In $triangle ABC$ with $D$ on $overline{AC}$, if $angle CBD=2angle ABD$ and the circumcenter lies on...












1












$begingroup$


enter image description here





  • Let $alpha$ be $measuredangle ABD$

  • Let $beta$ be $measuredangle DBC$

  • Let D be a point on AC such that BD passes through the origin point O


Prove that $frac{AD}{DC}$ cannot be equal to $frac{1}{2}$ when $alpha = frac{1}{2}beta$




Here's what I have:



$$measuredangle AOD = 2alpha$$
$$measuredangle DOC = 2beta$$



From this information I completed all the angles and reached the following (correct) equation by using the law of sines on triangles AOD and DOC, which share the equal length OC = AO:



$$frac{AD}{DC} = frac{sin 2beta}{sin 2alpha}$$



Given that $alpha = frac{1}{2}beta$:



$$frac{AD}{DC} = frac{sin 2beta}{sin beta} = frac{2sin beta cos beta}{sin beta} = 2cosbeta$$
$$downarrow$$
$$2cosbeta = 1/2$$
$$downarrow$$
$$beta = 75.52^circ$$



If $beta = 75.52^circ$, then $2alpha + 2beta > 180^circ$, and the triangle will now look like this:



enter image description here



In this situation, BD cannot pass through O, which breaks the definition of the problem.



This is the best proof I can come up with. I tried first to prove it numerically by summing up angles to 180, but that did not work as all the statements were true. I feel that my proof is borderline illegal and that I do not address all cases, so I am asking if anyone could figure out a more elegant, preferably algebraic alternative.










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$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    @Blue If AC is the diameter, how is $AD/DC = 1/2$? Both AD and DC become radii of the circle and therefore their ratio should be 1.
    $endgroup$
    – daedsidog
    Jan 4 at 15:15






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Whoops. .......
    $endgroup$
    – Blue
    Jan 4 at 15:17
















1












$begingroup$


enter image description here





  • Let $alpha$ be $measuredangle ABD$

  • Let $beta$ be $measuredangle DBC$

  • Let D be a point on AC such that BD passes through the origin point O


Prove that $frac{AD}{DC}$ cannot be equal to $frac{1}{2}$ when $alpha = frac{1}{2}beta$




Here's what I have:



$$measuredangle AOD = 2alpha$$
$$measuredangle DOC = 2beta$$



From this information I completed all the angles and reached the following (correct) equation by using the law of sines on triangles AOD and DOC, which share the equal length OC = AO:



$$frac{AD}{DC} = frac{sin 2beta}{sin 2alpha}$$



Given that $alpha = frac{1}{2}beta$:



$$frac{AD}{DC} = frac{sin 2beta}{sin beta} = frac{2sin beta cos beta}{sin beta} = 2cosbeta$$
$$downarrow$$
$$2cosbeta = 1/2$$
$$downarrow$$
$$beta = 75.52^circ$$



If $beta = 75.52^circ$, then $2alpha + 2beta > 180^circ$, and the triangle will now look like this:



enter image description here



In this situation, BD cannot pass through O, which breaks the definition of the problem.



This is the best proof I can come up with. I tried first to prove it numerically by summing up angles to 180, but that did not work as all the statements were true. I feel that my proof is borderline illegal and that I do not address all cases, so I am asking if anyone could figure out a more elegant, preferably algebraic alternative.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    @Blue If AC is the diameter, how is $AD/DC = 1/2$? Both AD and DC become radii of the circle and therefore their ratio should be 1.
    $endgroup$
    – daedsidog
    Jan 4 at 15:15






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Whoops. .......
    $endgroup$
    – Blue
    Jan 4 at 15:17














1












1








1





$begingroup$


enter image description here





  • Let $alpha$ be $measuredangle ABD$

  • Let $beta$ be $measuredangle DBC$

  • Let D be a point on AC such that BD passes through the origin point O


Prove that $frac{AD}{DC}$ cannot be equal to $frac{1}{2}$ when $alpha = frac{1}{2}beta$




