Differential of scalar product












1












$begingroup$


Task from homework:




Let $f:Bbb R^ntoBbb R$, $f(x,y)=langle x, yrangle$, where $langlecdot,cdotrangle$ means the scalar product in $Bbb R^n$.
Find the differential $Df(x,y)(h,k)$.




First, the domain of $f$ is surely wrong, so with correcting it to $Bbb R^ntimes Bbb R^n$, I'm struggling to even start because every theorem we ever mentioned in class was about functions with the domain in $Bbb R^n$. How can $f$ be partially differentiated if the components $x$ and $y$ are again vectors?
Partial derivatives were my first idea, but any help would be appreciated.










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  • $begingroup$
    I think $f$ can be interpreted as $f(x,y)=xcdot y$, so $D_f(h,k)=Bigl.(y,x)Bigr|_{(h,k)}=(k,h)$. Also, there is no correlation between its domain and its variables; $Bbb R^n$ but $(x,y)$?
    $endgroup$
    – manooooh
    Dec 25 '18 at 17:53












  • $begingroup$
    Well, $mathbb{R^n}timesmathbb{R^n}$ is just $mathbb{R^{2n}}$.
    $endgroup$
    – Mark
    Dec 25 '18 at 17:55








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Particular case of math.stackexchange.com/questions/1120430/….
    $endgroup$
    – Martín-Blas Pérez Pinilla
    Dec 25 '18 at 18:24
















1












$begingroup$


Task from homework:




Let $f:Bbb R^ntoBbb R$, $f(x,y)=langle x, yrangle$, where $langlecdot,cdotrangle$ means the scalar product in $Bbb R^n$.
Find the differential $Df(x,y)(h,k)$.




First, the domain of $f$ is surely wrong, so with correcting it to $Bbb R^ntimes Bbb R^n$, I'm struggling to even start because every theorem we ever mentioned in class was about functions with the domain in $Bbb R^n$. How can $f$ be partially differentiated if the components $x$ and $y$ are again vectors?
Partial derivatives were my first idea, but any help would be appreciated.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    I think $f$ can be interpreted as $f(x,y)=xcdot y$, so $D_f(h,k)=Bigl.(y,x)Bigr|_{(h,k)}=(k,h)$. Also, there is no correlation between its domain and its variables; $Bbb R^n$ but $(x,y)$?
    $endgroup$
    – manooooh
    Dec 25 '18 at 17:53












  • $begingroup$
    Well, $mathbb{R^n}timesmathbb{R^n}$ is just $mathbb{R^{2n}}$.
    $endgroup$
    – Mark
    Dec 25 '18 at 17:55








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Particular case of math.stackexchange.com/questions/1120430/….
    $endgroup$
    – Martín-Blas Pérez Pinilla
    Dec 25 '18 at 18:24














1












1








1





$begingroup$


Task from homework:




Let $f:Bbb R^ntoBbb R$, $f(x,y)=langle x, yrangle$, where $langlecdot,cdotrangle$ means the scalar product in $Bbb R^n$.
Find the differential $Df(x,y)(h,k)$.




First, the domain of $f$ is surely wrong, so with correcting it to $Bbb R^ntimes Bbb R^n$, I'm struggling to even start because every theorem we ever mentioned in class was about functions with the domain in $Bbb R^n$. How can $f$ be partially differentiated if the components $x$ and $y$ are again vectors?
Partial derivatives were my first idea, but any help would be appreciated.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




Task from homework:




Let $f:Bbb R^ntoBbb R$, $f(x,y)=langle x, yrangle$, where $langlecdot,cdotrangle$ means the scalar product in $Bbb R^n$.
Find the differential $Df(x,y)(h,k)$.




