$f$ continuous, $a_nneq2,lim_{n to infty}a_n=2, b_n=frac{f(a_n)-f(2)}{a_n-2}, b_n$ converges $Rightarrow f$...












1












$begingroup$


So I've been struggling with this prove/disprove question:




Let $f:mathbb Rrightarrow mathbb R$ be a continuous function and let $a_nneq2, b_n $ be two sequences such that $lim_{n to infty}a_n=2$ and $b_n=frac{f(a_n)-f(2)}{a_n-2}.$ Prove or disprove that if $b_n$ converges, then $f$ is differentiable at $x=2$.




Since f is continuous, I realized that $lim_{n to infty} f(a_n)=f(2)$, but that is essentially it. I can't seem to figure out how to deal with the "$frac{0}{0}$" limit. It did occur to me, though, that this limit looks like a derivative, however I have no idea how to deal with it when it comes to sequences (Heine doesn't seem to help me much here).



Thank you very much and have a beautiful day.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Hint: $f$ does not have to be differentiable, look for a counterexample.
    $endgroup$
    – Wojowu
    Jan 2 at 14:33










  • $begingroup$
    @Wojowu Oh well that wasn't hard. I was so concentrated on proving the statement that I forgot that it might be wrong. Thanks!
    $endgroup$
    – Amit Zach
    Jan 2 at 14:36










  • $begingroup$
    @Wojowu If $f$ is differentiable for every $xneq 2$, can I say that $b_n$ is bounded?
    $endgroup$
    – Amit Zach
    Jan 2 at 14:37












  • $begingroup$
    No, it needn't be bounded. Unless you are still assuming $b_n$ is convergent, then of course it is bounded.
    $endgroup$
    – Wojowu
    Jan 2 at 14:41










  • $begingroup$
    @Wojowu Hmm, I see. It seems that I have an example for that, but the problem is that the $f$ that I chose would be differentiable for every real $x$. I can't find an example where $f$ is differentiable for every real $x$ apart from $2$. Could you help me with this one too? Much appriciated.
    $endgroup$
    – Amit Zach
    Jan 2 at 14:46


















1












$begingroup$


So I've been struggling with this prove/disprove question:




Let $f:mathbb Rrightarrow mathbb R$ be a continuous function and let $a_nneq2, b_n $ be two sequences such that $lim_{n to infty}a_n=2$ and $b_n=frac{f(a_n)-f(2)}{a_n-2}.$ Prove or disprove that if $b_n$ converges, then $f$ is differentiable at $x=2$.




Since f is continuous, I realized that $lim_{n to infty} f(a_n)=f(2)$, but that is essentially it. I can't seem to figure out how to deal with the "$frac{0}{0}$" limit. It did occur to me, though, that this limit looks like a derivative, however I have no idea how to deal with it when it comes to sequences (Heine doesn't seem to help me much here).



Thank you very much and have a beautiful day.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Hint: $f$ does not have to be differentiable, look for a counterexample.
    $endgroup$
    – Wojowu
    Jan 2 at 14:33










  • $begingroup$
    @Wojowu Oh well that wasn't hard. I was so concentrated on proving the statement that I forgot that it might be wrong. Thanks!
    $endgroup$
    – Amit Zach
    Jan 2 at 14:36










  • $begingroup$
    @Wojowu If $f$ is differentiable for every $xneq 2$, can I say that $b_n$ is bounded?
    $endgroup$
    – Amit Zach
    Jan 2 at 14:37












  • $begingroup$
    No, it needn't be bounded. Unless you are still assuming $b_n$ is convergent, then of course it is bounded.
    $endgroup$
    – Wojowu
    Jan 2 at 14:41










  • $begingroup$
    @Wojowu Hmm, I see. It seems that I have an example for that, but the problem is that the $f$ that I chose would be differentiable for every real $x$. I can't find an example where $f$ is differentiable for every real $x$ apart from $2$. Could you help me with this one too? Much appriciated.
    $endgroup$
    – Amit Zach
    Jan 2 at 14:46
















1












1








1





$begingroup$


So I've been struggling with this prove/disprove question:




Let $f:mathbb Rrightarrow mathbb R$ be a continuous function and let $a_nneq2, b_n $ be two sequences such that $lim_{n to infty}a_n=2$ and $b_n=frac{f(a_n)-f(2)}{a_n-2}.$ Prove or disprove that if $b_n$ converges, then $f$ is differentiable at $x=2$.




Since f is continuous, I realized that $lim_{n to infty} f(a_n)=f(2)$, but that is essentially it. I can't seem to figure out how to deal with the "$frac{0}{0}$" limit. It did occur to me, though, that this limit looks like a derivative, however I have no idea how to deal with it when it comes to sequences (Heine doesn't seem to help me much here).



Thank you very much and have a beautiful day.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




So I've been struggling with this prove/disprove question:




Let $f:mathbb Rrightarrow mathbb R$ be a continuous function and let $a_nneq2, b_n $ be two sequences such that $lim_{n to infty}a_n=2$ and $b_n=frac{f(a_n)-f(2)}{a_n-2}.$ Prove or disprove that if $b_n$ converges, then $f$ is differentiable at $x=2$.




