [0,infty)to [0,infty)$ by $g(x)=|f(x)|$.
For $x$ with $g(x)=f(x)$ we have $$g(g(x))=|f(f(x))|=|x^2+1|=x^2+1.$$
And for $x$ with $g(x)=-f(x)$ we have $$g(g(x))=|f(-f(x))|=|pm f(f(x))|=|f(f(x))|=x^2+1$$
as well. Hence $g(g(x))=x^2+1$ for all $xge 0$.
Given a function $g$ with this property, we can easily construct a suitable $f$: Just let $f(x)=begin{cases}g(x)&xge0\g(-x)&x<0end{cases}$. If $g$ is additionally continuous then so is $f$.
We can find a lot of continuous $g$:
Pick $a_1in(0,1)$, let $a_0=0$ and recursively $a_n=a_{n-2}^2+1$ for $nge 2$. Then the sequence $(a_n)$ is strictly increasing towards $infty$.
Now let $g_1colon[0,a_1]to[a_1,1]$ be an arbitrary increasing bijection. We can work our way to infinity from there: Assume we have an increasing bijection $g_ncolon [0,a_n]to [a_1,a_{n+1}]$ such that $g(g(x))=x^2+1$ for $0le xle a_{n-1}$. Then define $g_{n+1}colon [0,a_{n+1}]to[a_1,a_{n+1}]$ by $$g_{n+1}(x)=begin{cases}g_n(x)&0le xle a_n\g_n^{-1}(x)^2+1&a_1< xle a_{n+1}end{cases}$$
(noting that the two cases agree for $a_1le xle a_n$)
and finally $g(x)=g_n(x)$ for any $n$ with $a_nge x$. One verifies that this is well-defined and indeed $g(g(x))=x^2+1$ for all $x$.
Note that the sequence of $a_n$ goes like this: $$0, a_1, 1, a_1^2+1, 2, (a_1^2+1)^2+1, 5, ((a_1^2+1)^2+1)^2+1, 26, ldots$$ and that it is quite clear that we can make our choices (even under the restriction of requiring continuous $f$) at least such that $f(x)$ is an arbitrary number between $6$ and $26$.
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
Here is a javascript function that conforms to the original poster's requirement that $f(f(x)) = x^2+1$. The original poster asked what is $f(6)$. This program computes that
$f(6)=12.813735153397387$
and
$f(12.813735153397387)=37$
QED we see $f(f(6)) = 6^2+1=37$
function f(x) {
x<0 && (x=-x);
return x==x+1 ? Math.pow(x, Math.sqrt(2)) : Math.sqrt(f(x*x+1)-1);
}
It is not known that the function $f(x)$ can be expressed in mathematical terms (closed-form). It may be the $f(x)$ implementation in javascript above could help in discovering such a closed-form solution. I only know that the above javascript code adheres to the OP's requirement that $f(f(x)) = x^2+1$ for all $-infty<x<infty$ insofar as javascript has finite precision.
I wrote the code, BTW. I am sharing it in the hopes that it will be useful.
Javascript can be executed in a browser sandbox, here is one (no affiliation):
https://jsconsole.com/
Here is the equivalent description of the function implemented above:
$f(x)=begin{cases}f(-x)&x<0\x^{sqrt{2}}&xapprox x+1\sqrt {f(x^2+1)-1}end{cases}$
I believe this function is the optimal solution for $f(f(x)) = x^2+1$ but I can't prove it.
As the existing answer says, there's an infinite number of reasonable choices for $f$ resulting in an infinite number of possibilities for $f(6)$. So suggesting a numerical algorithm for a particular $f$ (with no explanation of or motivation for the algorithm, at that) seems rather beside the point.
– epimorphic
Nov 11 at 15:49
What's specifically wrong with it?
– epimorphic
Nov 11 at 18:43
Elaboration would be great! :)
– epimorphic
Nov 12 at 7:20
I'm looking for a smooth f(x) function that doesn't have zig-zags or elbows or a discernable period to it. The solutions that arise from Hagen von Eitzen's scheme (and it is indeed clever) seem jarring to the eye in comparison to the nice, smooth $x^2+1$ curve. They have monotonically increasing $f(x)$ but not monotonically increasing slope. Also they are only the product of an algorithm, likely making a closed-form solution unattainable. The curve my function produces suffers from none of the objections I've brought up and may be expressable in a closed-form solution. I just don't know.
