How often will $a_{n+1}=|a_n|^psin a_n$ tend to $0$?











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Consider sequence $a_1=x$, $a_{n+1}=|a_n|^psin a_n$. Denote $S$ the set $Big{x Bigvert limlimits_{ntoinfty}a_n=0Big}$, whats the value of $$lim_{xtoinfty}frac1{2x}mu([-x,x]cap S)?$$
(where $mu(M)$ denotes the measure of $M$)




I tried starting with $p=2$. I plotted the graph of $ln |a_n|$ with many $x$. It seems that almost every $x$ will make the limit tends to $0$.

For $0le p< 1$, I can prove that the limit is $1$. All of the $x$ will make $limlimits_{ntoinfty}a_n$ tend to $0$.

Also, I can calculate that for $p=1$ the limit we want to find is also $1$.










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  • Do you require $p>0$ ?
    – Gabriel Romon
    Nov 14 at 8:27










  • No. When $p<-1$ the limit I want to find can be easily found as $0$.
    – Kemono Chen
    Nov 14 at 8:53










  • When $p>1$, $a_n to 0$ iff $|a_n| < 1$ for some $n$. Therefore, it suffices to show $cup_{n ge 0} f^{-n}(E)$ has full measure, where $f(x) = x^2sin(x)$ and $E = {x in mathbb{R} : x^2|sin(x)| > 1}$. Note that $E$ looks like $cup_{k in mathbb{Z}} [2pi k - epsilon_k, 2pi k+epsilon_k]$ for $epsilon_k sim frac{1}{4pi^2 k^2}$.
    – mathworker21
    Nov 15 at 15:30

















up vote
3
down vote

favorite
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Consider sequence $a_1=x$, $a_{n+1}=|a_n|^psin a_n$. Denote $S$ the set $Big{x Bigvert limlimits_{ntoinfty}a_n=0Big}$, whats the value of $$lim_{xtoinfty}frac1{2x}mu([-x,x]cap S)?$$
(where $mu(M)$ denotes the measure of $M$)




I tried starting with $p=2$. I plotted the graph of $ln |a_n|$ with many $x$. It seems that almost every $x$ will make the limit tends to $0$.

For $0le p< 1$, I can prove that the limit is $1$. All of the $x$ will make $limlimits_{ntoinfty}a_n$ tend to $0$.

Also, I can calculate that for $p=1$ the limit we want to find is also $1$.










share|cite|improve this question
























  • Do you require $p>0$ ?
    – Gabriel Romon
    Nov 14 at 8:27










  • No. When $p<-1$ the limit I want to find can be easily found as $0$.
    – Kemono Chen
    Nov 14 at 8:53










  • When $p>1$, $a_n to 0$ iff $|a_n| < 1$ for some $n$. Therefore, it suffices to show $cup_{n ge 0} f^{-n}(E)$ has full measure, where $f(x) = x^2sin(x)$ and $E = {x in mathbb{R} : x^2|sin(x)| > 1}$. Note that $E$ looks like $cup_{k in mathbb{Z}} [2pi k - epsilon_k, 2pi k+epsilon_k]$ for $epsilon_k sim frac{1}{4pi^2 k^2}$.
    – mathworker21
    Nov 15 at 15:30















up vote
3
down vote

favorite
3









up vote
3
down vote

favorite
3






3






Consider sequence $a_1=x$, $a_{n+1}=|a_n|^psin a_n$. Denote $S$ the set $Big{x Bigvert limlimits_{ntoinfty}a_n=0Big}$, whats the value of $$lim_{xtoinfty}frac1{2x}mu([-x,x]cap S)?$$
(where $mu(M)$ denotes the measure of $M$)




I tried starting with $p=2$. I plotted the graph of $ln |a_n|$ with many $x$. It seems that almost every $x$ will make the limit tends to $0$.

For $0le p< 1$, I can prove that the limit is $1$. All of the $x$ will make $limlimits_{ntoinfty}a_n$ tend to $0$.

