How to show polyhedral cone of nonnegative vectors contains finitely generated cone?












2












$begingroup$


Let $P={x in mathbb{R}^n mid Ax geq b, x geq 0 }$ be a nonempty polyhedron for matrix $A in mathbb{R}^{m times n}$ and $b in mathbb{R}^m$.



According to Minkowski-Weyl theorem $P$ can be written as



$$
P=text{conv}(v_1,cdots,v_p)+ text{cone}(d_1,cdots,d_l)
$$

for some $v_i in mathbb{R}^n$ and $d_j in mathbb{R}^n$.



Let $C={x in mathbb{R}^n mid Ax geq 0, x geq 0 }$.



Show that $text{cone}(d_1,cdots,d_l) subseteq C$.



The thing that that I cannot cope with is how to connect the finite number $l$ that can be any natural number with dimension of the matrix $A$.



I tried the following:



Let $z in text{cone}(d_1,cdots,d_l)$, so there exist non-negative $mu_i$'s such that



$$
z= sum_{i=1}^l mu_id_i
$$

where $mu_1,mu_2,cdots,mu_l geq 0$.



We can write $z$ as the following:



$$
z=
begin{bmatrix}
d_1 & d_2 & cdots & d_l
end{bmatrix}
begin{bmatrix}
mu_1 \
mu_2 \
cdots \
mu_l
end{bmatrix}
$$



Now, we should come up with an $m times n$ matrix $A$ for which we have $Az geq 0$ and $z geq 0$ to prove the claim. But the problem is we do not have $z geq 0$ necessarily.










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$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    The statement is not true for any choice of $v_i$, so you need to chose them appropriately.
    $endgroup$
    – LinAlg
    Dec 14 '18 at 22:27










  • $begingroup$
    @ LinAlg: The statement is true because it says for some $v_i$ and $d_j$. Also, it does not say what $p$ and $l$ are. Maybe I am wrong who am using wrong number for $l$.
    $endgroup$
    – Sepide
    Dec 15 '18 at 0:22










  • $begingroup$
    a proof by contradiction is easier here: what if $z$ is not in $C$?
    $endgroup$
    – LinAlg
    Dec 15 '18 at 0:59










  • $begingroup$
    @LinAlg: How we can do that?
    $endgroup$
    – Sepide
    Dec 15 '18 at 4:13










  • $begingroup$
    if $z$ does not satisfy $Azgeq 0$ or $zgeq 0$, moving in the direction of $z$ will violate a constraint of $P$
    $endgroup$
    – LinAlg
    Dec 15 '18 at 16:19
















2












$begingroup$


Let $P={x in mathbb{R}^n mid Ax geq b, x geq 0 }$ be a nonempty polyhedron for matrix $A in mathbb{R}^{m times n}$ and $b in mathbb{R}^m$.



According to Minkowski-Weyl theorem $P$ can be written as



$$
P=text{conv}(v_1,cdots,v_p)+ text{cone}(d_1,cdots,d_l)
$$

for some $v_i in mathbb{R}^n$ and $d_j in mathbb{R}^n$.



Let $C={x in mathbb{R}^n mid Ax geq 0, x geq 0 }$.



Show that $text{cone}(d_1,cdots,d_l) subseteq C$.



The thing that that I cannot cope with is how to connect the finite number $l$ that can be any natural number with dimension of the matrix $A$.



I tried the following:



Let $z in text{cone}(d_1,cdots,d_l)$, so there exist non-negative $mu_i$'s such that



$$
z= sum_{i=1}^l mu_id_i
$$

where $mu_1,mu_2,cdots,mu_l geq 0$.