Since f is continuous, I realized that $lim_{n to infty} f(a_n)=f(2)$, but that is essentially it. I can't seem to figure out how to deal with the "$frac{0}{0}$" limit. It did occur to me, though, that this limit looks like a derivative, however I have no idea how to deal with it when it comes to sequences (Heine doesn't seem to help me much here).



Thank you very much and have a beautiful day.







calculus limits functions derivatives






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Jan 2 at 14:58







Amit Zach

















asked Jan 2 at 14:30









Amit ZachAmit Zach

1106




1106








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Hint: $f$ does not have to be differentiable, look for a counterexample.
    $endgroup$
    – Wojowu
    Jan 2 at 14:33










  • $begingroup$
    @Wojowu Oh well that wasn't hard. I was so concentrated on proving the statement that I forgot that it might be wrong. Thanks!
    $endgroup$
    – Amit Zach
    Jan 2 at 14:36










  • $begingroup$
    @Wojowu If $f$ is differentiable for every $xneq 2$, can I say that $b_n$ is bounded?
    $endgroup$
    – Amit Zach
    Jan 2 at 14:37












  • $begingroup$
    No, it needn't be bounded. Unless you are still assuming $b_n$ is convergent, then of course it is bounded.
    $endgroup$
    – Wojowu
    Jan 2 at 14:41










  • $begingroup$
    @Wojowu Hmm, I see. It seems that I have an example for that, but the problem is that the $f$ that I chose would be differentiable for every real $x$. I can't find an example where $f$ is differentiable for every real $x$ apart from $2$. Could you help me with this one too? Much appriciated.
    $endgroup$
    – Amit Zach
    Jan 2 at 14:46
















  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Hint: $f$ does not have to be differentiable, look for a counterexample.
    $endgroup$
    – Wojowu
    Jan 2 at 14:33










  • $begingroup$
    @Wojowu Oh well that wasn't hard. I was so concentrated on proving the statement that I forgot that it might be wrong. Thanks!
    $endgroup$
    – Amit Zach
    Jan 2 at 14:36










  • $begingroup$
    @Wojowu If $f$ is differentiable for every $xneq 2$, can I say that $b_n$ is bounded?
    $endgroup$
    – Amit Zach
    Jan 2 at 14:37












  • $begingroup$
    No, it needn't be bounded. Unless you are still assuming $b_n$ is convergent, then of course it is bounded.
    $endgroup$
    – Wojowu
    Jan 2 at 14:41










  • $begingroup$
    @Wojowu Hmm, I see. It seems that I have an example for that, but the problem is that the $f$ that I chose would be differentiable for every real $x$. I can't find an example where $f$ is differentiable for every real $x$ apart from $2$. Could you help me with this one too? Much appriciated.
    $endgroup$
    – Amit Zach
    Jan 2 at 14:46










2




2




$begingroup$
Hint: $f$ does not have to be differentiable, look for a counterexample.
$endgroup$
– Wojowu
Jan 2 at 14:33




$begingroup$
Hint: $f$ does not have to be differentiable, look for a counterexample.
$endgroup$
– Wojowu
Jan 2 at 14:33












$begingroup$
@Wojowu Oh well that wasn't hard. I was so concentrated on proving the statement that I forgot that it might be wrong. Thanks!
$endgroup$
– Amit Zach
Jan 2 at 14:36




$begingroup$
@Wojowu Oh well that wasn't hard. I was so concentrated on proving the statement that I forgot that it might be wrong. Thanks!
$endgroup$
– Amit Zach
Jan 2 at 14:36












$begingroup$
@Wojowu If $f$ is differentiable for every $xneq 2$, can I say that $b_n$ is bounded?
$endgroup$
– Amit Zach
Jan 2 at 14:37






$begingroup$
@Wojowu If $f$ is differentiable for every $xneq 2$, can I say that $b_n$ is bounded?
$endgroup$
– Amit Zach
Jan 2 at 14:37














$begingroup$
No, it needn't be bounded. Unless you are still assuming $b_n$ is convergent, then of course it is bounded.
$endgroup$
– Wojowu
Jan 2 at 14:41




$begingroup$
No, it needn't be bounded. Unless you are still assuming $b_n$ is convergent, then of course it is bounded.
$endgroup$
– Wojowu
Jan 2 at 14:41












$begingroup$
@Wojowu Hmm, I see. It seems that I have an example for that, but the problem is that the $f$ that I chose would be differentiable for every real $x$. I can't find an example where $f$ is differentiable for every real $x$ apart from $2$. Could you help me with this one too? Much appriciated.
$endgroup$
– Amit Zach
Jan 2 at 14:46






$begingroup$
@Wojowu Hmm, I see. It seems that I have an example for that, but the problem is that the $f$ that I chose would be differentiable for every real $x$. I can't find an example where $f$ is differentiable for every real $x$ apart from $2$. Could you help me with this one too? Much appriciated.
$endgroup$
– Amit Zach
Jan 2 at 14:46












1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















2












$begingroup$

The statement is false.



