Nilpotent ring and Nilpotent groups.












4












$begingroup$



Let $R$ be a ring (associative and with unity) and $B$ be a subring with the property that $B^n = 0$ i.e.
$$ forall; x_1, x_2, dots, x_n in B: ; x_1 cdot x_2 cdots x_n = 0$$
My aim is to prove that the set $G = {1+x mid xin B}$ is a nilpotent group.




It is easy to see that $G$ is a group. For $n=3$, I found
$$[1+x,1+y]_G = 1+[x,y]_R,$$
where $$[1+x,1+y]_G = (1-x+x^2)(1-y+y^2)(1+x)(1+y)$$ is the group commutator
and $[x,y]_R = xy-yx$ is the ring commutator. And $G$ is a nilpotent group of degree no more than $3$.



But if $n=4$, I got
$$[1+x, 1+y]_G = 1 + x^2y+xy+xyx+y^2x-yx-yxy,$$ and I don't know what to do.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$

















    4












    $begingroup$



    Let $R$ be a ring (associative and with unity) and $B$ be a subring with the property that $B^n = 0$ i.e.
    $$ forall; x_1, x_2, dots, x_n in B: ; x_1 cdot x_2 cdots x_n = 0$$
    My aim is to prove that the set $G = {1+x mid xin B}$ is a nilpotent group.




    It is easy to see that $G$ is a group. For $n=3$, I found
    $$[1+x,1+y]_G = 1+[x,y]_R,$$
    where $$[1+x,1+y]_G = (1-x+x^2)(1-y+y^2)(1+x)(1+y)$$ is the group commutator
    and $[x,y]_R = xy-yx$ is the ring commutator. And $G$ is a nilpotent group of degree no more than $3$.



    But if $n=4$, I got
    $$[1+x, 1+y]_G = 1 + x^2y+xy+xyx+y^2x-yx-yxy,$$ and I don't know what to do.










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$















      4












      4








      4


      1



      $begingroup$



      Let $R$ be a ring (associative and with unity) and $B$ be a subring with the property that $B^n = 0$ i.e.
      $$ forall; x_1, x_2, dots, x_n in B: ; x_1 cdot x_2 cdots x_n = 0$$
      My aim is to prove that the set $G = {1+x mid xin B}$ is a nilpotent group.




      It is easy to see that $G$ is a group. For $n=3$, I found
      $$[1+x,1+y]_G = 1+[x,y]_R,$$
      where $$[1+x,1+y]_G = (1-x+x^2)(1-y+y^2)(1+x)(1+y)$$ is the group commutator
      and $[x,y]_R = xy-yx$ is the ring commutator. And $G$ is a nilpotent group of degree no more than $3$.



      But if $n=4$, I got
      $$[1+x, 1+y]_G = 1 + x^2y+xy+xyx+y^2x-yx-yxy,$$ and I don't know what to do.










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$





      Let $R$ be a ring (associative and with unity) and $B$ be a subring with the property that $B^n = 0$ i.e.
      $$ forall; x_1, x_2, dots, x_n in B: ; x_1 cdot x_2 cdots x_n = 0$$
      My aim is to prove that the set $G = {1+x mid xin B}$ is a nilpotent group.




      It is easy to see that $G$ is a group. For $n=3$, I found
      $$[1+x,1+y]_G = 1+[x,y]_R,$$
      where $$[1+x,1+y]_G = (1-x+x^2)(1-y+y^2)(1+x)(1+y)$$ is the group commutator
      and $[x,y]_R = xy-yx$ is the ring commutator. And $G$ is a nilpotent group of degree no more than $3$.