Here's what I have:



$$measuredangle AOD = 2alpha$$
$$measuredangle DOC = 2beta$$



From this information I completed all the angles and reached the following (correct) equation by using the law of sines on triangles AOD and DOC, which share the equal length OC = AO:



$$frac{AD}{DC} = frac{sin 2beta}{sin 2alpha}$$



Given that $alpha = frac{1}{2}beta$:



$$frac{AD}{DC} = frac{sin 2beta}{sin beta} = frac{2sin beta cos beta}{sin beta} = 2cosbeta$$
$$downarrow$$
$$2cosbeta = 1/2$$
$$downarrow$$
$$beta = 75.52^circ$$



If $beta = 75.52^circ$, then $2alpha + 2beta > 180^circ$, and the triangle will now look like this:



enter image description here



In this situation, BD cannot pass through O, which breaks the definition of the problem.



This is the best proof I can come up with. I tried first to prove it numerically by summing up angles to 180, but that did not work as all the statements were true. I feel that my proof is borderline illegal and that I do not address all cases, so I am asking if anyone could figure out a more elegant, preferably algebraic alternative.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




enter image description here





  • Let $alpha$ be $measuredangle ABD$

  • Let $beta$ be $measuredangle DBC$

  • Let D be a point on AC such that BD passes through the origin point O


Prove that $frac{AD}{DC}$ cannot be equal to $frac{1}{2}$ when $alpha = frac{1}{2}beta$




Here's what I have:



$$measuredangle AOD = 2alpha$$
$$measuredangle DOC = 2beta$$



From this information I completed all the angles and reached the following (correct) equation by using the law of sines on triangles AOD and DOC, which share the equal length OC = AO:



$$frac{AD}{DC} = frac{sin 2beta}{sin 2alpha}$$



Given that $alpha = frac{1}{2}beta$:



$$frac{AD}{DC} = frac{sin 2beta}{sin beta} = frac{2sin beta cos beta}{sin beta} = 2cosbeta$$
$$downarrow$$
$$2cosbeta = 1/2$$
$$downarrow$$
$$beta = 75.52^circ$$



If $beta = 75.52^circ$, then $2alpha + 2beta > 180^circ$, and the triangle will now look like this:



enter image description here



In this situation, BD cannot pass through O, which breaks the definition of the problem.



This is the best proof I can come up with. I tried first to prove it numerically by summing up angles to 180, but that did not work as all the statements were true. I feel that my proof is borderline illegal and that I do not address all cases, so I am asking if anyone could figure out a more elegant, preferably algebraic alternative.







geometry trigonometry euclidean-geometry circles






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edited Jan 4 at 15:26









Michael Rozenberg

109k1896201




109k1896201










asked Jan 4 at 14:37









daedsidogdaedsidog

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  • $begingroup$
    @Blue If AC is the diameter, how is $AD/DC = 1/2$? Both AD and DC become radii of the circle and therefore their ratio should be 1.
    $endgroup$
    – daedsidog
    Jan 4 at 15:15






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Whoops. .......
    $endgroup$
    – Blue
    Jan 4 at 15:17


















  • $begingroup$
    @Blue If AC is the diameter, how is $AD/DC = 1/2$? Both AD and DC become radii of the circle and therefore their ratio should be 1.
    $endgroup$
    – daedsidog
    Jan 4 at 15:15






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Whoops. .......
    $endgroup$
    – Blue
    Jan 4 at 15:17
















$begingroup$
@Blue If AC is the diameter, how is $AD/DC = 1/2$? Both AD and DC become radii of the circle and therefore their ratio should be 1.
$endgroup$
– daedsidog
Jan 4 at 15:15




$begingroup$
@Blue If AC is the diameter, how is $AD/DC = 1/2$? Both AD and DC become radii of the circle and therefore their ratio should be 1.
$endgroup$
– daedsidog
Jan 4 at 15:15