Also, I can calculate that for $p=1$ the limit we want to find is also $1$.










share|cite|improve this question
















Consider sequence $a_1=x$, $a_{n+1}=|a_n|^psin a_n$. Denote $S$ the set $Big{x Bigvert limlimits_{ntoinfty}a_n=0Big}$, whats the value of $$lim_{xtoinfty}frac1{2x}mu([-x,x]cap S)?$$
(where $mu(M)$ denotes the measure of $M$)




I tried starting with $p=2$. I plotted the graph of $ln |a_n|$ with many $x$. It seems that almost every $x$ will make the limit tends to $0$.

For $0le p< 1$, I can prove that the limit is $1$. All of the $x$ will make $limlimits_{ntoinfty}a_n$ tend to $0$.

Also, I can calculate that for $p=1$ the limit we want to find is also $1$.







sequences-and-series convergence






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edited Nov 14 at 8:21

























asked Nov 14 at 7:51









Kemono Chen

1,601330




1,601330












  • Do you require $p>0$ ?
    – Gabriel Romon
    Nov 14 at 8:27










  • No. When $p<-1$ the limit I want to find can be easily found as $0$.
    – Kemono Chen
    Nov 14 at 8:53










  • When $p>1$, $a_n to 0$ iff $|a_n| < 1$ for some $n$. Therefore, it suffices to show $cup_{n ge 0} f^{-n}(E)$ has full measure, where $f(x) = x^2sin(x)$ and $E = {x in mathbb{R} : x^2|sin(x)| > 1}$. Note that $E$ looks like $cup_{k in mathbb{Z}} [2pi k - epsilon_k, 2pi k+epsilon_k]$ for $epsilon_k sim frac{1}{4pi^2 k^2}$.
    – mathworker21
    Nov 15 at 15:30




















  • Do you require $p>0$ ?
    – Gabriel Romon
    Nov 14 at 8:27










  • No. When $p<-1$ the limit I want to find can be easily found as $0$.
    – Kemono Chen
    Nov 14 at 8:53










  • When $p>1$, $a_n to 0$ iff $|a_n| < 1$ for some $n$. Therefore, it suffices to show $cup_{n ge 0} f^{-n}(E)$ has full measure, where $f(x) = x^2sin(x)$ and $E = {x in mathbb{R} : x^2|sin(x)| > 1}$. Note that $E$ looks like $cup_{k in mathbb{Z}} [2pi k - epsilon_k, 2pi k+epsilon_k]$ for $epsilon_k sim frac{1}{4pi^2 k^2}$.
    – mathworker21
    Nov 15 at 15:30


















Do you require $p>0$ ?
– Gabriel Romon
Nov 14 at 8:27




Do you require $p>0$ ?
– Gabriel Romon
Nov 14 at 8:27












No. When $p<-1$ the limit I want to find can be easily found as $0$.
– Kemono Chen
Nov 14 at 8:53




No. When $p<-1$ the limit I want to find can be easily found as $0$.
– Kemono Chen
Nov 14 at 8:53












When $p>1$, $a_n to 0$ iff $|a_n| < 1$ for some $n$. Therefore, it suffices to show $cup_{n ge 0} f^{-n}(E)$ has full measure, where $f(x) = x^2sin(x)$ and $E = {x in mathbb{R} : x^2|sin(x)| > 1}$. Note that $E$ looks like $cup_{k in mathbb{Z}} [2pi k - epsilon_k, 2pi k+epsilon_k]$ for $epsilon_k sim frac{1}{4pi^2 k^2}$.
– mathworker21
Nov 15 at 15:30






When $p>1$, $a_n to 0$ iff $|a_n| < 1$ for some $n$. Therefore, it suffices to show $cup_{n ge 0} f^{-n}(E)$ has full measure, where $f(x) = x^2sin(x)$ and $E = {x in mathbb{R} : x^2|sin(x)| > 1}$. Note that $E$ looks like $cup_{k in mathbb{Z}} [2pi k - epsilon_k, 2pi k+epsilon_k]$ for $epsilon_k sim frac{1}{4pi^2 k^2}$.
– mathworker21
Nov 15 at 15:30

















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