Show that i.i.d. process is ergodic












1












$begingroup$


Let





  • $(Omega,mathcal A,operatorname P)$ be a probability space


  • $(E,mathcal E)$ be a measurable space


  • $(X_n)_{ninmathbb N_0}$ be an $(E,mathcal E)$-valued i.i.d. process on $(Omega,mathcal A,operatorname P)$


  • $mu$ denote the distribution of $X_0$ under $operatorname P$


Assume that there is a Markov kernel $pi$ with source $(E,mathcal E)$ and target $left(E^{mathbb N_0},mathcal E^{otimesmathbb N_0}right)$ with $$operatorname Pleft[Xin Bmid X_0right]=pi(X_0,B);;;text{almost surely for all }Binmathcal E^{otimesmathbb N_0}tag1.$$ Now, let $$tau:E^{mathbb N_0}to E^{mathbb N_0};,;;;(x_n)_{ninmathbb N_0}mapsto(x_{n+1})_{ninmathbb N_0}$$ and $operatorname P_mu:=mupi$ denote the composition of $mu$ and $pi$, i.e. $$operatorname P_mu[B]=intmu({rm d}x_0)pi(x_0,B);;;text{for all }(x_0,B)in Etimesmathcal E^{otimesmathbb N_0}tag2.$$



Note that $tau$ is $operatorname P_mu$-preserving, i.e. the distribution of $tau$ under $operatorname P$ is $operatorname P$.




How can we show that $operatorname P_mu$ is $tau$-ergodic, i.e. $$mathcal I:=left{Binmathcal E^{otimes I}:tau^{-1}(B)=Bright}$$ is $operatorname P_mu$-trivial (each event has $operatorname P_mu$-measure $0$ or $1$)?




Seems to be an easy task, but I don't see where we can make use of the i.i.d.-property of $X$.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$

















    1












    $begingroup$


    Let





    • $(Omega,mathcal A,operatorname P)$ be a probability space


    • $(E,mathcal E)$ be a measurable space


    • $(X_n)_{ninmathbb N_0}$ be an $(E,mathcal E)$-valued i.i.d. process on $(Omega,mathcal A,operatorname P)$


    • $mu$ denote the distribution of $X_0$ under $operatorname P$


    Assume that there is a Markov kernel $pi$ with source $(E,mathcal E)$ and target $left(E^{mathbb N_0},mathcal E^{otimesmathbb N_0}right)$ with $$operatorname Pleft[Xin Bmid X_0right]=pi(X_0,B);;;text{almost surely for all }Binmathcal E^{otimesmathbb N_0}tag1.$$ Now, let $$tau:E^{mathbb N_0}to E^{mathbb N_0};,;;;(x_n)_{ninmathbb N_0}mapsto(x_{n+1})_{ninmathbb N_0}$$ and $operatorname P_mu:=mupi$ denote the composition of $mu$ and $pi$, i.e. $$operatorname P_mu[B]=intmu({rm d}x_0)pi(x_0,B);;;text{for all }(x_0,B)in Etimesmathcal E^{otimesmathbb N_0}tag2.$$



    Note that $tau$ is $operatorname P_mu$-preserving, i.e. the distribution of $tau$ under $operatorname P$ is $operatorname P$.




    How can we show that $operatorname P_mu$ is $tau$-ergodic, i.e. $$mathcal I:=left{Binmathcal E^{otimes I}:tau^{-1}(B)=Bright}$$ is $operatorname P_mu$-trivial (each event has $operatorname P_mu$-measure $0$ or $1$)?




    Seems to be an easy task, but I don't see where we can make use of the i.i.d.-property of $X$.










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      1












      1








      1





      $begingroup$


      Let





      • $(Omega,mathcal A,operatorname P)$ be a probability space


      • $(E,mathcal E)$ be a measurable space


      • $(X_n)_{ninmathbb N_0}$ be an $(E,mathcal E)$-valued i.i.d. process on $(Omega,mathcal A,operatorname P)$


      • $mu$ denote the distribution of $X_0$ under $operatorname P$


      Assume that there is a Markov kernel $pi$ with source $(E,mathcal E)$ and target $left(E^{mathbb N_0},mathcal E^{otimesmathbb N_0}right)$ with $$operatorname Pleft[Xin Bmid X_0right]=pi(X_0,B);;;text{almost surely for all }Binmathcal E^{otimesmathbb N_0}tag1.$$ Now, let $$tau:E^{mathbb N_0}to E^{mathbb N_0};,;;;(x_n)_{ninmathbb N_0}mapsto(x_{n+1})_{ninmathbb N_0}$$ and $operatorname P_mu:=mupi$ denote the composition of $mu$ and $pi$, i.e. $$operatorname P_mu[B]=intmu({rm d}x_0)pi(x_0,B);;;text{for all }(x_0,B)in Etimesmathcal E^{otimesmathbb N_0}tag2.$$



      Note that $tau$ is $operatorname P_mu$-preserving, i.e. the distribution of $tau$ under $operatorname P$ is $operatorname P$.