      But if $n=4$, I got
      $$[1+x, 1+y]_G = 1 + x^2y+xy+xyx+y^2x-yx-yxy,$$ and I don't know what to do.







      abstract-algebra group-theory ring-theory nilpotence nilpotent-groups






      share|cite|improve this question















      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Feb 13 at 18:25









      Yanior Weg

      2,31911144




      2,31911144










      asked Dec 21 '18 at 16:06









      NoctusNoctus

      575




      575






















          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          2












          $begingroup$

          First, note that since every element of $B$ is nilpotent, we have the following explicit formula for the inverse of $1-x$:
          $$(1-x)^{-1}=1+x+x^2+...+x^{n-1}$$



          So let's define our descending series of normal subgroups as:
          $$G_k=1+B_k$$ Where $B_k$ is the additive subgroup of $B$ generated by elements of the form $x_1 x_2 ...x_m$ for $x_iin B$, $mgeq k$.



          One may check that $G_k$ is a normal subgroup in $G$, and we have $G=G_1$ and $G_n=1$.



          So to show $G$ is nilpotent, it suffices to show that $[g,G_k]subset G_{k+1}$ for all $gin G$, where $[,]$ is the group commutator.



          Doing this in the case of the element of $G_k$ being $1-x_1 x_2 ....x_m$:



          $(1-y)(1-x_1 x_2 .... x_m)(1+y+y^2...+y^{n-1})(1+x_1 x_2 ..x_m + (x_1 x_2...x_m)^2+...)$=



          $big(1-(1-y)x_1 x_2 ...x_m(1+y+y^2+...y^{n-1})big)(1+x_1 x_2 ..x_m + (x_1 x_2...x_m)^2+...)$=



          $big(1-x_1 x_2 ...x_m(1+y+y^2+...y^{n-1})+y(x_1 x_2 ...x_m(1+y+y^2+...y^{n-1})big)(1+x_1 x_2 ..x_m + (x_1 x_2...x_m)^2+...)$



          $alpha=-x_1 x_2 ..x_m(y+y^2+...y^{n-1})$



          $beta= y x_1 x_2 ...x_m(1+y+y^2+...y^{n-1})$



          =$(1-x_1 x_2 ..x_m +alpha +beta)(1+x_1 x_2 ..x_m + (x_1 x_2...x_m)^2+...)$



          =$1-(x_1...x_m)^2+(alpha+beta)big((x_1 x_2...x_m)^2+...(x_1...x_m)^{n-1}big)+(1-x_1 x_2 ..x_m)(x_1 x_2...x_m)^2+...)+(alpha+beta)(1+x_1 ...x_m)$



          Which is in $G_{k+1}$, since all the terms after the $1$ in this expression are of length at least $m+1$.



          The general element case is the exact same, its just a bit more of a mess.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            You can simplify the argument by just showing $G_k/G_{k+1}$ is abelian. If $y, zin B_k$ then $$ (1+y)(1+z)=1 +y+z+yz $$ which is just $1+y+zpmod{G_{k+1}}$. This is the same as $(1+z)(1+y)$.
            $endgroup$
            – Hempelicious
            Dec 22 '18 at 17:20










          • $begingroup$
            @Hempelicious's computation (which, by the way, proves $left[G, G_kright] subseteq G_{k+1}$ as well, because we can set $y in B$ instead of $y in B_k$ and get the same final congruence) relies on the following lemma: Given any $k geq 0$ and any two elements $a, b in G$. If $a-b in B_{k+1}$, then $b^{-1}a in G_{k+1}$. (To prove this lemma, assume $a-b in B_{k+1}$. Then, $b^{-1}a - 1 = b^{-1}left(a-bright) in B_{k+1}$ as well, because $b^{-1} in G$ and $G B_{k+1} subseteq B_{k+1}$. In other words, $b^{-1}a in 1 + B_{k+1} = G_{k+1}$.)
            $endgroup$
            – darij grinberg
            Feb 9 at 23:11













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          1 Answer
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          2












          $begingroup$

          First, note that since every element of $B$ is nilpotent, we have the following explicit formula for the inverse of $1-x$:
          $$(1-x)^{-1}=1+x+x^2+...+x^{n-1}$$



          So let's define our descending series of normal subgroups as:
          $$G_k=1+B_k$$ Where $B_k$ is the additive subgroup of $B$ generated by elements of the form $x_1 x_2 ...x_m$ for $x_iin B$, $mgeq k$.



