Induction without a base case [duplicate]












11












$begingroup$



This question already has an answer here:




  • What is the purpose of the first test in an inductive proof?

    9 answers




I am looking for an example where you have $P(n)$ implying $P(n+1)$. However there is no base case. For which there is therefore no solution at all for the induction problem even though the inductive step itself works.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$



marked as duplicate by Ilmari Karonen, hardmath, user63181, TMM, Nick Peterson Jan 5 '14 at 17:39


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.


















  • $begingroup$
    It would be better if you included the problem to be inducted on.
    $endgroup$
    – Torsten Hĕrculĕ Cärlemän
    Jan 5 '14 at 13:32










  • $begingroup$
    Also, try looking at backward induction.
    $endgroup$
    – Torsten Hĕrculĕ Cärlemän
    Jan 5 '14 at 13:32






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Any statement which is false for all integers works.
    $endgroup$
    – DanielV
    Jan 5 '14 at 14:26






  • 4




    $begingroup$
    All horses are the same colour.
    $endgroup$
    – Katriel
    Jan 5 '14 at 16:42






  • 3




    $begingroup$
    @katrielalex: That comes to mind, but is not an example. The base case (one horse) works, but the first instance of the induction step fails.
    $endgroup$
    – Marc van Leeuwen
    Jan 5 '14 at 17:43
















11












$begingroup$



This question already has an answer here:




  • What is the purpose of the first test in an inductive proof?

    9 answers




I am looking for an example where you have $P(n)$ implying $P(n+1)$. However there is no base case. For which there is therefore no solution at all for the induction problem even though the inductive step itself works.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$



marked as duplicate by Ilmari Karonen, hardmath, user63181, TMM, Nick Peterson Jan 5 '14 at 17:39


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.


















  • $begingroup$
    It would be better if you included the problem to be inducted on.
    $endgroup$
    – Torsten Hĕrculĕ Cärlemän
    Jan 5 '14 at 13:32










  • $begingroup$
    Also, try looking at backward induction.
    $endgroup$
    – Torsten Hĕrculĕ Cärlemän
    Jan 5 '14 at 13:32






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Any statement which is false for all integers works.
    $endgroup$
    – DanielV
    Jan 5 '14 at 14:26






  • 4




    $begingroup$
    All horses are the same colour.
    $endgroup$
    – Katriel
    Jan 5 '14 at 16:42






  • 3




    $begingroup$
    @katrielalex: That comes to mind, but is not an example. The base case (one horse) works, but the first instance of the induction step fails.
    $endgroup$
    – Marc van Leeuwen
    Jan 5 '14 at 17:43














11












11








11


0



$begingroup$



This question already has an answer here:




  • What is the purpose of the first test in an inductive proof?

    9 answers




I am looking for an example where you have $P(n)$ implying $P(n+1)$. However there is no base case. For which there is therefore no solution at all for the induction problem even though the inductive step itself works.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$





This question already has an answer here:




  • What is the purpose of the first test in an inductive proof?

    9 answers




I am looking for an example where you have $P(n)$ implying $P(n+1)$. However there is no base case. For which there is therefore no solution at all for the induction problem even though the inductive step itself works.





This question already has an answer here:




  • What is the purpose of the first test in an inductive proof?

    9 answers








induction






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Apr 12 '14 at 22:17







user111584

















asked Jan 5 '14 at 13:29









PranksterPrankster

318314




318314




marked as duplicate by Ilmari Karonen, hardmath, user63181, TMM, Nick Peterson Jan 5 '14 at 17:39


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.









marked as duplicate by Ilmari Karonen, hardmath, user63181, TMM, Nick Peterson Jan 5 '14 at 17:39


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.