We can write $z$ as the following:



$$
z=
begin{bmatrix}
d_1 & d_2 & cdots & d_l
end{bmatrix}
begin{bmatrix}
mu_1 \
mu_2 \
cdots \
mu_l
end{bmatrix}
$$



Now, we should come up with an $m times n$ matrix $A$ for which we have $Az geq 0$ and $z geq 0$ to prove the claim. But the problem is we do not have $z geq 0$ necessarily.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    The statement is not true for any choice of $v_i$, so you need to chose them appropriately.
    $endgroup$
    – LinAlg
    Dec 14 '18 at 22:27










  • $begingroup$
    @ LinAlg: The statement is true because it says for some $v_i$ and $d_j$. Also, it does not say what $p$ and $l$ are. Maybe I am wrong who am using wrong number for $l$.
    $endgroup$
    – Sepide
    Dec 15 '18 at 0:22










  • $begingroup$
    a proof by contradiction is easier here: what if $z$ is not in $C$?
    $endgroup$
    – LinAlg
    Dec 15 '18 at 0:59










  • $begingroup$
    @LinAlg: How we can do that?
    $endgroup$
    – Sepide
    Dec 15 '18 at 4:13










  • $begingroup$
    if $z$ does not satisfy $Azgeq 0$ or $zgeq 0$, moving in the direction of $z$ will violate a constraint of $P$
    $endgroup$
    – LinAlg
    Dec 15 '18 at 16:19














2












2








2





$begingroup$


Let $P={x in mathbb{R}^n mid Ax geq b, x geq 0 }$ be a nonempty polyhedron for matrix $A in mathbb{R}^{m times n}$ and $b in mathbb{R}^m$.



According to Minkowski-Weyl theorem $P$ can be written as



$$
P=text{conv}(v_1,cdots,v_p)+ text{cone}(d_1,cdots,d_l)
$$

for some $v_i in mathbb{R}^n$ and $d_j in mathbb{R}^n$.



Let $C={x in mathbb{R}^n mid Ax geq 0, x geq 0 }$.



Show that $text{cone}(d_1,cdots,d_l) subseteq C$.



The thing that that I cannot cope with is how to connect the finite number $l$ that can be any natural number with dimension of the matrix $A$.



I tried the following:



Let $z in text{cone}(d_1,cdots,d_l)$, so there exist non-negative $mu_i$'s such that



$$
z= sum_{i=1}^l mu_id_i
$$

where $mu_1,mu_2,cdots,mu_l geq 0$.



We can write $z$ as the following:



$$
z=
begin{bmatrix}
d_1 & d_2 & cdots & d_l
end{bmatrix}
begin{bmatrix}
mu_1 \
mu_2 \
cdots \
mu_l
end{bmatrix}
$$



Now, we should come up with an $m times n$ matrix $A$ for which we have $Az geq 0$ and $z geq 0$ to prove the claim. But the problem is we do not have $z geq 0$ necessarily.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




Let $P={x in mathbb{R}^n mid Ax geq b, x geq 0 }$ be a nonempty polyhedron for matrix $A in mathbb{R}^{m times n}$ and $b in mathbb{R}^m$.



According to Minkowski-Weyl theorem $P$ can be written as



$$
P=text{conv}(v_1,cdots,v_p)+ text{cone}(d_1,cdots,d_l)
$$

for some $v_i in mathbb{R}^n$ and $d_j in mathbb{R}^n$.



Let $C={x in mathbb{R}^n mid Ax geq 0, x geq 0 }$.



Show that $text{cone}(d_1,cdots,d_l) subseteq C$.



The thing that that I cannot cope with is how to connect the finite number $l$ that can be any natural number with dimension of the matrix $A$.



I tried the following:



Let $z in text{cone}(d_1,cdots,d_l)$, so there exist non-negative $mu_i$'s such that



$$
z= sum_{i=1}^l mu_id_i
$$

where $mu_1,mu_2,cdots,mu_l geq 0$.