          One may check that $G_k$ is a normal subgroup in $G$, and we have $G=G_1$ and $G_n=1$.



          So to show $G$ is nilpotent, it suffices to show that $[g,G_k]subset G_{k+1}$ for all $gin G$, where $[,]$ is the group commutator.



          Doing this in the case of the element of $G_k$ being $1-x_1 x_2 ....x_m$:



          $(1-y)(1-x_1 x_2 .... x_m)(1+y+y^2...+y^{n-1})(1+x_1 x_2 ..x_m + (x_1 x_2...x_m)^2+...)$=



          $big(1-(1-y)x_1 x_2 ...x_m(1+y+y^2+...y^{n-1})big)(1+x_1 x_2 ..x_m + (x_1 x_2...x_m)^2+...)$=



          $big(1-x_1 x_2 ...x_m(1+y+y^2+...y^{n-1})+y(x_1 x_2 ...x_m(1+y+y^2+...y^{n-1})big)(1+x_1 x_2 ..x_m + (x_1 x_2...x_m)^2+...)$



          $alpha=-x_1 x_2 ..x_m(y+y^2+...y^{n-1})$



          $beta= y x_1 x_2 ...x_m(1+y+y^2+...y^{n-1})$



          =$(1-x_1 x_2 ..x_m +alpha +beta)(1+x_1 x_2 ..x_m + (x_1 x_2...x_m)^2+...)$



          =$1-(x_1...x_m)^2+(alpha+beta)big((x_1 x_2...x_m)^2+...(x_1...x_m)^{n-1}big)+(1-x_1 x_2 ..x_m)(x_1 x_2...x_m)^2+...)+(alpha+beta)(1+x_1 ...x_m)$



          Which is in $G_{k+1}$, since all the terms after the $1$ in this expression are of length at least $m+1$.



          The general element case is the exact same, its just a bit more of a mess.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            You can simplify the argument by just showing $G_k/G_{k+1}$ is abelian. If $y, zin B_k$ then $$ (1+y)(1+z)=1 +y+z+yz $$ which is just $1+y+zpmod{G_{k+1}}$. This is the same as $(1+z)(1+y)$.
            $endgroup$
            – Hempelicious
            Dec 22 '18 at 17:20










          • $begingroup$
            @Hempelicious's computation (which, by the way, proves $left[G, G_kright] subseteq G_{k+1}$ as well, because we can set $y in B$ instead of $y in B_k$ and get the same final congruence) relies on the following lemma: Given any $k geq 0$ and any two elements $a, b in G$. If $a-b in B_{k+1}$, then $b^{-1}a in G_{k+1}$. (To prove this lemma, assume $a-b in B_{k+1}$. Then, $b^{-1}a - 1 = b^{-1}left(a-bright) in B_{k+1}$ as well, because $b^{-1} in G$ and $G B_{k+1} subseteq B_{k+1}$. In other words, $b^{-1}a in 1 + B_{k+1} = G_{k+1}$.)
            $endgroup$
            – darij grinberg
            Feb 9 at 23:11


















          2












          $begingroup$

          First, note that since every element of $B$ is nilpotent, we have the following explicit formula for the inverse of $1-x$:
          $$(1-x)^{-1}=1+x+x^2+...+x^{n-1}$$



          So let's define our descending series of normal subgroups as:
          $$G_k=1+B_k$$ Where $B_k$ is the additive subgroup of $B$ generated by elements of the form $x_1 x_2 ...x_m$ for $x_iin B$, $mgeq k$.



          One may check that $G_k$ is a normal subgroup in $G$, and we have $G=G_1$ and $G_n=1$.



          So to show $G$ is nilpotent, it suffices to show that $[g,G_k]subset G_{k+1}$ for all $gin G$, where $[,]$ is the group commutator.