First, the domain of $f$ is surely wrong, so with correcting it to $Bbb R^ntimes Bbb R^n$, I'm struggling to even start because every theorem we ever mentioned in class was about functions with the domain in $Bbb R^n$. How can $f$ be partially differentiated if the components $x$ and $y$ are again vectors?
Partial derivatives were my first idea, but any help would be appreciated.







multivariable-calculus






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edited Dec 25 '18 at 18:08









APC89

2,341620




2,341620










asked Dec 25 '18 at 17:49









LenaLena

335




335












  • $begingroup$
    I think $f$ can be interpreted as $f(x,y)=xcdot y$, so $D_f(h,k)=Bigl.(y,x)Bigr|_{(h,k)}=(k,h)$. Also, there is no correlation between its domain and its variables; $Bbb R^n$ but $(x,y)$?
    $endgroup$
    – manooooh
    Dec 25 '18 at 17:53












  • $begingroup$
    Well, $mathbb{R^n}timesmathbb{R^n}$ is just $mathbb{R^{2n}}$.
    $endgroup$
    – Mark
    Dec 25 '18 at 17:55








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Particular case of math.stackexchange.com/questions/1120430/….
    $endgroup$
    – Martín-Blas Pérez Pinilla
    Dec 25 '18 at 18:24


















  • $begingroup$
    I think $f$ can be interpreted as $f(x,y)=xcdot y$, so $D_f(h,k)=Bigl.(y,x)Bigr|_{(h,k)}=(k,h)$. Also, there is no correlation between its domain and its variables; $Bbb R^n$ but $(x,y)$?
    $endgroup$
    – manooooh
    Dec 25 '18 at 17:53












  • $begingroup$
    Well, $mathbb{R^n}timesmathbb{R^n}$ is just $mathbb{R^{2n}}$.
    $endgroup$
    – Mark
    Dec 25 '18 at 17:55








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Particular case of math.stackexchange.com/questions/1120430/….
    $endgroup$
    – Martín-Blas Pérez Pinilla
    Dec 25 '18 at 18:24
















$begingroup$
I think $f$ can be interpreted as $f(x,y)=xcdot y$, so $D_f(h,k)=Bigl.(y,x)Bigr|_{(h,k)}=(k,h)$. Also, there is no correlation between its domain and its variables; $Bbb R^n$ but $(x,y)$?
$endgroup$
– manooooh
Dec 25 '18 at 17:53






$begingroup$
I think $f$ can be interpreted as $f(x,y)=xcdot y$, so $D_f(h,k)=Bigl.(y,x)Bigr|_{(h,k)}=(k,h)$. Also, there is no correlation between its domain and its variables; $Bbb R^n$ but $(x,y)$?
$endgroup$
– manooooh
Dec 25 '18 at 17:53














$begingroup$
Well, $mathbb{R^n}timesmathbb{R^n}$ is just $mathbb{R^{2n}}$.
$endgroup$
– Mark
Dec 25 '18 at 17:55






$begingroup$
Well, $mathbb{R^n}timesmathbb{R^n}$ is just $mathbb{R^{2n}}$.
$endgroup$
– Mark
Dec 25 '18 at 17:55






1




1




$begingroup$
Particular case of math.stackexchange.com/questions/1120430/….
$endgroup$
– Martín-Blas Pérez Pinilla
Dec 25 '18 at 18:24




$begingroup$
Particular case of math.stackexchange.com/questions/1120430/….
$endgroup$
– Martín-Blas Pérez Pinilla
Dec 25 '18 at 18:24










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

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2












$begingroup$

The value of the differential at a point $(x,y)$ is the linear part of the difference
$;f(x+h, y+k)-f(x,y)$. Now if $f$ is the dot product, we can use bilinearity:
$$f(x+h, y+k)-f(x,y)=langle x+h,y+krangle -langle x, yrangle=underbrace{langle x,krangle+langle h, yrangle}_text{linear terms} +underbrace{langle h, krangle}_{o(|(h,k)|)},$$
so $; Df_{(x,y)}(h,k)=langle x,krangle+langle h, yrangle$.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$





