  • $begingroup$
    It would be better if you included the problem to be inducted on.
    $endgroup$
    – Torsten Hĕrculĕ Cärlemän
    Jan 5 '14 at 13:32










  • $begingroup$
    Also, try looking at backward induction.
    $endgroup$
    – Torsten Hĕrculĕ Cärlemän
    Jan 5 '14 at 13:32






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Any statement which is false for all integers works.
    $endgroup$
    – DanielV
    Jan 5 '14 at 14:26






  • 4




    $begingroup$
    All horses are the same colour.
    $endgroup$
    – Katriel
    Jan 5 '14 at 16:42






  • 3




    $begingroup$
    @katrielalex: That comes to mind, but is not an example. The base case (one horse) works, but the first instance of the induction step fails.
    $endgroup$
    – Marc van Leeuwen
    Jan 5 '14 at 17:43


















  • $begingroup$
    It would be better if you included the problem to be inducted on.
    $endgroup$
    – Torsten Hĕrculĕ Cärlemän
    Jan 5 '14 at 13:32










  • $begingroup$
    Also, try looking at backward induction.
    $endgroup$
    – Torsten Hĕrculĕ Cärlemän
    Jan 5 '14 at 13:32






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Any statement which is false for all integers works.
    $endgroup$
    – DanielV
    Jan 5 '14 at 14:26






  • 4




    $begingroup$
    All horses are the same colour.
    $endgroup$
    – Katriel
    Jan 5 '14 at 16:42






  • 3




    $begingroup$
    @katrielalex: That comes to mind, but is not an example. The base case (one horse) works, but the first instance of the induction step fails.
    $endgroup$
    – Marc van Leeuwen
    Jan 5 '14 at 17:43
















$begingroup$
It would be better if you included the problem to be inducted on.
$endgroup$
– Torsten Hĕrculĕ Cärlemän
Jan 5 '14 at 13:32




$begingroup$
It would be better if you included the problem to be inducted on.
$endgroup$
– Torsten Hĕrculĕ Cärlemän
Jan 5 '14 at 13:32












$begingroup$
Also, try looking at backward induction.
$endgroup$
– Torsten Hĕrculĕ Cärlemän
Jan 5 '14 at 13:32




$begingroup$
Also, try looking at backward induction.
$endgroup$
– Torsten Hĕrculĕ Cärlemän
Jan 5 '14 at 13:32




1




1




$begingroup$
Any statement which is false for all integers works.
$endgroup$
– DanielV
Jan 5 '14 at 14:26




$begingroup$
Any statement which is false for all integers works.
$endgroup$
– DanielV
Jan 5 '14 at 14:26




4




4




$begingroup$
All horses are the same colour.
$endgroup$
– Katriel
Jan 5 '14 at 16:42




$begingroup$
All horses are the same colour.
$endgroup$
– Katriel
Jan 5 '14 at 16:42




3




3




$begingroup$
@katrielalex: That comes to mind, but is not an example. The base case (one horse) works, but the first instance of the induction step fails.
$endgroup$
– Marc van Leeuwen
Jan 5 '14 at 17:43




$begingroup$
@katrielalex: That comes to mind, but is not an example. The base case (one horse) works, but the first instance of the induction step fails.
$endgroup$
– Marc van Leeuwen
Jan 5 '14 at 17:43










8 Answers
8






active

oldest

votes


















41












$begingroup$

Suppose we want to prove $n=n+1$ for all (positive) integers $n$. We omit the base case. The induction hypothesis is $k=k+1$ for some $kin mathbb N$. Adding $1$ to both sides gives $k+1=k+1+1$, or $(k+1)=(k+1)+1$, which is the statement to be proven for $n=k+1$. Thus, we have completed the induction step, but there is no base for which this is true, so the statement won't have to be true too.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$









  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Just realise, if $P(k)$ is true, i.e. $k=k+1$, then $P(k+1)=P(k)=$true. Even induction itself get messed up...
    $endgroup$
    – peterwhy
    Jan 5 '14 at 20:15



