          Doing this in the case of the element of $G_k$ being $1-x_1 x_2 ....x_m$:



          $(1-y)(1-x_1 x_2 .... x_m)(1+y+y^2...+y^{n-1})(1+x_1 x_2 ..x_m + (x_1 x_2...x_m)^2+...)$=



          $big(1-(1-y)x_1 x_2 ...x_m(1+y+y^2+...y^{n-1})big)(1+x_1 x_2 ..x_m + (x_1 x_2...x_m)^2+...)$=



          $big(1-x_1 x_2 ...x_m(1+y+y^2+...y^{n-1})+y(x_1 x_2 ...x_m(1+y+y^2+...y^{n-1})big)(1+x_1 x_2 ..x_m + (x_1 x_2...x_m)^2+...)$



          $alpha=-x_1 x_2 ..x_m(y+y^2+...y^{n-1})$



          $beta= y x_1 x_2 ...x_m(1+y+y^2+...y^{n-1})$



          =$(1-x_1 x_2 ..x_m +alpha +beta)(1+x_1 x_2 ..x_m + (x_1 x_2...x_m)^2+...)$



          =$1-(x_1...x_m)^2+(alpha+beta)big((x_1 x_2...x_m)^2+...(x_1...x_m)^{n-1}big)+(1-x_1 x_2 ..x_m)(x_1 x_2...x_m)^2+...)+(alpha+beta)(1+x_1 ...x_m)$



          Which is in $G_{k+1}$, since all the terms after the $1$ in this expression are of length at least $m+1$.



          The general element case is the exact same, its just a bit more of a mess.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            You can simplify the argument by just showing $G_k/G_{k+1}$ is abelian. If $y, zin B_k$ then $$ (1+y)(1+z)=1 +y+z+yz $$ which is just $1+y+zpmod{G_{k+1}}$. This is the same as $(1+z)(1+y)$.
            $endgroup$
            – Hempelicious
            Dec 22 '18 at 17:20










          • $begingroup$
            @Hempelicious's computation (which, by the way, proves $left[G, G_kright] subseteq G_{k+1}$ as well, because we can set $y in B$ instead of $y in B_k$ and get the same final congruence) relies on the following lemma: Given any $k geq 0$ and any two elements $a, b in G$. If $a-b in B_{k+1}$, then $b^{-1}a in G_{k+1}$. (To prove this lemma, assume $a-b in B_{k+1}$. Then, $b^{-1}a - 1 = b^{-1}left(a-bright) in B_{k+1}$ as well, because $b^{-1} in G$ and $G B_{k+1} subseteq B_{k+1}$. In other words, $b^{-1}a in 1 + B_{k+1} = G_{k+1}$.)
            $endgroup$
            – darij grinberg
            Feb 9 at 23:11
















          2












          2








          2





          $begingroup$

          First, note that since every element of $B$ is nilpotent, we have the following explicit formula for the inverse of $1-x$:
          $$(1-x)^{-1}=1+x+x^2+...+x^{n-1}$$



          So let's define our descending series of normal subgroups as:
          $$G_k=1+B_k$$ Where $B_k$ is the additive subgroup of $B$ generated by elements of the form $x_1 x_2 ...x_m$ for $x_iin B$, $mgeq k$.



          One may check that $G_k$ is a normal subgroup in $G$, and we have $G=G_1$ and $G_n=1$.



          So to show $G$ is nilpotent, it suffices to show that $[g,G_k]subset G_{k+1}$ for all $gin G$, where $[,]$ is the group commutator.



          Doing this in the case of the element of $G_k$ being $1-x_1 x_2 ....x_m$:



          $(1-y)(1-x_1 x_2 .... x_m)(1+y+y^2...+y^{n-1})(1+x_1 x_2 ..x_m + (x_1 x_2...x_m)^2+...)$=



          $big(1-(1-y)x_1 x_2 ...x_m(1+y+y^2+...y^{n-1})big)(1+x_1 x_2 ..x_m + (x_1 x_2...x_m)^2+...)$=



          $big(1-x_1 x_2 ...x_m(1+y+y^2+...y^{n-1})+y(x_1 x_2 ...x_m(1+y+y^2+...y^{n-1})big)(1+x_1 x_2 ..x_m + (x_1 x_2...x_m)^2+...)$