    0












    $begingroup$

    The (usual, euclidean) scalar product is defined via $$ langle x ,y rangle = x_1 y_1 + x_2 y_2 + dots + x_n y_n $$ with $x,y in mathbb{R}^n$, so your function is essentially $ f:mathbb{R}^n times mathbb{R}^n simeq mathbb{R}^{2n} to mathbb{R} $ defined indeed by $$ f(x,y) = x_1 y_1 + x_2 y_2 + dots + x_n y_n. $$From here you should be able to conclude.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      I agree that $Bbb R^n times Bbb R^n$ is isomorphic to $Bbb R^{2n}$, but is it really correct to say they're equal?
      $endgroup$
      – Lena
      Dec 25 '18 at 18:21










    • $begingroup$
      It is a bit fishy, yes, I edit the answer.
      $endgroup$
      – gangrene
      Dec 25 '18 at 18:35











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    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes








    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes









    2












    $begingroup$

    The value of the differential at a point $(x,y)$ is the linear part of the difference
    $;f(x+h, y+k)-f(x,y)$. Now if $f$ is the dot product, we can use bilinearity:
    $$f(x+h, y+k)-f(x,y)=langle x+h,y+krangle -langle x, yrangle=underbrace{langle x,krangle+langle h, yrangle}_text{linear terms} +underbrace{langle h, krangle}_{o(|(h,k)|)},$$
    so $; Df_{(x,y)}(h,k)=langle x,krangle+langle h, yrangle$.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$


















      2












      $begingroup$

      The value of the differential at a point $(x,y)$ is the linear part of the difference
      $;f(x+h, y+k)-f(x,y)$. Now if $f$ is the dot product, we can use bilinearity:
      $$f(x+h, y+k)-f(x,y)=langle x+h,y+krangle -langle x, yrangle=underbrace{langle x,krangle+langle h, yrangle}_text{linear terms} +underbrace{langle h, krangle}_{o(|(h,k)|)},$$
      so $; Df_{(x,y)}(h,k)=langle x,krangle+langle h, yrangle$.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$
















        2












        2








        2





        $begingroup$

        The value of the differential at a point $(x,y)$ is the linear part of the difference
        $;f(x+h, y+k)-f(x,y)$. Now if $f$ is the dot product, we can use bilinearity:
        $$f(x+h, y+k)-f(x,y)=langle x+h,y+krangle -langle x, yrangle=underbrace{langle x,krangle+langle h, yrangle}_text{linear terms} +underbrace{langle h, krangle}_{o(|(h,k)|)},$$
        so $; Df_{(x,y)}(h,k)=langle x,krangle+langle h, yrangle$.






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$



        The value of the differential at a point $(x,y)$ is the linear part of the difference
        $;f(x+h, y+k)-f(x,y)$. Now if $f$ is the dot product, we can use bilinearity:
        $$f(x+h, y+k)-f(x,y)=langle x+h,y+krangle -langle x, yrangle=underbrace{langle x,krangle+langle h, yrangle}_text{linear terms} +underbrace{langle h, krangle}_{o(|(h,k)|)},$$
        so $; Df_{(x,y)}(h,k)=langle x,krangle+langle h, yrangle$.







        share|cite|improve this answer














        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer








        edited Dec 25 '18 at 19:26

























        answered Dec 25 '18 at 18:35









        BernardBernard

        123k741116




        123k741116























            0












            $begingroup$

            The (usual, euclidean) scalar product is defined via $$ langle x ,y rangle = x_1 y_1 + x_2 y_2 + dots + x_n y_n $$ with $x,y in mathbb{R}^n$, so your function is essentially $ f:mathbb{R}^n times mathbb{R}^n simeq mathbb{R}^{2n} to mathbb{R} $ defined indeed by $$ f(x,y) = x_1 y_1 + x_2 y_2 + dots + x_n y_n. $$From here you should be able to conclude.