1




1




$begingroup$
Whoops. .......
$endgroup$
– Blue
Jan 4 at 15:17




$begingroup$
Whoops. .......
$endgroup$
– Blue
Jan 4 at 15:17










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

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1












$begingroup$

If $frac{AD}{DC}=frac{1}{2}$ by the law of sines we obtain:
$$frac{1}{2}=frac{AD}{DC}=frac{frac{AD}{BD}}{frac{DC}{BD}}=frac{frac{sinalpha}{sinmeasuredangle A}}{frac{sin2alpha}{sinmeasuredangle C}}=frac{frac{sinalpha}{sin(90^{circ}-2a)}}{frac{sin2alpha}{sin(90^{circ}-alpha)}}=frac{sinalphacosalpha}{cos2alphasin2alpha}=frac{1}{2cos2alpha}.$$
Id est, $cos2alpha=1,$ which is impossible.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Strictly out of interest, could you share the thought process which lead you to this?
    $endgroup$
    – daedsidog
    Jan 4 at 15:22










  • $begingroup$
    @daedsidog It's law of sines. Which step is not clear?
    $endgroup$
    – Michael Rozenberg
    Jan 4 at 15:25










  • $begingroup$
    It's perfectly clear, I was asking for clues on how would one even realize to use law of sines in this case.
    $endgroup$
    – daedsidog
    Jan 4 at 15:26












  • $begingroup$
    @daedsidog See the second step (the second equlity). It's a preparation to using of the law of sines.
    $endgroup$
    – Michael Rozenberg
    Jan 4 at 15:30












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$begingroup$

If $frac{AD}{DC}=frac{1}{2}$ by the law of sines we obtain:
$$frac{1}{2}=frac{AD}{DC}=frac{frac{AD}{BD}}{frac{DC}{BD}}=frac{frac{sinalpha}{sinmeasuredangle A}}{frac{sin2alpha}{sinmeasuredangle C}}=frac{frac{sinalpha}{sin(90^{circ}-2a)}}{frac{sin2alpha}{sin(90^{circ}-alpha)}}=frac{sinalphacosalpha}{cos2alphasin2alpha}=frac{1}{2cos2alpha}.$$
Id est, $cos2alpha=1,$ which is impossible.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Strictly out of interest, could you share the thought process which lead you to this?
    $endgroup$
    – daedsidog
    Jan 4 at 15:22










  • $begingroup$
    @daedsidog It's law of sines. Which step is not clear?
    $endgroup$
    – Michael Rozenberg
    Jan 4 at 15:25










  • $begingroup$
    It's perfectly clear, I was asking for clues on how would one even realize to use law of sines in this case.
    $endgroup$
    – daedsidog
    Jan 4 at 15:26












  • $begingroup$
    @daedsidog See the second step (the second equlity). It's a preparation to using of the law of sines.
    $endgroup$
    – Michael Rozenberg
    Jan 4 at 15:30
















1












$begingroup$

If $frac{AD}{DC}=frac{1}{2}$ by the law of sines we obtain:
$$frac{1}{2}=frac{AD}{DC}=frac{frac{AD}{BD}}{frac{DC}{BD}}=frac{frac{sinalpha}{sinmeasuredangle A}}{frac{sin2alpha}{sinmeasuredangle C}}=frac{frac{sinalpha}{sin(90^{circ}-2a)}}{frac{sin2alpha}{sin(90^{circ}-alpha)}}=frac{sinalphacosalpha}{cos2alphasin2alpha}=frac{1}{2cos2alpha}.$$
Id est, $cos2alpha=1,$ which is impossible.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Strictly out of interest, could you share the thought process which lead you to this?
    $endgroup$
    – daedsidog
    Jan 4 at 15:22










  • $begingroup$
    @daedsidog It's law of sines. Which step is not clear?
    $endgroup$
    – Michael Rozenberg
    Jan 4 at 15:25










  • $begingroup$
    It's perfectly clear, I was asking for clues on how would one even realize to use law of sines in this case.
    $endgroup$
    – daedsidog
    Jan 4 at 15:26












  • $begingroup$
    @daedsidog See the second step (the second equlity). It's a preparation to using of the law of sines.
    $endgroup$
    – Michael Rozenberg
    Jan 4 at 15:30