          $alpha=-x_1 x_2 ..x_m(y+y^2+...y^{n-1})$



          $beta= y x_1 x_2 ...x_m(1+y+y^2+...y^{n-1})$



          =$(1-x_1 x_2 ..x_m +alpha +beta)(1+x_1 x_2 ..x_m + (x_1 x_2...x_m)^2+...)$



          =$1-(x_1...x_m)^2+(alpha+beta)big((x_1 x_2...x_m)^2+...(x_1...x_m)^{n-1}big)+(1-x_1 x_2 ..x_m)(x_1 x_2...x_m)^2+...)+(alpha+beta)(1+x_1 ...x_m)$



          Which is in $G_{k+1}$, since all the terms after the $1$ in this expression are of length at least $m+1$.



          The general element case is the exact same, its just a bit more of a mess.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$



          First, note that since every element of $B$ is nilpotent, we have the following explicit formula for the inverse of $1-x$:
          $$(1-x)^{-1}=1+x+x^2+...+x^{n-1}$$



          So let's define our descending series of normal subgroups as:
          $$G_k=1+B_k$$ Where $B_k$ is the additive subgroup of $B$ generated by elements of the form $x_1 x_2 ...x_m$ for $x_iin B$, $mgeq k$.



          One may check that $G_k$ is a normal subgroup in $G$, and we have $G=G_1$ and $G_n=1$.



          So to show $G$ is nilpotent, it suffices to show that $[g,G_k]subset G_{k+1}$ for all $gin G$, where $[,]$ is the group commutator.



          Doing this in the case of the element of $G_k$ being $1-x_1 x_2 ....x_m$:



          $(1-y)(1-x_1 x_2 .... x_m)(1+y+y^2...+y^{n-1})(1+x_1 x_2 ..x_m + (x_1 x_2...x_m)^2+...)$=



          $big(1-(1-y)x_1 x_2 ...x_m(1+y+y^2+...y^{n-1})big)(1+x_1 x_2 ..x_m + (x_1 x_2...x_m)^2+...)$=



          $big(1-x_1 x_2 ...x_m(1+y+y^2+...y^{n-1})+y(x_1 x_2 ...x_m(1+y+y^2+...y^{n-1})big)(1+x_1 x_2 ..x_m + (x_1 x_2...x_m)^2+...)$



          $alpha=-x_1 x_2 ..x_m(y+y^2+...y^{n-1})$



          $beta= y x_1 x_2 ...x_m(1+y+y^2+...y^{n-1})$



          =$(1-x_1 x_2 ..x_m +alpha +beta)(1+x_1 x_2 ..x_m + (x_1 x_2...x_m)^2+...)$



          =$1-(x_1...x_m)^2+(alpha+beta)big((x_1 x_2...x_m)^2+...(x_1...x_m)^{n-1}big)+(1-x_1 x_2 ..x_m)(x_1 x_2...x_m)^2+...)+(alpha+beta)(1+x_1 ...x_m)$



          Which is in $G_{k+1}$, since all the terms after the $1$ in this expression are of length at least $m+1$.



          The general element case is the exact same, its just a bit more of a mess.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Feb 9 at 22:59









          darij grinberg

          11.1k33167




          11.1k33167










          answered Dec 22 '18 at 5:22









          user277182user277182

          456212




          456212












          • $begingroup$
            You can simplify the argument by just showing $G_k/G_{k+1}$ is abelian. If $y, zin B_k$ then $$ (1+y)(1+z)=1 +y+z+yz $$ which is just $1+y+zpmod{G_{k+1}}$. This is the same as $(1+z)(1+y)$.
            $endgroup$
            – Hempelicious
            Dec 22 '18 at 17:20