We can write $z$ as the following:



$$
z=
begin{bmatrix}
d_1 & d_2 & cdots & d_l
end{bmatrix}
begin{bmatrix}
mu_1 \
mu_2 \
cdots \
mu_l
end{bmatrix}
$$



Now, we should come up with an $m times n$ matrix $A$ for which we have $Az geq 0$ and $z geq 0$ to prove the claim. But the problem is we do not have $z geq 0$ necessarily.







convex-analysis convex-geometry






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share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Dec 15 '18 at 0:23







Sepide

















asked Dec 14 '18 at 6:43









SepideSepide

3308




3308












  • $begingroup$
    The statement is not true for any choice of $v_i$, so you need to chose them appropriately.
    $endgroup$
    – LinAlg
    Dec 14 '18 at 22:27










  • $begingroup$
    @ LinAlg: The statement is true because it says for some $v_i$ and $d_j$. Also, it does not say what $p$ and $l$ are. Maybe I am wrong who am using wrong number for $l$.
    $endgroup$
    – Sepide
    Dec 15 '18 at 0:22










  • $begingroup$
    a proof by contradiction is easier here: what if $z$ is not in $C$?
    $endgroup$
    – LinAlg
    Dec 15 '18 at 0:59










  • $begingroup$
    @LinAlg: How we can do that?
    $endgroup$
    – Sepide
    Dec 15 '18 at 4:13










  • $begingroup$
    if $z$ does not satisfy $Azgeq 0$ or $zgeq 0$, moving in the direction of $z$ will violate a constraint of $P$
    $endgroup$
    – LinAlg
    Dec 15 '18 at 16:19


















  • $begingroup$
    The statement is not true for any choice of $v_i$, so you need to chose them appropriately.
    $endgroup$
    – LinAlg
    Dec 14 '18 at 22:27










  • $begingroup$
    @ LinAlg: The statement is true because it says for some $v_i$ and $d_j$. Also, it does not say what $p$ and $l$ are. Maybe I am wrong who am using wrong number for $l$.
    $endgroup$
    – Sepide
    Dec 15 '18 at 0:22










  • $begingroup$
    a proof by contradiction is easier here: what if $z$ is not in $C$?
    $endgroup$
    – LinAlg
    Dec 15 '18 at 0:59










  • $begingroup$
    @LinAlg: How we can do that?
    $endgroup$
    – Sepide
    Dec 15 '18 at 4:13










  • $begingroup$
    if $z$ does not satisfy $Azgeq 0$ or $zgeq 0$, moving in the direction of $z$ will violate a constraint of $P$
    $endgroup$
    – LinAlg
    Dec 15 '18 at 16:19
















$begingroup$
The statement is not true for any choice of $v_i$, so you need to chose them appropriately.
$endgroup$
– LinAlg
Dec 14 '18 at 22:27




$begingroup$
The statement is not true for any choice of $v_i$, so you need to chose them appropriately.
$endgroup$
– LinAlg
Dec 14 '18 at 22:27












$begingroup$
@ LinAlg: The statement is true because it says for some $v_i$ and $d_j$. Also, it does not say what $p$ and $l$ are. Maybe I am wrong who am using wrong number for $l$.
$endgroup$
– Sepide
Dec 15 '18 at 0:22




$begingroup$
@ LinAlg: The statement is true because it says for some $v_i$ and $d_j$. Also, it does not say what $p$ and $l$ are. Maybe I am wrong who am using wrong number for $l$.
$endgroup$
– Sepide
Dec 15 '18 at 0:22












$begingroup$
a proof by contradiction is easier here: what if $z$ is not in $C$?
$endgroup$
– LinAlg
Dec 15 '18 at 0:59




$begingroup$
a proof by contradiction is easier here: what if $z$ is not in $C$?
$endgroup$
– LinAlg
Dec 15 '18 at 0:59












$begingroup$
@LinAlg: How we can do that?
$endgroup$
– Sepide
Dec 15 '18 at 4:13




$begingroup$
@LinAlg: How we can do that?
$endgroup$
– Sepide
Dec 15 '18 at 4:13












$begingroup$
if $z$ does not satisfy $Azgeq 0$ or $zgeq 0$, moving in the direction of $z$ will violate a constraint of $P$
$endgroup$
– LinAlg
Dec 15 '18 at 16:19