– dashxdr
Nov 12 at 7:49
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
7
down vote
Assume $f(x_1)=f(x_2)$. Then $x_1^2+1=f(f(x_1))=f(f(x_2))=x_2^2+1$ and so $x_2=pm x_1$.
Then from $f(f(-x))=f(f(x))$ we conclude that $f(-x)=pm f(x)$ for all $x$.
Define $gcolon [0,infty)to [0,infty)$ by $g(x)=|f(x)|$.
For $x$ with $g(x)=f(x)$ we have $$g(g(x))=|f(f(x))|=|x^2+1|=x^2+1.$$
And for $x$ with $g(x)=-f(x)$ we have $$g(g(x))=|f(-f(x))|=|pm f(f(x))|=|f(f(x))|=x^2+1$$
as well. Hence $g(g(x))=x^2+1$ for all $xge 0$.
Given a function $g$ with this property, we can easily construct a suitable $f$: Just let $f(x)=begin{cases}g(x)&xge0\g(-x)&x<0end{cases}$. If $g$ is additionally continuous then so is $f$.
We can find a lot of continuous $g$:
Pick $a_1in(0,1)$, let $a_0=0$ and recursively $a_n=a_{n-2}^2+1$ for $nge 2$. Then the sequence $(a_n)$ is strictly increasing towards $infty$.
Now let $g_1colon[0,a_1]to[a_1,1]$ be an arbitrary increasing bijection. We can work our way to infinity from there: Assume we have an increasing bijection $g_ncolon [0,a_n]to [a_1,a_{n+1}]$ such that $g(g(x))=x^2+1$ for $0le xle a_{n-1}$. Then define $g_{n+1}colon [0,a_{n+1}]to[a_1,a_{n+1}]$ by $$g_{n+1}(x)=begin{cases}g_n(x)&0le xle a_n\g_n^{-1}(x)^2+1&a_1< xle a_{n+1}end{cases}$$
(noting that the two cases agree for $a_1le xle a_n$)
and finally $g(x)=g_n(x)$ for any $n$ with $a_nge x$. One verifies that this is well-defined and indeed $g(g(x))=x^2+1$ for all $x$.
Note that the sequence of $a_n$ goes like this: $$0, a_1, 1, a_1^2+1, 2, (a_1^2+1)^2+1, 5, ((a_1^2+1)^2+1)^2+1, 26, ldots$$ and that it is quite clear that we can make our choices (even under the restriction of requiring continuous $f$) at least such that $f(x)$ is an arbitrary number between $6$ and $26$.
add a comment |
up vote
7
down vote
Assume $f(x_1)=f(x_2)$. Then $x_1^2+1=f(f(x_1))=f(f(x_2))=x_2^2+1$ and so $x_2=pm x_1$.
Then from $f(f(-x))=f(f(x))$ we conclude that $f(-x)=pm f(x)$ for all $x$.
Define $gcolon [0,infty)to [0,infty)$ by $g(x)=|f(x)|$.
For $x$ with $g(x)=f(x)$ we have $$g(g(x))=|f(f(x))|=|x^2+1|=x^2+1.$$
And for $x$ with $g(x)=-f(x)$ we have $$g(g(x))=|f(-f(x))|=|pm f(f(x))|=|f(f(x))|=x^2+1$$
as well. Hence $g(g(x))=x^2+1$ for all $xge 0$.
Given a function $g$ with this property, we can easily construct a suitable $f$: Just let $f(x)=begin{cases}g(x)&xge0\g(-x)&x<0end{cases}$. If $g$ is additionally continuous then so is $f$.
We can find a lot of continuous $g$:
Pick $a_1in(0,1)$, let $a_0=0$ and recursively $a_n=a_{n-2}^2+1$ for $nge 2$. Then the sequence $(a_n)$ is strictly increasing towards $infty$.
Now let $g_1colon[0,a_1]to[a_1,1]$ be an arbitrary increasing bijection. We can work our way to infinity from there: Assume we have an increasing bijection $g_ncolon [0,a_n]to [a_1,a_{n+1}]$ such that $g(g(x))=x^2+1$ for $0le xle a_{n-1}$. Then define $g_{n+1}colon [0,a_{n+1}]to[a_1,a_{n+1}]$ by $$g_{n+1}(x)=begin{cases}g_n(x)&0le xle a_n\g_n^{-1}(x)^2+1&a_1< xle a_{n+1}end{cases}$$
(noting that the two cases agree for $a_1le xle a_n$)
and finally $g(x)=g_n(x)$ for any $n$ with $a_nge x$. One verifies that this is well-defined and indeed $g(g(x))=x^2+1$ for all $x$.