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              I agree that $Bbb R^n times Bbb R^n$ is isomorphic to $Bbb R^{2n}$, but is it really correct to say they're equal?
              $endgroup$
              – Lena
              Dec 25 '18 at 18:21










            • $begingroup$
              It is a bit fishy, yes, I edit the answer.
              $endgroup$
              – gangrene
              Dec 25 '18 at 18:35
















            0












            $begingroup$

            The (usual, euclidean) scalar product is defined via $$ langle x ,y rangle = x_1 y_1 + x_2 y_2 + dots + x_n y_n $$ with $x,y in mathbb{R}^n$, so your function is essentially $ f:mathbb{R}^n times mathbb{R}^n simeq mathbb{R}^{2n} to mathbb{R} $ defined indeed by $$ f(x,y) = x_1 y_1 + x_2 y_2 + dots + x_n y_n. $$From here you should be able to conclude.






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              I agree that $Bbb R^n times Bbb R^n$ is isomorphic to $Bbb R^{2n}$, but is it really correct to say they're equal?
              $endgroup$
              – Lena
              Dec 25 '18 at 18:21










            • $begingroup$
              It is a bit fishy, yes, I edit the answer.
              $endgroup$
              – gangrene
              Dec 25 '18 at 18:35














            0












            0








            0





            $begingroup$

            The (usual, euclidean) scalar product is defined via $$ langle x ,y rangle = x_1 y_1 + x_2 y_2 + dots + x_n y_n $$ with $x,y in mathbb{R}^n$, so your function is essentially $ f:mathbb{R}^n times mathbb{R}^n simeq mathbb{R}^{2n} to mathbb{R} $ defined indeed by $$ f(x,y) = x_1 y_1 + x_2 y_2 + dots + x_n y_n. $$From here you should be able to conclude.






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$



            The (usual, euclidean) scalar product is defined via $$ langle x ,y rangle = x_1 y_1 + x_2 y_2 + dots + x_n y_n $$ with $x,y in mathbb{R}^n$, so your function is essentially $ f:mathbb{R}^n times mathbb{R}^n simeq mathbb{R}^{2n} to mathbb{R} $ defined indeed by $$ f(x,y) = x_1 y_1 + x_2 y_2 + dots + x_n y_n. $$From here you should be able to conclude.







            share|cite|improve this answer














            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer








            edited Dec 25 '18 at 18:36

























            answered Dec 25 '18 at 17:54









            gangrenegangrene

            915514




            915514












            • $begingroup$
              I agree that $Bbb R^n times Bbb R^n$ is isomorphic to $Bbb R^{2n}$, but is it really correct to say they're equal?
              $endgroup$
              – Lena
              Dec 25 '18 at 18:21










            • $begingroup$
              It is a bit fishy, yes, I edit the answer.
              $endgroup$
              – gangrene
              Dec 25 '18 at 18:35


















            • $begingroup$
              I agree that $Bbb R^n times Bbb R^n$ is isomorphic to $Bbb R^{2n}$, but is it really correct to say they're equal?
              $endgroup$
              – Lena
              Dec 25 '18 at 18:21










            • $begingroup$
              It is a bit fishy, yes, I edit the answer.
              $endgroup$
              – gangrene
              Dec 25 '18 at 18:35
















            $begingroup$
            I agree that $Bbb R^n times Bbb R^n$ is isomorphic to $Bbb R^{2n}$, but is it really correct to say they're equal?
            $endgroup$
            – Lena
            Dec 25 '18 at 18:21




            $begingroup$
            I agree that $Bbb R^n times Bbb R^n$ is isomorphic to $Bbb R^{2n}$, but is it really correct to say they're equal?
            $endgroup$
            – Lena
            Dec 25 '18 at 18:21












            $begingroup$
            It is a bit fishy, yes, I edit the answer.
            $endgroup$
            – gangrene
            Dec 25 '18 at 18:35




            $begingroup$
            It is a bit fishy, yes, I edit the answer.
            $endgroup$
            – gangrene
            Dec 25 '18 at 18:35


















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