      How can we show that $operatorname P_mu$ is $tau$-ergodic, i.e. $$mathcal I:=left{Binmathcal E^{otimes I}:tau^{-1}(B)=Bright}$$ is $operatorname P_mu$-trivial (each event has $operatorname P_mu$-measure $0$ or $1$)?




      Seems to be an easy task, but I don't see where we can make use of the i.i.d.-property of $X$.










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      Let





      • $(Omega,mathcal A,operatorname P)$ be a probability space


      • $(E,mathcal E)$ be a measurable space


      • $(X_n)_{ninmathbb N_0}$ be an $(E,mathcal E)$-valued i.i.d. process on $(Omega,mathcal A,operatorname P)$


      • $mu$ denote the distribution of $X_0$ under $operatorname P$


      Assume that there is a Markov kernel $pi$ with source $(E,mathcal E)$ and target $left(E^{mathbb N_0},mathcal E^{otimesmathbb N_0}right)$ with $$operatorname Pleft[Xin Bmid X_0right]=pi(X_0,B);;;text{almost surely for all }Binmathcal E^{otimesmathbb N_0}tag1.$$ Now, let $$tau:E^{mathbb N_0}to E^{mathbb N_0};,;;;(x_n)_{ninmathbb N_0}mapsto(x_{n+1})_{ninmathbb N_0}$$ and $operatorname P_mu:=mupi$ denote the composition of $mu$ and $pi$, i.e. $$operatorname P_mu[B]=intmu({rm d}x_0)pi(x_0,B);;;text{for all }(x_0,B)in Etimesmathcal E^{otimesmathbb N_0}tag2.$$



      Note that $tau$ is $operatorname P_mu$-preserving, i.e. the distribution of $tau$ under $operatorname P$ is $operatorname P$.




      How can we show that $operatorname P_mu$ is $tau$-ergodic, i.e. $$mathcal I:=left{Binmathcal E^{otimes I}:tau^{-1}(B)=Bright}$$ is $operatorname P_mu$-trivial (each event has $operatorname P_mu$-measure $0$ or $1$)?




      Seems to be an easy task, but I don't see where we can make use of the i.i.d.-property of $X$.







      probability-theory stochastic-processes markov-chains markov-process ergodic-theory






      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question











      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question










      asked Jan 4 at 15:00









      0xbadf00d0xbadf00d

      1,80641534




      1,80641534






















          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          1












          $begingroup$

          Set $A:={X in B}$. Since $B=tau^{-1}(B)$ we have



          $$A = {X in tau^{-1}(B)} = {tau(X) in B}.$$



          Iterating the procedure we get



          $$A = {tau^n(X) in B},$$



          for any $n in mathbb{N}$ and therefore



          $$A in sigma(X_n,X_{n+1},ldots), qquad n in mathbb{N}.$$



          Since the sequence $(X_n)_{n in mathbb{N}}$ is iid, it follows from Kolmogorov's 0-1 law that $P(A) in {0,1}$. As



          $$P(A) = P(X in B) = int_E P(X in B mid X_0 = x_0) , mu(dx_0) = int_E pi(x_0,B) , mu(dx_0) = P_{mu}(B)$$



          this proves the assertion.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$














            Your Answer





            StackExchange.ifUsing("editor", function () {
            return StackExchange.using("mathjaxEditing", function () {
            StackExchange.MarkdownEditor.creationCallbacks.add(function (editor, postfix) {
            StackExchange.mathjaxEditing.prepareWmdForMathJax(editor, postfix, [["$", "$"], ["\\(","\\)"]]);
            });
            });
            }, "mathjax-editing");

            StackExchange.ready(function() {
            var channelOptions = {
            tags: "".split(" "),
            id: "69"
            };
            initTagRenderer("".split(" "), "".split(" "), channelOptions);

            StackExchange.using("externalEditor", function() {
            // Have to fire editor after snippets, if snippets enabled
            if (StackExchange.settings.snippets.snippetsEnabled) {
            StackExchange.using("snippets", function() {
            createEditor();
            });
            }
            else {
            createEditor();
            }
            });

            function createEditor() {
            StackExchange.prepareEditor({
            heartbeatType: 'answer',
            autoActivateHeartbeat: false,
            convertImagesToLinks: true,
            noModals: true,
            showLowRepImageUploadWarning: true,
            reputationToPostImages: 10,
            bindNavPrevention: true,
            postfix: "",
            imageUploader: {
            brandingHtml: "Powered by u003ca class="icon-imgur-white" href="https://imgur.com/"u003eu003c/au003e",
            contentPolicyHtml: "User contributions licensed under u003ca href="https://creativecommons.org/licenses/by-sa/3.0/"u003ecc by-sa 3.0 with attribution requiredu003c/au003e u003ca href="https://stackoverflow.com/legal/content-policy"u003e(content policy)u003c/au003e",
            allowUrls: true
            },
            noCode: true, onDemand: true,
            discardSelector: ".discard-answer"
            ,immediatelyShowMarkdownHelp:true
            });