12












$begingroup$

$$1+2+3+dots+n=frac{n(n+1)}2+pi$$
$$1+2+4+dots+2^{n-1}=2^n$$






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$





















    11












    $begingroup$

    (False) Theorem. Let $P$ be literally any property of elements of $mathbb N$. Then every element of $mathbb N$ has property $P$.
    Proof. This is true if all nonempty finite subsets of $mathbb N$ consist of elements with property $P$. Suppose $nge 1$ and all elements of subsets of $mathbb N$ with $n$ elements satisfy $P$. Let $Ssubsetmathbb N$ have $n+1$ elements, and pick any $xin S$. Since $S'=Ssetminus{x}$ has $n$ elements, all members of $S'$ satisfy $P$. Moreover, since $n=|S'|>0$ there exists $yin S'$. Then $(S'setminus{y})cup{x}$ has $n$ elements, so $x$ has property $P$ as well. q.e.d.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      This should not be labelled as a theorem.
      $endgroup$
      – Aleš Bizjak
      Jan 5 '14 at 14:32






    • 2




      $begingroup$
      @AlešBizjak Did you, for a second, think it is true? My point being, the only reason why I shouldn't call it a theorem is that it would potentially mislead readers.
      $endgroup$
      – Karl Kronenfeld
      Jan 5 '14 at 15:44












    • $begingroup$
      No, I didn't think it was true and that is my point. Statements that are not true should not be called "Theorem" in a serious answer, especially since the question is about statements which are not true.
      $endgroup$
      – Aleš Bizjak
      Jan 5 '14 at 16:07



















    8












    $begingroup$

    Let $P(n)$ be the statement "$1=2$". Assume $P(k)$ is true, hence $1=2$. By assumption, $1=2$, so $P(k+1)$ is true.



    Then what?






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$





















      7












      $begingroup$

      Simply let $P(n)$ be the statement that $n=n+1$. Suppose this is true for some positive integer $k$. Then $k=k+1$, so $k+1=k+1+1$, and we also have $P(k+1)$.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$





















        7












        $begingroup$

        Let $P(n)$ be a false statement, for each $n$. Then $P(k) implies P(k+1)$ vacuously, because a false statement implies any other, but certainly $P(0)$ is false.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$





















          2












          $begingroup$


          1. Suppose we want to show $n=n+1$ where $nin mathbb{N}$. Now suppose the statement holds for some $n$
            $$n=n+1$$
            then we want to show $$n+1=n+1+1$$
            which is easily true since $(n+1)+1=n+1$.


          2. Suppose we want to show for all $nin mathbb{N}^+$, $n+1<n$. Now suppose the statement holds for some $n$
            $$n+1<n$$
            then $$n+1+1=(n+1)+1<n+1$$







          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$





















            2












            $begingroup$

            Let $P(n)$ be the statement "$2^{aleph_0}=n+aleph_1$"(Continuum Hypothesis). The inductive step itself works but it gives nothing. We are not able to check (in the theory $ZFC$) the statement $P(0)$ is false or true.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$




















              8 Answers
              8






              active

              oldest

              votes








              8 Answers
              8






              active

              oldest

              votes









              active

              oldest

              votes






              active

              oldest

              votes









              41












              $begingroup$

              Suppose we want to prove $n=n+1$ for all (positive) integers $n$. We omit the base case. The induction hypothesis is $k=k+1$ for some $kin mathbb N$. Adding $1$ to both sides gives $k+1=k+1+1$, or $(k+1)=(k+1)+1$, which is the statement to be proven for $n=k+1$. Thus, we have completed the induction step, but there is no base for which this is true, so the statement won't have to be true too.






              share|cite|improve this answer











              $endgroup$









              • 1




                $begingroup$
                Just realise, if $P(k)$ is true, i.e. $k=k+1$, then $P(k+1)=P(k)=$true. Even induction itself get messed up...
                $endgroup$
                – peterwhy
                Jan 5 '14 at 20:15
















              41












              $begingroup$

              Suppose we want to prove $n=n+1$ for all (positive) integers $n$. We omit the base case. The induction hypothesis is $k=k+1$ for some $kin mathbb N$. Adding $1$ to both sides gives $k+1=k+1+1$, or $(k+1)=(k+1)+1$, which is the statement to be proven for $n=k+1$. Thus, we have completed the induction step, but there is no base for which this is true, so the statement won't have to be true too.