Note that the sequence of $a_n$ goes like this: $$0, a_1, 1, a_1^2+1, 2, (a_1^2+1)^2+1, 5, ((a_1^2+1)^2+1)^2+1, 26, ldots$$ and that it is quite clear that we can make our choices (even under the restriction of requiring continuous $f$) at least such that $f(x)$ is an arbitrary number between $6$ and $26$.
add a comment |
up vote
7
down vote
up vote
7
down vote
Assume $f(x_1)=f(x_2)$. Then $x_1^2+1=f(f(x_1))=f(f(x_2))=x_2^2+1$ and so $x_2=pm x_1$.
Then from $f(f(-x))=f(f(x))$ we conclude that $f(-x)=pm f(x)$ for all $x$.
Define $gcolon [0,infty)to [0,infty)$ by $g(x)=|f(x)|$.
For $x$ with $g(x)=f(x)$ we have $$g(g(x))=|f(f(x))|=|x^2+1|=x^2+1.$$
And for $x$ with $g(x)=-f(x)$ we have $$g(g(x))=|f(-f(x))|=|pm f(f(x))|=|f(f(x))|=x^2+1$$
as well. Hence $g(g(x))=x^2+1$ for all $xge 0$.
Given a function $g$ with this property, we can easily construct a suitable $f$: Just let $f(x)=begin{cases}g(x)&xge0\g(-x)&x<0end{cases}$. If $g$ is additionally continuous then so is $f$.
We can find a lot of continuous $g$:
Pick $a_1in(0,1)$, let $a_0=0$ and recursively $a_n=a_{n-2}^2+1$ for $nge 2$. Then the sequence $(a_n)$ is strictly increasing towards $infty$.
Now let $g_1colon[0,a_1]to[a_1,1]$ be an arbitrary increasing bijection. We can work our way to infinity from there: Assume we have an increasing bijection $g_ncolon [0,a_n]to [a_1,a_{n+1}]$ such that $g(g(x))=x^2+1$ for $0le xle a_{n-1}$. Then define $g_{n+1}colon [0,a_{n+1}]to[a_1,a_{n+1}]$ by $$g_{n+1}(x)=begin{cases}g_n(x)&0le xle a_n\g_n^{-1}(x)^2+1&a_1< xle a_{n+1}end{cases}$$
(noting that the two cases agree for $a_1le xle a_n$)
and finally $g(x)=g_n(x)$ for any $n$ with $a_nge x$. One verifies that this is well-defined and indeed $g(g(x))=x^2+1$ for all $x$.
Note that the sequence of $a_n$ goes like this: $$0, a_1, 1, a_1^2+1, 2, (a_1^2+1)^2+1, 5, ((a_1^2+1)^2+1)^2+1, 26, ldots$$ and that it is quite clear that we can make our choices (even under the restriction of requiring continuous $f$) at least such that $f(x)$ is an arbitrary number between $6$ and $26$.
Assume $f(x_1)=f(x_2)$. Then $x_1^2+1=f(f(x_1))=f(f(x_2))=x_2^2+1$ and so $x_2=pm x_1$.
Then from $f(f(-x))=f(f(x))$ we conclude that $f(-x)=pm f(x)$ for all $x$.
Define $gcolon [0,infty)to [0,infty)$ by $g(x)=|f(x)|$.
For $x$ with $g(x)=f(x)$ we have $$g(g(x))=|f(f(x))|=|x^2+1|=x^2+1.$$
And for $x$ with $g(x)=-f(x)$ we have $$g(g(x))=|f(-f(x))|=|pm f(f(x))|=|f(f(x))|=x^2+1$$
as well. Hence $g(g(x))=x^2+1$ for all $xge 0$.
Given a function $g$ with this property, we can easily construct a suitable $f$: Just let $f(x)=begin{cases}g(x)&xge0\g(-x)&x<0end{cases}$. If $g$ is additionally continuous then so is $f$.
We can find a lot of continuous $g$:
Pick $a_1in(0,1)$, let $a_0=0$ and recursively $a_n=a_{n-2}^2+1$ for $nge 2$. Then the sequence $(a_n)$ is strictly increasing towards $infty$.