$begingroup$
if $z$ does not satisfy $Azgeq 0$ or $zgeq 0$, moving in the direction of $z$ will violate a constraint of $P$
$endgroup$
– LinAlg
Dec 15 '18 at 16:19










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















1












$begingroup$

We know that $P$ can be written as
$$
P=operatorname{conv}(v_1,cdots,v_p)+ operatorname{cone}(d_1,cdots,d_l)=V+D.
$$

The set $D$ is a cone, hence, for every $vin V$ and $din D$ we have that $v+tdin P$, $forall tge 0$. That is
$$
A(v+td)ge b,quad v+tdge 0,quadforall tge 0.
$$

Now divide by $t$ and let $tto +infty$
begin{align}
frac{1}{t}Av+Adgefrac{1}{t}bquad&Rightarrowquad Adge 0,\
frac{1}{t}v+dge 0 quad&Rightarrowquad dge 0.
end{align}

Therefore, every $din D$ belongs to $C$.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Could you help me show the reverse? I mean $ C subseteq text{cone}(d_1,cdots,d_l) $. It cannot be immediately observed from your proof to show the reverse, I am having trouble of producing $x geq 0$?
    $endgroup$
    – Sepide
    Dec 15 '18 at 18:32












  • $begingroup$
    I have proved it using different method, but you might be show it differently. I posted it as an another question: math.stackexchange.com/questions/3041877/…
    $endgroup$
    – Sepide
    Dec 15 '18 at 19:54











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1 Answer
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1 Answer
1






active

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active

oldest

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active

oldest

votes









1












$begingroup$

We know that $P$ can be written as
$$
P=operatorname{conv}(v_1,cdots,v_p)+ operatorname{cone}(d_1,cdots,d_l)=V+D.
$$

The set $D$ is a cone, hence, for every $vin V$ and $din D$ we have that $v+tdin P$, $forall tge 0$. That is
$$
A(v+td)ge b,quad v+tdge 0,quadforall tge 0.
$$

Now divide by $t$ and let $tto +infty$
begin{align}
frac{1}{t}Av+Adgefrac{1}{t}bquad&Rightarrowquad Adge 0,\
frac{1}{t}v+dge 0 quad&Rightarrowquad dge 0.
end{align}

Therefore, every $din D$ belongs to $C$.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Could you help me show the reverse? I mean $ C subseteq text{cone}(d_1,cdots,d_l) $. It cannot be immediately observed from your proof to show the reverse, I am having trouble of producing $x geq 0$?
    $endgroup$
    – Sepide
    Dec 15 '18 at 18:32












  • $begingroup$
    I have proved it using different method, but you might be show it differently. I posted it as an another question: math.stackexchange.com/questions/3041877/…
    $endgroup$
    – Sepide
    Dec 15 '18 at 19:54
















1












$begingroup$

We know that $P$ can be written as
$$
P=operatorname{conv}(v_1,cdots,v_p)+ operatorname{cone}(d_1,cdots,d_l)=V+D.
$$

The set $D$ is a cone, hence, for every $vin V$ and $din D$ we have that $v+tdin P$, $forall tge 0$. That is
$$
A(v+td)ge b,quad v+tdge 0,quadforall tge 0.
$$

Now divide by $t$ and let $tto +infty$
begin{align}
frac{1}{t}Av+Adgefrac{1}{t}bquad&Rightarrowquad Adge 0,\
frac{1}{t}v+dge 0 quad&Rightarrowquad dge 0.
end{align}

Therefore, every $din D$ belongs to $C$.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Could you help me show the reverse? I mean $ C subseteq text{cone}(d_1,cdots,d_l) $. It cannot be immediately observed from your proof to show the reverse, I am having trouble of producing $x geq 0$?
    $endgroup$
    – Sepide
    Dec 15 '18 at 18:32