For example if you let $f(x) = |x - 2|$ and $a_n = 2 + frac{1}{n}$ for each $nin mathbb{N}$, then $$lim_{ntoinfty} a_n = 2$$ and
$$lim_{ntoinfty} b_n = lim_{ntoinfty} frac{f(a_n) - f(2)}{a_n - 2} = lim_{ntoinfty} 1 = 1 $$
So $b_n$ converges, but $f$ is not differentiable at $2$.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$









  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Thanks! This is exactly the counterexample I eventually used (although it was $|x-2|$ for me rather than $|x|-2$).
    $endgroup$
    – Amit Zach
    Jan 2 at 14:53










  • $begingroup$
    Oh yes, that is a typo. It should be $|x-2|$.
    $endgroup$
    – M47145
    Jan 2 at 15:00












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1 Answer
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active

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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

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active

oldest

votes









2












$begingroup$

The statement is false.



For example if you let $f(x) = |x - 2|$ and $a_n = 2 + frac{1}{n}$ for each $nin mathbb{N}$, then $$lim_{ntoinfty} a_n = 2$$ and
$$lim_{ntoinfty} b_n = lim_{ntoinfty} frac{f(a_n) - f(2)}{a_n - 2} = lim_{ntoinfty} 1 = 1 $$
So $b_n$ converges, but $f$ is not differentiable at $2$.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$









  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Thanks! This is exactly the counterexample I eventually used (although it was $|x-2|$ for me rather than $|x|-2$).
    $endgroup$
    – Amit Zach
    Jan 2 at 14:53










  • $begingroup$
    Oh yes, that is a typo. It should be $|x-2|$.
    $endgroup$
    – M47145
    Jan 2 at 15:00
















2












$begingroup$

The statement is false.



For example if you let $f(x) = |x - 2|$ and $a_n = 2 + frac{1}{n}$ for each $nin mathbb{N}$, then $$lim_{ntoinfty} a_n = 2$$ and
$$lim_{ntoinfty} b_n = lim_{ntoinfty} frac{f(a_n) - f(2)}{a_n - 2} = lim_{ntoinfty} 1 = 1 $$
So $b_n$ converges, but $f$ is not differentiable at $2$.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$









  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Thanks! This is exactly the counterexample I eventually used (although it was $|x-2|$ for me rather than $|x|-2$).
    $endgroup$
    – Amit Zach
    Jan 2 at 14:53










  • $begingroup$
    Oh yes, that is a typo. It should be $|x-2|$.
    $endgroup$
    – M47145
    Jan 2 at 15:00














2












2








2





$begingroup$

The statement is false.



For example if you let $f(x) = |x - 2|$ and $a_n = 2 + frac{1}{n}$ for each $nin mathbb{N}$, then $$lim_{ntoinfty} a_n = 2$$ and
$$lim_{ntoinfty} b_n = lim_{ntoinfty} frac{f(a_n) - f(2)}{a_n - 2} = lim_{ntoinfty} 1 = 1 $$
So $b_n$ converges, but $f$ is not differentiable at $2$.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$



The statement is false.



For example if you let $f(x) = |x - 2|$ and $a_n = 2 + frac{1}{n}$ for each $nin mathbb{N}$, then $$lim_{ntoinfty} a_n = 2$$ and
$$lim_{ntoinfty} b_n = lim_{ntoinfty} frac{f(a_n) - f(2)}{a_n - 2} = lim_{ntoinfty} 1 = 1 $$
So $b_n$ converges, but $f$ is not differentiable at $2$.







share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited Jan 2 at 15:01

























answered Jan 2 at 14:50









M47145M47145

3,28831131




3,28831131








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Thanks! This is exactly the counterexample I eventually used (although it was $|x-2|$ for me rather than $|x|-2$).
    $endgroup$
    – Amit Zach
    Jan 2 at 14:53










  • $begingroup$
    Oh yes, that is a typo. It should be $|x-2|$.
    $endgroup$
    – M47145
    Jan 2 at 15:00














  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Thanks! This is exactly the counterexample I eventually used (although it was $|x-2|$ for me rather than $|x|-2$).
    $endgroup$
    – Amit Zach
    Jan 2 at 14:53










  • $begingroup$
    Oh yes, that is a typo. It should be $|x-2|$.
    $endgroup$
    – M47145
    Jan 2 at 15:00








2




2




$begingroup$
Thanks! This is exactly the counterexample I eventually used (although it was $|x-2|$ for me rather than $|x|-2$).
$endgroup$
– Amit Zach
Jan 2 at 14:53




$begingroup$
Thanks! This is exactly the counterexample I eventually used (although it was $|x-2|$ for me rather than $|x|-2$).
$endgroup$
– Amit Zach
Jan 2 at 14:53












$begingroup$
Oh yes, that is a typo. It should be $|x-2|$.
$endgroup$
– M47145
Jan 2 at 15:00




$begingroup$
Oh yes, that is a typo. It should be $|x-2|$.
$endgroup$
– M47145
Jan 2 at 15:00


















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