In what case the semi direct product is abelian?












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$begingroup$


Only when H$rtimes$K is direct product and H,K are abelian? How to prove? In other words if the homomorphic from K to Aut(H) is not trivial then the semi direct product is not abelian?










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$endgroup$

















    1












    $begingroup$


    Only when H$rtimes$K is direct product and H,K are abelian? How to prove? In other words if the homomorphic from K to Aut(H) is not trivial then the semi direct product is not abelian?










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$















      1












      1








      1


      1



      $begingroup$


      Only when H$rtimes$K is direct product and H,K are abelian? How to prove? In other words if the homomorphic from K to Aut(H) is not trivial then the semi direct product is not abelian?










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      Only when H$rtimes$K is direct product and H,K are abelian? How to prove? In other words if the homomorphic from K to Aut(H) is not trivial then the semi direct product is not abelian?







      abstract-algebra group-theory abelian-groups semidirect-product






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      edited Dec 21 '18 at 16:12









      Shaun

      9,366113684




      9,366113684










      asked Oct 1 '14 at 18:05









      66666666

      1,343621




      1,343621






















          3 Answers
          3






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          3












          $begingroup$

          The comutativity is equivalent to



          $$y_1 y_2= y_2 y_1 forall y_iin K$$
          $$x_1 phi ( y_1 ) ( x_2 ) = x_2phi ( y_2 ) ( x_1 ) forall x_i in H y_i in K$$



          The $K$ must be abelian, from the second equation we take



          $$phi (y_2 ) ( x_1 ) = x_2^{-1} x_1 phi ( y_1 ) ( x_2 ) $$



          So $phi (y_2 ) ( x_1 ) $ does not depend on the value of $y_2$, hence $phi$ is a constant homomorphism, hence is the null homomorphism ( always equal to the identity ) then from the second equation again



          $$x_2 x_1 = x_1 x_2 $$



          So $H$ must be abelian as well. So the semi-direct product is abelian iff both factors are abelian and the linking homomorphism is the trivial.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Sorry, I don't think it's clear that ϕ(y2)(x1) does not depend on the value of y2, because if change y2 to y3, then ϕ(y3)(x1)=x^(−1)3x1ϕ(y1)(x3)
            $endgroup$
            – 6666
            Oct 1 '14 at 18:42










          • $begingroup$
            $x_3$ does not depend on $y_3$.
            $endgroup$
            – PenasRaul
            Oct 1 '14 at 20:49



















          3












          $begingroup$

          If $phi:Kto{rm Aut}(H)$ is not trivial then $phi_k:Hto H$ is nontrivial for some $kin K$, so $phi_k(h)ne h$ for some $hin H$, in which case $khk^{-1}=phi_k(h)ne h~,Rightarrow~ khne hk$ within $Hrtimes K$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$





















            1












            $begingroup$

            $H$ and $K$ are subgroups of $Hrtimes K$, so if $Hrtimes K$ then $H$ and $K$ had better be abelian too.



            The homomorphism $varphi:Ktooperatorname{Aut}(H)$ becomes conjugation in $Hrtimes_varphi K$. Conjugation is always trivial in abelian groups, so again, if $Hrtimes_varphi K$ is abelian, then $varphi$ had better be trivial.



            In fact, the following statement is true: $Hrtimes_varphi K$ is abelian if and only if $H$ is abelian, $K$ is abelian, and $varphi$ is the trivial homomorphism.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$













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              3 Answers
              3






              active

              oldest

              votes








              3 Answers
              3






              active

              oldest

              votes









              active

              oldest

              votes






              active

              oldest

              votes









              3












              $begingroup$

              The comutativity is equivalent to



              $$y_1 y_2= y_2 y_1 forall y_iin K$$
              $$x_1 phi ( y_1 ) ( x_2 ) = x_2phi ( y_2 ) ( x_1 ) forall x_i in H y_i in K$$



              The $K$ must be abelian, from the second equation we take



              $$phi (y_2 ) ( x_1 ) = x_2^{-1} x_1 phi ( y_1 ) ( x_2 ) $$



              So $phi (y_2 ) ( x_1 ) $ does not depend on the value of $y_2$, hence $phi$ is a constant homomorphism, hence is the null homomorphism ( always equal to the identity ) then from the second equation again



              $$x_2 x_1 = x_1 x_2 $$



              So $H$ must be abelian as well. So the semi-direct product is abelian iff both factors are abelian and the linking homomorphism is the trivial.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$













              • $begingroup$
                Sorry, I don't think it's clear that ϕ(y2)(x1) does not depend on the value of y2, because if change y2 to y3, then ϕ(y3)(x1)=x^(−1)3x1ϕ(y1)(x3)
                $endgroup$
                – 6666
                Oct 1 '14 at 18:42