  • $begingroup$
    I have proved it using different method, but you might be show it differently. I posted it as an another question: math.stackexchange.com/questions/3041877/…
    $endgroup$
    – Sepide
    Dec 15 '18 at 19:54














1












1








1





$begingroup$

We know that $P$ can be written as
$$
P=operatorname{conv}(v_1,cdots,v_p)+ operatorname{cone}(d_1,cdots,d_l)=V+D.
$$

The set $D$ is a cone, hence, for every $vin V$ and $din D$ we have that $v+tdin P$, $forall tge 0$. That is
$$
A(v+td)ge b,quad v+tdge 0,quadforall tge 0.
$$

Now divide by $t$ and let $tto +infty$
begin{align}
frac{1}{t}Av+Adgefrac{1}{t}bquad&Rightarrowquad Adge 0,\
frac{1}{t}v+dge 0 quad&Rightarrowquad dge 0.
end{align}

Therefore, every $din D$ belongs to $C$.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$



We know that $P$ can be written as
$$
P=operatorname{conv}(v_1,cdots,v_p)+ operatorname{cone}(d_1,cdots,d_l)=V+D.
$$

The set $D$ is a cone, hence, for every $vin V$ and $din D$ we have that $v+tdin P$, $forall tge 0$. That is
$$
A(v+td)ge b,quad v+tdge 0,quadforall tge 0.
$$

Now divide by $t$ and let $tto +infty$
begin{align}
frac{1}{t}Av+Adgefrac{1}{t}bquad&Rightarrowquad Adge 0,\
frac{1}{t}v+dge 0 quad&Rightarrowquad dge 0.
end{align}

Therefore, every $din D$ belongs to $C$.







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Dec 15 '18 at 12:01









A.Γ.A.Γ.

22.7k32656




22.7k32656












  • $begingroup$
    Could you help me show the reverse? I mean $ C subseteq text{cone}(d_1,cdots,d_l) $. It cannot be immediately observed from your proof to show the reverse, I am having trouble of producing $x geq 0$?
    $endgroup$
    – Sepide
    Dec 15 '18 at 18:32












  • $begingroup$
    I have proved it using different method, but you might be show it differently. I posted it as an another question: math.stackexchange.com/questions/3041877/…
    $endgroup$
    – Sepide
    Dec 15 '18 at 19:54


















  • $begingroup$
    Could you help me show the reverse? I mean $ C subseteq text{cone}(d_1,cdots,d_l) $. It cannot be immediately observed from your proof to show the reverse, I am having trouble of producing $x geq 0$?
    $endgroup$
    – Sepide
    Dec 15 '18 at 18:32












  • $begingroup$
    I have proved it using different method, but you might be show it differently. I posted it as an another question: math.stackexchange.com/questions/3041877/…
    $endgroup$
    – Sepide
    Dec 15 '18 at 19:54
















$begingroup$
Could you help me show the reverse? I mean $ C subseteq text{cone}(d_1,cdots,d_l) $. It cannot be immediately observed from your proof to show the reverse, I am having trouble of producing $x geq 0$?
$endgroup$
– Sepide
Dec 15 '18 at 18:32






$begingroup$
Could you help me show the reverse? I mean $ C subseteq text{cone}(d_1,cdots,d_l) $. It cannot be immediately observed from your proof to show the reverse, I am having trouble of producing $x geq 0$?
$endgroup$
– Sepide
Dec 15 '18 at 18:32














$begingroup$
I have proved it using different method, but you might be show it differently. I posted it as an another question: math.stackexchange.com/questions/3041877/…
$endgroup$
– Sepide
Dec 15 '18 at 19:54




$begingroup$
I have proved it using different method, but you might be show it differently. I posted it as an another question: math.stackexchange.com/questions/3041877/…
$endgroup$
– Sepide
Dec 15 '18 at 19:54


















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