          • $begingroup$
            @Hempelicious's computation (which, by the way, proves $left[G, G_kright] subseteq G_{k+1}$ as well, because we can set $y in B$ instead of $y in B_k$ and get the same final congruence) relies on the following lemma: Given any $k geq 0$ and any two elements $a, b in G$. If $a-b in B_{k+1}$, then $b^{-1}a in G_{k+1}$. (To prove this lemma, assume $a-b in B_{k+1}$. Then, $b^{-1}a - 1 = b^{-1}left(a-bright) in B_{k+1}$ as well, because $b^{-1} in G$ and $G B_{k+1} subseteq B_{k+1}$. In other words, $b^{-1}a in 1 + B_{k+1} = G_{k+1}$.)
            $endgroup$
            – darij grinberg
            Feb 9 at 23:11




















          • $begingroup$
            You can simplify the argument by just showing $G_k/G_{k+1}$ is abelian. If $y, zin B_k$ then $$ (1+y)(1+z)=1 +y+z+yz $$ which is just $1+y+zpmod{G_{k+1}}$. This is the same as $(1+z)(1+y)$.
            $endgroup$
            – Hempelicious
            Dec 22 '18 at 17:20










          • $begingroup$
            @Hempelicious's computation (which, by the way, proves $left[G, G_kright] subseteq G_{k+1}$ as well, because we can set $y in B$ instead of $y in B_k$ and get the same final congruence) relies on the following lemma: Given any $k geq 0$ and any two elements $a, b in G$. If $a-b in B_{k+1}$, then $b^{-1}a in G_{k+1}$. (To prove this lemma, assume $a-b in B_{k+1}$. Then, $b^{-1}a - 1 = b^{-1}left(a-bright) in B_{k+1}$ as well, because $b^{-1} in G$ and $G B_{k+1} subseteq B_{k+1}$. In other words, $b^{-1}a in 1 + B_{k+1} = G_{k+1}$.)
            $endgroup$
            – darij grinberg
            Feb 9 at 23:11


















          $begingroup$
          You can simplify the argument by just showing $G_k/G_{k+1}$ is abelian. If $y, zin B_k$ then $$ (1+y)(1+z)=1 +y+z+yz $$ which is just $1+y+zpmod{G_{k+1}}$. This is the same as $(1+z)(1+y)$.
          $endgroup$
          – Hempelicious
          Dec 22 '18 at 17:20




          $begingroup$
          You can simplify the argument by just showing $G_k/G_{k+1}$ is abelian. If $y, zin B_k$ then $$ (1+y)(1+z)=1 +y+z+yz $$ which is just $1+y+zpmod{G_{k+1}}$. This is the same as $(1+z)(1+y)$.
          $endgroup$
          – Hempelicious
          Dec 22 '18 at 17:20












          $begingroup$
          @Hempelicious's computation (which, by the way, proves $left[G, G_kright] subseteq G_{k+1}$ as well, because we can set $y in B$ instead of $y in B_k$ and get the same final congruence) relies on the following lemma: Given any $k geq 0$ and any two elements $a, b in G$. If $a-b in B_{k+1}$, then $b^{-1}a in G_{k+1}$. (To prove this lemma, assume $a-b in B_{k+1}$. Then, $b^{-1}a - 1 = b^{-1}left(a-bright) in B_{k+1}$ as well, because $b^{-1} in G$ and $G B_{k+1} subseteq B_{k+1}$. In other words, $b^{-1}a in 1 + B_{k+1} = G_{k+1}$.)
          $endgroup$
          – darij grinberg
          Feb 9 at 23:11






          $begingroup$
          @Hempelicious's computation (which, by the way, proves $left[G, G_kright] subseteq G_{k+1}$ as well, because we can set $y in B$ instead of $y in B_k$ and get the same final congruence) relies on the following lemma: Given any $k geq 0$ and any two elements $a, b in G$. If $a-b in B_{k+1}$, then $b^{-1}a in G_{k+1}$. (To prove this lemma, assume $a-b in B_{k+1}$. Then, $b^{-1}a - 1 = b^{-1}left(a-bright) in B_{k+1}$ as well, because $b^{-1} in G$ and $G B_{k+1} subseteq B_{k+1}$. In other words, $b^{-1}a in 1 + B_{k+1} = G_{k+1}$.)
          $endgroup$
          – darij grinberg
          Feb 9 at 23:11




















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