              share|cite|improve this answer











              $endgroup$









              • 1




                $begingroup$
                Just realise, if $P(k)$ is true, i.e. $k=k+1$, then $P(k+1)=P(k)=$true. Even induction itself get messed up...
                $endgroup$
                – peterwhy
                Jan 5 '14 at 20:15














              41












              41








              41





              $begingroup$

              Suppose we want to prove $n=n+1$ for all (positive) integers $n$. We omit the base case. The induction hypothesis is $k=k+1$ for some $kin mathbb N$. Adding $1$ to both sides gives $k+1=k+1+1$, or $(k+1)=(k+1)+1$, which is the statement to be proven for $n=k+1$. Thus, we have completed the induction step, but there is no base for which this is true, so the statement won't have to be true too.






              share|cite|improve this answer











              $endgroup$



              Suppose we want to prove $n=n+1$ for all (positive) integers $n$. We omit the base case. The induction hypothesis is $k=k+1$ for some $kin mathbb N$. Adding $1$ to both sides gives $k+1=k+1+1$, or $(k+1)=(k+1)+1$, which is the statement to be proven for $n=k+1$. Thus, we have completed the induction step, but there is no base for which this is true, so the statement won't have to be true too.







              share|cite|improve this answer














              share|cite|improve this answer



              share|cite|improve this answer








              edited Oct 5 '14 at 16:31

























              answered Jan 5 '14 at 13:33









              RagnarRagnar

              5,9821120




              5,9821120








              • 1




                $begingroup$
                Just realise, if $P(k)$ is true, i.e. $k=k+1$, then $P(k+1)=P(k)=$true. Even induction itself get messed up...
                $endgroup$
                – peterwhy
                Jan 5 '14 at 20:15














              • 1




                $begingroup$
                Just realise, if $P(k)$ is true, i.e. $k=k+1$, then $P(k+1)=P(k)=$true. Even induction itself get messed up...
                $endgroup$
                – peterwhy
                Jan 5 '14 at 20:15








              1




              1




              $begingroup$
              Just realise, if $P(k)$ is true, i.e. $k=k+1$, then $P(k+1)=P(k)=$true. Even induction itself get messed up...
              $endgroup$
              – peterwhy
              Jan 5 '14 at 20:15




              $begingroup$
              Just realise, if $P(k)$ is true, i.e. $k=k+1$, then $P(k+1)=P(k)=$true. Even induction itself get messed up...
              $endgroup$
              – peterwhy
              Jan 5 '14 at 20:15











              12












              $begingroup$

              $$1+2+3+dots+n=frac{n(n+1)}2+pi$$
              $$1+2+4+dots+2^{n-1}=2^n$$






              share|cite|improve this answer











              $endgroup$


















                12












                $begingroup$

                $$1+2+3+dots+n=frac{n(n+1)}2+pi$$
                $$1+2+4+dots+2^{n-1}=2^n$$






                share|cite|improve this answer











                $endgroup$
















                  12












                  12








                  12





                  $begingroup$

                  $$1+2+3+dots+n=frac{n(n+1)}2+pi$$
                  $$1+2+4+dots+2^{n-1}=2^n$$






                  share|cite|improve this answer











                  $endgroup$



                  $$1+2+3+dots+n=frac{n(n+1)}2+pi$$
                  $$1+2+4+dots+2^{n-1}=2^n$$







                  share|cite|improve this answer














                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer








                  edited Jan 6 '14 at 0:15

























                  answered Jan 5 '14 at 13:39









                  bofbof

                  52.3k558121




                  52.3k558121























                      11












                      $begingroup$

                      (False) Theorem. Let $P$ be literally any property of elements of $mathbb N$. Then every element of $mathbb N$ has property $P$.
                      Proof. This is true if all nonempty finite subsets of $mathbb N$ consist of elements with property $P$. Suppose $nge 1$ and all elements of subsets of $mathbb N$ with $n$ elements satisfy $P$. Let $Ssubsetmathbb N$ have $n+1$ elements, and pick any $xin S$. Since $S'=Ssetminus{x}$ has $n$ elements, all members of $S'$ satisfy $P$. Moreover, since $n=|S'|>0$ there exists $yin S'$. Then $(S'setminus{y})cup{x}$ has $n$ elements, so $x$ has property $P$ as well. q.e.d.