              • $begingroup$
                $x_3$ does not depend on $y_3$.
                $endgroup$
                – PenasRaul
                Oct 1 '14 at 20:49
















              3












              $begingroup$

              The comutativity is equivalent to



              $$y_1 y_2= y_2 y_1 forall y_iin K$$
              $$x_1 phi ( y_1 ) ( x_2 ) = x_2phi ( y_2 ) ( x_1 ) forall x_i in H y_i in K$$



              The $K$ must be abelian, from the second equation we take



              $$phi (y_2 ) ( x_1 ) = x_2^{-1} x_1 phi ( y_1 ) ( x_2 ) $$



              So $phi (y_2 ) ( x_1 ) $ does not depend on the value of $y_2$, hence $phi$ is a constant homomorphism, hence is the null homomorphism ( always equal to the identity ) then from the second equation again



              $$x_2 x_1 = x_1 x_2 $$



              So $H$ must be abelian as well. So the semi-direct product is abelian iff both factors are abelian and the linking homomorphism is the trivial.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$













              • $begingroup$
                Sorry, I don't think it's clear that ϕ(y2)(x1) does not depend on the value of y2, because if change y2 to y3, then ϕ(y3)(x1)=x^(−1)3x1ϕ(y1)(x3)
                $endgroup$
                – 6666
                Oct 1 '14 at 18:42










              • $begingroup$
                $x_3$ does not depend on $y_3$.
                $endgroup$
                – PenasRaul
                Oct 1 '14 at 20:49














              3












              3








              3





              $begingroup$

              The comutativity is equivalent to



              $$y_1 y_2= y_2 y_1 forall y_iin K$$
              $$x_1 phi ( y_1 ) ( x_2 ) = x_2phi ( y_2 ) ( x_1 ) forall x_i in H y_i in K$$



              The $K$ must be abelian, from the second equation we take



              $$phi (y_2 ) ( x_1 ) = x_2^{-1} x_1 phi ( y_1 ) ( x_2 ) $$



              So $phi (y_2 ) ( x_1 ) $ does not depend on the value of $y_2$, hence $phi$ is a constant homomorphism, hence is the null homomorphism ( always equal to the identity ) then from the second equation again



              $$x_2 x_1 = x_1 x_2 $$



              So $H$ must be abelian as well. So the semi-direct product is abelian iff both factors are abelian and the linking homomorphism is the trivial.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$



              The comutativity is equivalent to



              $$y_1 y_2= y_2 y_1 forall y_iin K$$
              $$x_1 phi ( y_1 ) ( x_2 ) = x_2phi ( y_2 ) ( x_1 ) forall x_i in H y_i in K$$



              The $K$ must be abelian, from the second equation we take



              $$phi (y_2 ) ( x_1 ) = x_2^{-1} x_1 phi ( y_1 ) ( x_2 ) $$



              So $phi (y_2 ) ( x_1 ) $ does not depend on the value of $y_2$, hence $phi$ is a constant homomorphism, hence is the null homomorphism ( always equal to the identity ) then from the second equation again



              $$x_2 x_1 = x_1 x_2 $$



              So $H$ must be abelian as well. So the semi-direct product is abelian iff both factors are abelian and the linking homomorphism is the trivial.







              share|cite|improve this answer












              share|cite|improve this answer



              share|cite|improve this answer










              answered Oct 1 '14 at 18:14









              PenasRaulPenasRaul

              1,07448




              1,07448












              • $begingroup$
                Sorry, I don't think it's clear that ϕ(y2)(x1) does not depend on the value of y2, because if change y2 to y3, then ϕ(y3)(x1)=x^(−1)3x1ϕ(y1)(x3)
                $endgroup$
                – 6666
                Oct 1 '14 at 18:42










              • $begingroup$
                $x_3$ does not depend on $y_3$.
                $endgroup$
                – PenasRaul
                Oct 1 '14 at 20:49


















              • $begingroup$
                Sorry, I don't think it's clear that ϕ(y2)(x1) does not depend on the value of y2, because if change y2 to y3, then ϕ(y3)(x1)=x^(−1)3x1ϕ(y1)(x3)
                $endgroup$
                – 6666
                Oct 1 '14 at 18:42










              • $begingroup$
                $x_3$ does not depend on $y_3$.
                $endgroup$
                – PenasRaul
                Oct 1 '14 at 20:49
















              $begingroup$
              Sorry, I don't think it's clear that ϕ(y2)(x1) does not depend on the value of y2, because if change y2 to y3, then ϕ(y3)(x1)=x^(−1)3x1ϕ(y1)(x3)
              $endgroup$
              – 6666
              Oct 1 '14 at 18:42




              $begingroup$
              Sorry, I don't think it's clear that ϕ(y2)(x1) does not depend on the value of y2, because if change y2 to y3, then ϕ(y3)(x1)=x^(−1)3x1ϕ(y1)(x3)
              $endgroup$
              – 6666
              Oct 1 '14 at 18:42