1












1








1





$begingroup$

If $frac{AD}{DC}=frac{1}{2}$ by the law of sines we obtain:
$$frac{1}{2}=frac{AD}{DC}=frac{frac{AD}{BD}}{frac{DC}{BD}}=frac{frac{sinalpha}{sinmeasuredangle A}}{frac{sin2alpha}{sinmeasuredangle C}}=frac{frac{sinalpha}{sin(90^{circ}-2a)}}{frac{sin2alpha}{sin(90^{circ}-alpha)}}=frac{sinalphacosalpha}{cos2alphasin2alpha}=frac{1}{2cos2alpha}.$$
Id est, $cos2alpha=1,$ which is impossible.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$



If $frac{AD}{DC}=frac{1}{2}$ by the law of sines we obtain:
$$frac{1}{2}=frac{AD}{DC}=frac{frac{AD}{BD}}{frac{DC}{BD}}=frac{frac{sinalpha}{sinmeasuredangle A}}{frac{sin2alpha}{sinmeasuredangle C}}=frac{frac{sinalpha}{sin(90^{circ}-2a)}}{frac{sin2alpha}{sin(90^{circ}-alpha)}}=frac{sinalphacosalpha}{cos2alphasin2alpha}=frac{1}{2cos2alpha}.$$
Id est, $cos2alpha=1,$ which is impossible.







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Jan 4 at 15:18









Michael RozenbergMichael Rozenberg

109k1896201




109k1896201












  • $begingroup$
    Strictly out of interest, could you share the thought process which lead you to this?
    $endgroup$
    – daedsidog
    Jan 4 at 15:22










  • $begingroup$
    @daedsidog It's law of sines. Which step is not clear?
    $endgroup$
    – Michael Rozenberg
    Jan 4 at 15:25










  • $begingroup$
    It's perfectly clear, I was asking for clues on how would one even realize to use law of sines in this case.
    $endgroup$
    – daedsidog
    Jan 4 at 15:26












  • $begingroup$
    @daedsidog See the second step (the second equlity). It's a preparation to using of the law of sines.
    $endgroup$
    – Michael Rozenberg
    Jan 4 at 15:30


















  • $begingroup$
    Strictly out of interest, could you share the thought process which lead you to this?
    $endgroup$
    – daedsidog
    Jan 4 at 15:22










  • $begingroup$
    @daedsidog It's law of sines. Which step is not clear?
    $endgroup$
    – Michael Rozenberg
    Jan 4 at 15:25










  • $begingroup$
    It's perfectly clear, I was asking for clues on how would one even realize to use law of sines in this case.
    $endgroup$
    – daedsidog
    Jan 4 at 15:26












  • $begingroup$
    @daedsidog See the second step (the second equlity). It's a preparation to using of the law of sines.
    $endgroup$
    – Michael Rozenberg
    Jan 4 at 15:30
















$begingroup$
Strictly out of interest, could you share the thought process which lead you to this?
$endgroup$
– daedsidog
Jan 4 at 15:22




$begingroup$
Strictly out of interest, could you share the thought process which lead you to this?
$endgroup$
– daedsidog
Jan 4 at 15:22












$begingroup$
@daedsidog It's law of sines. Which step is not clear?
$endgroup$
– Michael Rozenberg
Jan 4 at 15:25




$begingroup$
@daedsidog It's law of sines. Which step is not clear?
$endgroup$
– Michael Rozenberg
Jan 4 at 15:25












$begingroup$
It's perfectly clear, I was asking for clues on how would one even realize to use law of sines in this case.
$endgroup$
– daedsidog
Jan 4 at 15:26






$begingroup$
It's perfectly clear, I was asking for clues on how would one even realize to use law of sines in this case.
$endgroup$
– daedsidog
Jan 4 at 15:26














$begingroup$
@daedsidog See the second step (the second equlity). It's a preparation to using of the law of sines.
$endgroup$
– Michael Rozenberg
Jan 4 at 15:30




$begingroup$
@daedsidog See the second step (the second equlity). It's a preparation to using of the law of sines.
$endgroup$
– Michael Rozenberg
Jan 4 at 15:30


















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