Now let $g_1colon[0,a_1]to[a_1,1]$ be an arbitrary increasing bijection. We can work our way to infinity from there: Assume we have an increasing bijection $g_ncolon [0,a_n]to [a_1,a_{n+1}]$ such that $g(g(x))=x^2+1$ for $0le xle a_{n-1}$. Then define $g_{n+1}colon [0,a_{n+1}]to[a_1,a_{n+1}]$ by $$g_{n+1}(x)=begin{cases}g_n(x)&0le xle a_n\g_n^{-1}(x)^2+1&a_1< xle a_{n+1}end{cases}$$
(noting that the two cases agree for $a_1le xle a_n$)
and finally $g(x)=g_n(x)$ for any $n$ with $a_nge x$. One verifies that this is well-defined and indeed $g(g(x))=x^2+1$ for all $x$.
Note that the sequence of $a_n$ goes like this: $$0, a_1, 1, a_1^2+1, 2, (a_1^2+1)^2+1, 5, ((a_1^2+1)^2+1)^2+1, 26, ldots$$ and that it is quite clear that we can make our choices (even under the restriction of requiring continuous $f$) at least such that $f(x)$ is an arbitrary number between $6$ and $26$.
answered Jan 14 '16 at 20:07
Hagen von Eitzen
273k21266493
273k21266493
add a comment |
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
Here is a javascript function that conforms to the original poster's requirement that $f(f(x)) = x^2+1$. The original poster asked what is $f(6)$. This program computes that
$f(6)=12.813735153397387$
and
$f(12.813735153397387)=37$
QED we see $f(f(6)) = 6^2+1=37$
function f(x) {
x<0 && (x=-x);
return x==x+1 ? Math.pow(x, Math.sqrt(2)) : Math.sqrt(f(x*x+1)-1);
}
It is not known that the function $f(x)$ can be expressed in mathematical terms (closed-form). It may be the $f(x)$ implementation in javascript above could help in discovering such a closed-form solution. I only know that the above javascript code adheres to the OP's requirement that $f(f(x)) = x^2+1$ for all $-infty<x<infty$ insofar as javascript has finite precision.
I wrote the code, BTW. I am sharing it in the hopes that it will be useful.
Javascript can be executed in a browser sandbox, here is one (no affiliation):
https://jsconsole.com/
Here is the equivalent description of the function implemented above:
$f(x)=begin{cases}f(-x)&x<0\x^{sqrt{2}}&xapprox x+1\sqrt {f(x^2+1)-1}end{cases}$
I believe this function is the optimal solution for $f(f(x)) = x^2+1$ but I can't prove it.
As the existing answer says, there's an infinite number of reasonable choices for $f$ resulting in an infinite number of possibilities for $f(6)$. So suggesting a numerical algorithm for a particular $f$ (with no explanation of or motivation for the algorithm, at that) seems rather beside the point.
– epimorphic
Nov 11 at 15:49
What's specifically wrong with it?
– epimorphic
Nov 11 at 18:43
Elaboration would be great! :)
– epimorphic
Nov 12 at 7:20
I'm looking for a smooth f(x) function that doesn't have zig-zags or elbows or a discernable period to it. The solutions that arise from Hagen von Eitzen's scheme (and it is indeed clever) seem jarring to the eye in comparison to the nice, smooth $x^2+1$ curve. They have monotonically increasing $f(x)$ but not monotonically increasing slope. Also they are only the product of an algorithm, likely making a closed-form solution unattainable. The curve my function produces suffers from none of the objections I've brought up and may be expressable in a closed-form solution. I just don't know.
– dashxdr
Nov 12 at 7:49
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
Here is a javascript function that conforms to the original poster's requirement that $f(f(x)) = x^2+1$. The original poster asked what is $f(6)$. This program computes that
$f(6)=12.813735153397387$
and
$f(12.813735153397387)=37$
QED we see $f(f(6)) = 6^2+1=37$
function f(x) {
x<0 && (x=-x);
return x==x+1 ? Math.pow(x, Math.sqrt(2)) : Math.sqrt(f(x*x+1)-1);
}
It is not known that the function $f(x)$ can be expressed in mathematical terms (closed-form). It may be the $f(x)$ implementation in javascript above could help in discovering such a closed-form solution. I only know that the above javascript code adheres to the OP's requirement that $f(f(x)) = x^2+1$ for all $-infty<x<infty$ insofar as javascript has finite precision.
I wrote the code, BTW. I am sharing it in the hopes that it will be useful.