                      share|cite|improve this answer











                      $endgroup$













                      • $begingroup$
                        This should not be labelled as a theorem.
                        $endgroup$
                        – Aleš Bizjak
                        Jan 5 '14 at 14:32






                      • 2




                        $begingroup$
                        @AlešBizjak Did you, for a second, think it is true? My point being, the only reason why I shouldn't call it a theorem is that it would potentially mislead readers.
                        $endgroup$
                        – Karl Kronenfeld
                        Jan 5 '14 at 15:44












                      • $begingroup$
                        No, I didn't think it was true and that is my point. Statements that are not true should not be called "Theorem" in a serious answer, especially since the question is about statements which are not true.
                        $endgroup$
                        – Aleš Bizjak
                        Jan 5 '14 at 16:07
















                      11












                      $begingroup$

                      (False) Theorem. Let $P$ be literally any property of elements of $mathbb N$. Then every element of $mathbb N$ has property $P$.
                      Proof. This is true if all nonempty finite subsets of $mathbb N$ consist of elements with property $P$. Suppose $nge 1$ and all elements of subsets of $mathbb N$ with $n$ elements satisfy $P$. Let $Ssubsetmathbb N$ have $n+1$ elements, and pick any $xin S$. Since $S'=Ssetminus{x}$ has $n$ elements, all members of $S'$ satisfy $P$. Moreover, since $n=|S'|>0$ there exists $yin S'$. Then $(S'setminus{y})cup{x}$ has $n$ elements, so $x$ has property $P$ as well. q.e.d.






                      share|cite|improve this answer











                      $endgroup$













                      • $begingroup$
                        This should not be labelled as a theorem.
                        $endgroup$
                        – Aleš Bizjak
                        Jan 5 '14 at 14:32






                      • 2




                        $begingroup$
                        @AlešBizjak Did you, for a second, think it is true? My point being, the only reason why I shouldn't call it a theorem is that it would potentially mislead readers.
                        $endgroup$
                        – Karl Kronenfeld
                        Jan 5 '14 at 15:44












                      • $begingroup$
                        No, I didn't think it was true and that is my point. Statements that are not true should not be called "Theorem" in a serious answer, especially since the question is about statements which are not true.
                        $endgroup$
                        – Aleš Bizjak
                        Jan 5 '14 at 16:07














                      11












                      11








                      11





                      $begingroup$

                      (False) Theorem. Let $P$ be literally any property of elements of $mathbb N$. Then every element of $mathbb N$ has property $P$.
                      Proof. This is true if all nonempty finite subsets of $mathbb N$ consist of elements with property $P$. Suppose $nge 1$ and all elements of subsets of $mathbb N$ with $n$ elements satisfy $P$. Let $Ssubsetmathbb N$ have $n+1$ elements, and pick any $xin S$. Since $S'=Ssetminus{x}$ has $n$ elements, all members of $S'$ satisfy $P$. Moreover, since $n=|S'|>0$ there exists $yin S'$. Then $(S'setminus{y})cup{x}$ has $n$ elements, so $x$ has property $P$ as well. q.e.d.