              $begingroup$
              $x_3$ does not depend on $y_3$.
              $endgroup$
              – PenasRaul
              Oct 1 '14 at 20:49




              $begingroup$
              $x_3$ does not depend on $y_3$.
              $endgroup$
              – PenasRaul
              Oct 1 '14 at 20:49











              3












              $begingroup$

              If $phi:Kto{rm Aut}(H)$ is not trivial then $phi_k:Hto H$ is nontrivial for some $kin K$, so $phi_k(h)ne h$ for some $hin H$, in which case $khk^{-1}=phi_k(h)ne h~,Rightarrow~ khne hk$ within $Hrtimes K$.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$


















                3












                $begingroup$

                If $phi:Kto{rm Aut}(H)$ is not trivial then $phi_k:Hto H$ is nontrivial for some $kin K$, so $phi_k(h)ne h$ for some $hin H$, in which case $khk^{-1}=phi_k(h)ne h~,Rightarrow~ khne hk$ within $Hrtimes K$.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$
















                  3












                  3








                  3





                  $begingroup$

                  If $phi:Kto{rm Aut}(H)$ is not trivial then $phi_k:Hto H$ is nontrivial for some $kin K$, so $phi_k(h)ne h$ for some $hin H$, in which case $khk^{-1}=phi_k(h)ne h~,Rightarrow~ khne hk$ within $Hrtimes K$.






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$



                  If $phi:Kto{rm Aut}(H)$ is not trivial then $phi_k:Hto H$ is nontrivial for some $kin K$, so $phi_k(h)ne h$ for some $hin H$, in which case $khk^{-1}=phi_k(h)ne h~,Rightarrow~ khne hk$ within $Hrtimes K$.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Oct 1 '14 at 20:31









                  whackawhacka

                  12.1k1734




                  12.1k1734























                      1












                      $begingroup$

                      $H$ and $K$ are subgroups of $Hrtimes K$, so if $Hrtimes K$ then $H$ and $K$ had better be abelian too.



                      The homomorphism $varphi:Ktooperatorname{Aut}(H)$ becomes conjugation in $Hrtimes_varphi K$. Conjugation is always trivial in abelian groups, so again, if $Hrtimes_varphi K$ is abelian, then $varphi$ had better be trivial.



                      In fact, the following statement is true: $Hrtimes_varphi K$ is abelian if and only if $H$ is abelian, $K$ is abelian, and $varphi$ is the trivial homomorphism.






                      share|cite|improve this answer









                      $endgroup$


















                        1












                        $begingroup$

                        $H$ and $K$ are subgroups of $Hrtimes K$, so if $Hrtimes K$ then $H$ and $K$ had better be abelian too.



                        The homomorphism $varphi:Ktooperatorname{Aut}(H)$ becomes conjugation in $Hrtimes_varphi K$. Conjugation is always trivial in abelian groups, so again, if $Hrtimes_varphi K$ is abelian, then $varphi$ had better be trivial.



                        In fact, the following statement is true: $Hrtimes_varphi K$ is abelian if and only if $H$ is abelian, $K$ is abelian, and $varphi$ is the trivial homomorphism.






                        share|cite|improve this answer









                        $endgroup$
















                          1












                          1








                          1





                          $begingroup$

                          $H$ and $K$ are subgroups of $Hrtimes K$, so if $Hrtimes K$ then $H$ and $K$ had better be abelian too.



                          The homomorphism $varphi:Ktooperatorname{Aut}(H)$ becomes conjugation in $Hrtimes_varphi K$. Conjugation is always trivial in abelian groups, so again, if $Hrtimes_varphi K$ is abelian, then $varphi$ had better be trivial.



                          In fact, the following statement is true: $Hrtimes_varphi K$ is abelian if and only if $H$ is abelian, $K$ is abelian, and $varphi$ is the trivial homomorphism.






                          share|cite|improve this answer









                          $endgroup$



                          $H$ and $K$ are subgroups of $Hrtimes K$, so if $Hrtimes K$ then $H$ and $K$ had better be abelian too.



                          The homomorphism $varphi:Ktooperatorname{Aut}(H)$ becomes conjugation in $Hrtimes_varphi K$. Conjugation is always trivial in abelian groups, so again, if $Hrtimes_varphi K$ is abelian, then $varphi$ had better be trivial.



                          In fact, the following statement is true: $Hrtimes_varphi K$ is abelian if and only if $H$ is abelian, $K$ is abelian, and $varphi$ is the trivial homomorphism.







                          share|cite|improve this answer












                          share|cite|improve this answer



                          share|cite|improve this answer










                          answered Oct 1 '14 at 20:43









                          SladeSlade

                          25.2k12665




                          25.2k12665






























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