Javascript can be executed in a browser sandbox, here is one (no affiliation):
https://jsconsole.com/
Here is the equivalent description of the function implemented above:
$f(x)=begin{cases}f(-x)&x<0\x^{sqrt{2}}&xapprox x+1\sqrt {f(x^2+1)-1}end{cases}$
I believe this function is the optimal solution for $f(f(x)) = x^2+1$ but I can't prove it.
As the existing answer says, there's an infinite number of reasonable choices for $f$ resulting in an infinite number of possibilities for $f(6)$. So suggesting a numerical algorithm for a particular $f$ (with no explanation of or motivation for the algorithm, at that) seems rather beside the point.
– epimorphic
Nov 11 at 15:49
What's specifically wrong with it?
– epimorphic
Nov 11 at 18:43
Elaboration would be great! :)
– epimorphic
Nov 12 at 7:20
I'm looking for a smooth f(x) function that doesn't have zig-zags or elbows or a discernable period to it. The solutions that arise from Hagen von Eitzen's scheme (and it is indeed clever) seem jarring to the eye in comparison to the nice, smooth $x^2+1$ curve. They have monotonically increasing $f(x)$ but not monotonically increasing slope. Also they are only the product of an algorithm, likely making a closed-form solution unattainable. The curve my function produces suffers from none of the objections I've brought up and may be expressable in a closed-form solution. I just don't know.
– dashxdr
Nov 12 at 7:49
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
up vote
0
down vote
Here is a javascript function that conforms to the original poster's requirement that $f(f(x)) = x^2+1$. The original poster asked what is $f(6)$. This program computes that
$f(6)=12.813735153397387$
and
$f(12.813735153397387)=37$
QED we see $f(f(6)) = 6^2+1=37$
function f(x) {
x<0 && (x=-x);
return x==x+1 ? Math.pow(x, Math.sqrt(2)) : Math.sqrt(f(x*x+1)-1);
}
It is not known that the function $f(x)$ can be expressed in mathematical terms (closed-form). It may be the $f(x)$ implementation in javascript above could help in discovering such a closed-form solution. I only know that the above javascript code adheres to the OP's requirement that $f(f(x)) = x^2+1$ for all $-infty<x<infty$ insofar as javascript has finite precision.
I wrote the code, BTW. I am sharing it in the hopes that it will be useful.
Javascript can be executed in a browser sandbox, here is one (no affiliation):
https://jsconsole.com/
Here is the equivalent description of the function implemented above:
$f(x)=begin{cases}f(-x)&x<0\x^{sqrt{2}}&xapprox x+1\sqrt {f(x^2+1)-1}end{cases}$
I believe this function is the optimal solution for $f(f(x)) = x^2+1$ but I can't prove it.
Here is a javascript function that conforms to the original poster's requirement that $f(f(x)) = x^2+1$. The original poster asked what is $f(6)$. This program computes that
$f(6)=12.813735153397387$
and
$f(12.813735153397387)=37$
QED we see $f(f(6)) = 6^2+1=37$
function f(x) {
x<0 && (x=-x);
return x==x+1 ? Math.pow(x, Math.sqrt(2)) : Math.sqrt(f(x*x+1)-1);
}
It is not known that the function $f(x)$ can be expressed in mathematical terms (closed-form). It may be the $f(x)$ implementation in javascript above could help in discovering such a closed-form solution. I only know that the above javascript code adheres to the OP's requirement that $f(f(x)) = x^2+1$ for all $-infty<x<infty$ insofar as javascript has finite precision.
I wrote the code, BTW. I am sharing it in the hopes that it will be useful.
Javascript can be executed in a browser sandbox, here is one (no affiliation):
https://jsconsole.com/
Here is the equivalent description of the function implemented above:
$f(x)=begin{cases}f(-x)&x<0\x^{sqrt{2}}&xapprox x+1\sqrt {f(x^2+1)-1}end{cases}$
I believe this function is the optimal solution for $f(f(x)) = x^2+1$ but I can't prove it.
edited Nov 14 at 4:20
answered Nov 11 at 14:05
dashxdr
63
63
As the existing answer says, there's an infinite number of reasonable choices for $f$ resulting in an infinite number of possibilities for $f(6)$. So suggesting a numerical algorithm for a particular $f$ (with no explanation of or motivation for the algorithm, at that) seems rather beside the point.
– epimorphic
Nov 11 at 15:49
What's specifically wrong with it?