                      share|cite|improve this answer











                      $endgroup$



                      (False) Theorem. Let $P$ be literally any property of elements of $mathbb N$. Then every element of $mathbb N$ has property $P$.
                      Proof. This is true if all nonempty finite subsets of $mathbb N$ consist of elements with property $P$. Suppose $nge 1$ and all elements of subsets of $mathbb N$ with $n$ elements satisfy $P$. Let $Ssubsetmathbb N$ have $n+1$ elements, and pick any $xin S$. Since $S'=Ssetminus{x}$ has $n$ elements, all members of $S'$ satisfy $P$. Moreover, since $n=|S'|>0$ there exists $yin S'$. Then $(S'setminus{y})cup{x}$ has $n$ elements, so $x$ has property $P$ as well. q.e.d.







                      share|cite|improve this answer














                      share|cite|improve this answer



                      share|cite|improve this answer








                      edited Sep 28 '15 at 3:59









                      Andreas

                      1034




                      1034










                      answered Jan 5 '14 at 13:57









                      Karl KronenfeldKarl Kronenfeld

                      4,39511425




                      4,39511425












                      • $begingroup$
                        This should not be labelled as a theorem.
                        $endgroup$
                        – Aleš Bizjak
                        Jan 5 '14 at 14:32






                      • 2




                        $begingroup$
                        @AlešBizjak Did you, for a second, think it is true? My point being, the only reason why I shouldn't call it a theorem is that it would potentially mislead readers.
                        $endgroup$
                        – Karl Kronenfeld
                        Jan 5 '14 at 15:44












                      • $begingroup$
                        No, I didn't think it was true and that is my point. Statements that are not true should not be called "Theorem" in a serious answer, especially since the question is about statements which are not true.
                        $endgroup$
                        – Aleš Bizjak
                        Jan 5 '14 at 16:07


















                      • $begingroup$
                        This should not be labelled as a theorem.
                        $endgroup$
                        – Aleš Bizjak
                        Jan 5 '14 at 14:32






                      • 2




                        $begingroup$
                        @AlešBizjak Did you, for a second, think it is true? My point being, the only reason why I shouldn't call it a theorem is that it would potentially mislead readers.
                        $endgroup$
                        – Karl Kronenfeld
                        Jan 5 '14 at 15:44












                      • $begingroup$
                        No, I didn't think it was true and that is my point. Statements that are not true should not be called "Theorem" in a serious answer, especially since the question is about statements which are not true.
                        $endgroup$
                        – Aleš Bizjak
                        Jan 5 '14 at 16:07
















                      $begingroup$
                      This should not be labelled as a theorem.
                      $endgroup$
                      – Aleš Bizjak
                      Jan 5 '14 at 14:32




                      $begingroup$
                      This should not be labelled as a theorem.
                      $endgroup$
                      – Aleš Bizjak
                      Jan 5 '14 at 14:32




                      2




                      2




                      $begingroup$
                      @AlešBizjak Did you, for a second, think it is true? My point being, the only reason why I shouldn't call it a theorem is that it would potentially mislead readers.
                      $endgroup$
                      – Karl Kronenfeld
                      Jan 5 '14 at 15:44






                      $begingroup$
                      @AlešBizjak Did you, for a second, think it is true? My point being, the only reason why I shouldn't call it a theorem is that it would potentially mislead readers.
                      $endgroup$
                      – Karl Kronenfeld
                      Jan 5 '14 at 15:44














                      $begingroup$
                      No, I didn't think it was true and that is my point. Statements that are not true should not be called "Theorem" in a serious answer, especially since the question is about statements which are not true.
                      $endgroup$
                      – Aleš Bizjak
                      Jan 5 '14 at 16:07




                      $begingroup$
                      No, I didn't think it was true and that is my point. Statements that are not true should not be called "Theorem" in a serious answer, especially since the question is about statements which are not true.
                      $endgroup$
                      – Aleš Bizjak
                      Jan 5 '14 at 16:07











                      8












                      $begingroup$

                      Let $P(n)$ be the statement "$1=2$". Assume $P(k)$ is true, hence $1=2$. By assumption, $1=2$, so $P(k+1)$ is true.



                      Then what?






                      share|cite|improve this answer









                      $endgroup$


















                        8












                        $begingroup$

                        Let $P(n)$ be the statement "$1=2$". Assume $P(k)$ is true, hence $1=2$. By assumption, $1=2$, so $P(k+1)$ is true.