            }
            });














            draft saved

            draft discarded


















            StackExchange.ready(
            function () {
            StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f3061736%2fshow-that-i-i-d-process-is-ergodic%23new-answer', 'question_page');
            }
            );

            Post as a guest















            Required, but never shown

























            1 Answer
            1






            active

            oldest

            votes








            1 Answer
            1






            active

            oldest

            votes









            active

            oldest

            votes






            active

            oldest

            votes









            1












            $begingroup$

            Set $A:={X in B}$. Since $B=tau^{-1}(B)$ we have



            $$A = {X in tau^{-1}(B)} = {tau(X) in B}.$$



            Iterating the procedure we get



            $$A = {tau^n(X) in B},$$



            for any $n in mathbb{N}$ and therefore



            $$A in sigma(X_n,X_{n+1},ldots), qquad n in mathbb{N}.$$



            Since the sequence $(X_n)_{n in mathbb{N}}$ is iid, it follows from Kolmogorov's 0-1 law that $P(A) in {0,1}$. As



            $$P(A) = P(X in B) = int_E P(X in B mid X_0 = x_0) , mu(dx_0) = int_E pi(x_0,B) , mu(dx_0) = P_{mu}(B)$$



            this proves the assertion.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$


















              1












              $begingroup$

              Set $A:={X in B}$. Since $B=tau^{-1}(B)$ we have



              $$A = {X in tau^{-1}(B)} = {tau(X) in B}.$$



              Iterating the procedure we get



              $$A = {tau^n(X) in B},$$



              for any $n in mathbb{N}$ and therefore



              $$A in sigma(X_n,X_{n+1},ldots), qquad n in mathbb{N}.$$



              Since the sequence $(X_n)_{n in mathbb{N}}$ is iid, it follows from Kolmogorov's 0-1 law that $P(A) in {0,1}$. As



              $$P(A) = P(X in B) = int_E P(X in B mid X_0 = x_0) , mu(dx_0) = int_E pi(x_0,B) , mu(dx_0) = P_{mu}(B)$$



              this proves the assertion.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$
















                1












                1








                1





                $begingroup$

                Set $A:={X in B}$. Since $B=tau^{-1}(B)$ we have



                $$A = {X in tau^{-1}(B)} = {tau(X) in B}.$$



                Iterating the procedure we get



                $$A = {tau^n(X) in B},$$



                for any $n in mathbb{N}$ and therefore



                $$A in sigma(X_n,X_{n+1},ldots), qquad n in mathbb{N}.$$



                Since the sequence $(X_n)_{n in mathbb{N}}$ is iid, it follows from Kolmogorov's 0-1 law that $P(A) in {0,1}$. As



                $$P(A) = P(X in B) = int_E P(X in B mid X_0 = x_0) , mu(dx_0) = int_E pi(x_0,B) , mu(dx_0) = P_{mu}(B)$$



                this proves the assertion.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$



                Set $A:={X in B}$. Since $B=tau^{-1}(B)$ we have



                $$A = {X in tau^{-1}(B)} = {tau(X) in B}.$$



                Iterating the procedure we get



                $$A = {tau^n(X) in B},$$



                for any $n in mathbb{N}$ and therefore



                $$A in sigma(X_n,X_{n+1},ldots), qquad n in mathbb{N}.$$



                Since the sequence $(X_n)_{n in mathbb{N}}$ is iid, it follows from Kolmogorov's 0-1 law that $P(A) in {0,1}$. As



                $$P(A) = P(X in B) = int_E P(X in B mid X_0 = x_0) , mu(dx_0) = int_E pi(x_0,B) , mu(dx_0) = P_{mu}(B)$$



                this proves the assertion.







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Jan 4 at 15:40









                sazsaz

                82.1k862131




                82.1k862131






























                    draft saved

                    draft discarded




















































                    Thanks for contributing an answer to Mathematics Stack Exchange!


                    • Please be sure to answer the question. Provide details and share your research!

                    But avoid



                    • Asking for help, clarification, or responding to other answers.

                    • Making statements based on opinion; back them up with references or personal experience.


                    Use MathJax to format equations. MathJax reference.


                    To learn more, see our tips on writing great answers.




                    draft saved


                    draft discarded














                    StackExchange.ready(
                    function () {
                    StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f3061736%2fshow-that-i-i-d-process-is-ergodic%23new-answer', 'question_page');
                    }
                    );

                    Post as a guest















                    Required, but never shown





















































                    Required, but never shown














                    Required, but never shown












                    Required, but never shown







                    Required, but never shown

































                    Required, but never shown














                    Required, but never shown












                    Required, but never shown







                    Required, but never shown







                    Popular posts from this blog

                    Probability when a professor distributes a quiz and homework assignment to a class of n students.

                    Aardman Animations

                    Are they similar matrix