– epimorphic
Nov 11 at 18:43
Elaboration would be great! :)
– epimorphic
Nov 12 at 7:20
I'm looking for a smooth f(x) function that doesn't have zig-zags or elbows or a discernable period to it. The solutions that arise from Hagen von Eitzen's scheme (and it is indeed clever) seem jarring to the eye in comparison to the nice, smooth $x^2+1$ curve. They have monotonically increasing $f(x)$ but not monotonically increasing slope. Also they are only the product of an algorithm, likely making a closed-form solution unattainable. The curve my function produces suffers from none of the objections I've brought up and may be expressable in a closed-form solution. I just don't know.
– dashxdr
Nov 12 at 7:49
add a comment |
As the existing answer says, there's an infinite number of reasonable choices for $f$ resulting in an infinite number of possibilities for $f(6)$. So suggesting a numerical algorithm for a particular $f$ (with no explanation of or motivation for the algorithm, at that) seems rather beside the point.
– epimorphic
Nov 11 at 15:49
What's specifically wrong with it?
– epimorphic
Nov 11 at 18:43
Elaboration would be great! :)
– epimorphic
Nov 12 at 7:20
I'm looking for a smooth f(x) function that doesn't have zig-zags or elbows or a discernable period to it. The solutions that arise from Hagen von Eitzen's scheme (and it is indeed clever) seem jarring to the eye in comparison to the nice, smooth $x^2+1$ curve. They have monotonically increasing $f(x)$ but not monotonically increasing slope. Also they are only the product of an algorithm, likely making a closed-form solution unattainable. The curve my function produces suffers from none of the objections I've brought up and may be expressable in a closed-form solution. I just don't know.
– dashxdr
Nov 12 at 7:49
As the existing answer says, there's an infinite number of reasonable choices for $f$ resulting in an infinite number of possibilities for $f(6)$. So suggesting a numerical algorithm for a particular $f$ (with no explanation of or motivation for the algorithm, at that) seems rather beside the point.
– epimorphic
Nov 11 at 15:49
As the existing answer says, there's an infinite number of reasonable choices for $f$ resulting in an infinite number of possibilities for $f(6)$. So suggesting a numerical algorithm for a particular $f$ (with no explanation of or motivation for the algorithm, at that) seems rather beside the point.
– epimorphic
Nov 11 at 15:49
What's specifically wrong with it?
– epimorphic
Nov 11 at 18:43
What's specifically wrong with it?
– epimorphic
Nov 11 at 18:43
Elaboration would be great! :)
– epimorphic
Nov 12 at 7:20
Elaboration would be great! :)
– epimorphic
Nov 12 at 7:20
I'm looking for a smooth f(x) function that doesn't have zig-zags or elbows or a discernable period to it. The solutions that arise from Hagen von Eitzen's scheme (and it is indeed clever) seem jarring to the eye in comparison to the nice, smooth $x^2+1$ curve. They have monotonically increasing $f(x)$ but not monotonically increasing slope. Also they are only the product of an algorithm, likely making a closed-form solution unattainable. The curve my function produces suffers from none of the objections I've brought up and may be expressable in a closed-form solution. I just don't know.
– dashxdr
Nov 12 at 7:49
I'm looking for a smooth f(x) function that doesn't have zig-zags or elbows or a discernable period to it. The solutions that arise from Hagen von Eitzen's scheme (and it is indeed clever) seem jarring to the eye in comparison to the nice, smooth $x^2+1$ curve. They have monotonically increasing $f(x)$ but not monotonically increasing slope. Also they are only the product of an algorithm, likely making a closed-form solution unattainable. The curve my function produces suffers from none of the objections I've brought up and may be expressable in a closed-form solution. I just don't know.
– dashxdr
Nov 12 at 7:49
add a comment |
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1
There are infinitely many real-valued functions of a real variable such that $f(f(x)) = x$, not just the two you give.
– Rob Arthan
Jan 14 '16 at 17:29
1
The set of involutions is not made by just those functions, and $f(f(x))=x^2+1$ does not give enough information to find a unique value $f(6)$. Do you want to find all the possible values of $f(6)$, given $f(f(x))=x^2+1$?
– Jack D'Aurizio
Jan 14 '16 at 17:30
For large values of $x$, $f(f(x))approx x^2$, for which a solution is $f(x)=x^{sqrt2}$.
– Yves Daoust
Jan 14 '16 at 17:30
Related: math.stackexchange.com/questions/3633/….
– Martin R
Jan 14 '16 at 17:39