                        Then what?






                        share|cite|improve this answer









                        $endgroup$
















                          8












                          8








                          8





                          $begingroup$

                          Let $P(n)$ be the statement "$1=2$". Assume $P(k)$ is true, hence $1=2$. By assumption, $1=2$, so $P(k+1)$ is true.



                          Then what?






                          share|cite|improve this answer









                          $endgroup$



                          Let $P(n)$ be the statement "$1=2$". Assume $P(k)$ is true, hence $1=2$. By assumption, $1=2$, so $P(k+1)$ is true.



                          Then what?







                          share|cite|improve this answer












                          share|cite|improve this answer



                          share|cite|improve this answer










                          answered Jan 5 '14 at 14:19









                          peterwhypeterwhy

                          12k21229




                          12k21229























                              7












                              $begingroup$

                              Simply let $P(n)$ be the statement that $n=n+1$. Suppose this is true for some positive integer $k$. Then $k=k+1$, so $k+1=k+1+1$, and we also have $P(k+1)$.






                              share|cite|improve this answer









                              $endgroup$


















                                7












                                $begingroup$

                                Simply let $P(n)$ be the statement that $n=n+1$. Suppose this is true for some positive integer $k$. Then $k=k+1$, so $k+1=k+1+1$, and we also have $P(k+1)$.






                                share|cite|improve this answer









                                $endgroup$
















                                  7












                                  7








                                  7





                                  $begingroup$

                                  Simply let $P(n)$ be the statement that $n=n+1$. Suppose this is true for some positive integer $k$. Then $k=k+1$, so $k+1=k+1+1$, and we also have $P(k+1)$.






                                  share|cite|improve this answer









                                  $endgroup$



                                  Simply let $P(n)$ be the statement that $n=n+1$. Suppose this is true for some positive integer $k$. Then $k=k+1$, so $k+1=k+1+1$, and we also have $P(k+1)$.







                                  share|cite|improve this answer












                                  share|cite|improve this answer



                                  share|cite|improve this answer










                                  answered Jan 5 '14 at 13:35







                                  user111584






























                                      7












                                      $begingroup$

                                      Let $P(n)$ be a false statement, for each $n$. Then $P(k) implies P(k+1)$ vacuously, because a false statement implies any other, but certainly $P(0)$ is false.






                                      share|cite|improve this answer









                                      $endgroup$


















                                        7












                                        $begingroup$

                                        Let $P(n)$ be a false statement, for each $n$. Then $P(k) implies P(k+1)$ vacuously, because a false statement implies any other, but certainly $P(0)$ is false.






                                        share|cite|improve this answer









                                        $endgroup$
















                                          7












                                          7








                                          7





                                          $begingroup$

                                          Let $P(n)$ be a false statement, for each $n$. Then $P(k) implies P(k+1)$ vacuously, because a false statement implies any other, but certainly $P(0)$ is false.






                                          share|cite|improve this answer









                                          $endgroup$



                                          Let $P(n)$ be a false statement, for each $n$. Then $P(k) implies P(k+1)$ vacuously, because a false statement implies any other, but certainly $P(0)$ is false.







                                          share|cite|improve this answer












                                          share|cite|improve this answer



                                          share|cite|improve this answer










                                          answered Jan 5 '14 at 15:48









                                          Ben MillwoodBen Millwood

                                          11.3k32049




                                          11.3k32049























                                              2












                                              $begingroup$


                                              1. Suppose we want to show $n=n+1$ where $nin mathbb{N}$. Now suppose the statement holds for some $n$
                                                $$n=n+1$$
                                                then we want to show $$n+1=n+1+1$$
                                                which is easily true since $(n+1)+1=n+1$.


                                              2. Suppose we want to show for all $nin mathbb{N}^+$, $n+1<n$. Now suppose the statement holds for some $n$
                                                $$n+1<n$$
                                                then $$n+1+1=(n+1)+1<n+1$$







                                              share|cite|improve this answer









                                              $endgroup$


















                                                2












                                                $begingroup$


                                                1. Suppose we want to show $n=n+1$ where $nin mathbb{N}$. Now suppose the statement holds for some $n$
                                                  $$n=n+1$$
                                                  then we want to show $$n+1=n+1+1$$
                                                  which is easily true since $(n+1)+1=n+1$.


                                                2. Suppose we want to show for all $nin mathbb{N}^+$, $n+1<n$. Now suppose the statement holds for some $n$
                                                  $$n+1<n$$
                                                  then $$n+1+1=(n+1)+1<n+1$$







                                                share|cite|improve this answer









                                                $endgroup$
















                                                  2












                                                  2








                                                  2





                                                  $begingroup$


                                                  1. Suppose we want to show $n=n+1$ where $nin mathbb{N}$. Now suppose the statement holds for some $n$
                                                    $$n=n+1$$
                                                    then we want to show $$n+1=n+1+1$$
                                                    which is easily true since $(n+1)+1=n+1$.


                                                  2. Suppose we want to show for all $nin mathbb{N}^+$, $n+1<n$. Now suppose the statement holds for some $n$
                                                    $$n+1<n$$
                                                    then $$n+1+1=(n+1)+1<n+1$$







                                                  share|cite|improve this answer









                                                  $endgroup$




                                                  1. Suppose we want to show $n=n+1$ where $nin mathbb{N}$. Now suppose the statement holds for some $n$
                                                    $$n=n+1$$
                                                    then we want to show $$n+1=n+1+1$$
                                                    which is easily true since $(n+1)+1=n+1$.


                                                  2. Suppose we want to show for all $nin mathbb{N}^+$, $n+1<n$. Now suppose the statement holds for some $n$
                                                    $$n+1<n$$
                                                    then $$n+1+1=(n+1)+1<n+1$$








                                                  share|cite|improve this answer












                                                  share|cite|improve this answer



                                                  share|cite|improve this answer










                                                  answered Jan 5 '14 at 13:41









                                                  KuaiKuai

                                                  1,130610




                                                  1,130610























                                                      2












                                                      $begingroup$

                                                      Let $P(n)$ be the statement "$2^{aleph_0}=n+aleph_1$"(Continuum Hypothesis). The inductive step itself works but it gives nothing. We are not able to check (in the theory $ZFC$) the statement $P(0)$ is false or true.






                                                      share|cite|improve this answer









                                                      $endgroup$


















                                                        2












                                                        $begingroup$

                                                        Let $P(n)$ be the statement "$2^{aleph_0}=n+aleph_1$"(Continuum Hypothesis). The inductive step itself works but it gives nothing. We are not able to check (in the theory $ZFC$) the statement $P(0)$ is false or true.






                                                        share|cite|improve this answer









                                                        $endgroup$
















                                                          2












                                                          2








                                                          2





                                                          $begingroup$

                                                          Let $P(n)$ be the statement "$2^{aleph_0}=n+aleph_1$"(Continuum Hypothesis). The inductive step itself works but it gives nothing. We are not able to check (in the theory $ZFC$) the statement $P(0)$ is false or true.






                                                          share|cite|improve this answer









                                                          $endgroup$



                                                          Let $P(n)$ be the statement "$2^{aleph_0}=n+aleph_1$"(Continuum Hypothesis). The inductive step itself works but it gives nothing. We are not able to check (in the theory $ZFC$) the statement $P(0)$ is false or true.







                                                          share|cite|improve this answer












                                                          share|cite|improve this answer



                                                          share|cite|improve this answer










                                                          answered Jan 5 '14 at 17:27









                                                          GeorgeGeorge

                                                          1,238713




                                                          1,238713















                                                              Popular posts from this blog

                                                              Aardman Animations

                                                              Are they similar matrix

                                                              “minimization” problem in Euclidean space related to orthonormal basis