Prove that if $g^2=e$ for all $g$ in $G$ then $G$ is Abelian.
$begingroup$
Prove that if $g^2=e$ for all $g$ in $G$ then $G$ is Abelian.
This question is from group theory in Abstract Algebra and no matter how many times my lecturer teaches it for some reason I can't seem to crack it.
(Please note that $e$ in the question is the group's identity.)
Here's my attempt though...
First I understand Abelian means that if $g_1$ and $g_2$ are elements of a group $G$ then they are Abelian if $g_1g_2=g_2g_1$...
So, I begin by trying to play around with the elements of the group based on their definition...
$$(g_2g_1)^r=e$$
$$(g_2g_1g_2g_2^{-1})^r=e$$
$$(g_2g_1g_2g_2^{-1}g_2g_1g_2g_2^{-1}...g_2g_1g_2g_2^{-1})=e$$
I assume that the $g_2^{-1}$'s and the $g_2$'s cancel out so that we end up with something like,
$$g_2(g_1g_2)^rg_2^{-1}=e$$
$$g_2^{-1}g_2(g_1g_2)^r=g_2^{-1}g_2$$
Then ultimately...
$$g_1g_2=e$$
I figure this is the answer. But I'm not totally sure. I always feel like I do too much in the pursuit of an answer when there's a simpler way.
Reference: Fraleigh p. 49 Question 4.38 in A First Course in Abstract Algebra.
abstract-algebra group-theory abelian-groups
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Prove that if $g^2=e$ for all $g$ in $G$ then $G$ is Abelian.
This question is from group theory in Abstract Algebra and no matter how many times my lecturer teaches it for some reason I can't seem to crack it.
(Please note that $e$ in the question is the group's identity.)
Here's my attempt though...
First I understand Abelian means that if $g_1$ and $g_2$ are elements of a group $G$ then they are Abelian if $g_1g_2=g_2g_1$...
So, I begin by trying to play around with the elements of the group based on their definition...
$$(g_2g_1)^r=e$$
$$(g_2g_1g_2g_2^{-1})^r=e$$
$$(g_2g_1g_2g_2^{-1}g_2g_1g_2g_2^{-1}...g_2g_1g_2g_2^{-1})=e$$
I assume that the $g_2^{-1}$'s and the $g_2$'s cancel out so that we end up with something like,
$$g_2(g_1g_2)^rg_2^{-1}=e$$
$$g_2^{-1}g_2(g_1g_2)^r=g_2^{-1}g_2$$
Then ultimately...
$$g_1g_2=e$$
I figure this is the answer. But I'm not totally sure. I always feel like I do too much in the pursuit of an answer when there's a simpler way.
Reference: Fraleigh p. 49 Question 4.38 in A First Course in Abstract Algebra.
abstract-algebra group-theory abelian-groups
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
What does r stand for?
$endgroup$
– john
Oct 5 '17 at 21:03
$begingroup$
I don't think we can assume that $ g_2 g_1 $ has finite order , with $(g_2g_1)^r=e $
$endgroup$
– john
Oct 5 '17 at 21:05
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Prove that if $g^2=e$ for all $g$ in $G$ then $G$ is Abelian.
This question is from group theory in Abstract Algebra and no matter how many times my lecturer teaches it for some reason I can't seem to crack it.
(Please note that $e$ in the question is the group's identity.)
Here's my attempt though...
First I understand Abelian means that if $g_1$ and $g_2$ are elements of a group $G$ then they are Abelian if $g_1g_2=g_2g_1$...
So, I begin by trying to play around with the elements of the group based on their definition...
$$(g_2g_1)^r=e$$
$$(g_2g_1g_2g_2^{-1})^r=e$$
$$(g_2g_1g_2g_2^{-1}g_2g_1g_2g_2^{-1}...g_2g_1g_2g_2^{-1})=e$$
I assume that the $g_2^{-1}$'s and the $g_2$'s cancel out so that we end up with something like,
$$g_2(g_1g_2)^rg_2^{-1}=e$$
$$g_2^{-1}g_2(g_1g_2)^r=g_2^{-1}g_2$$
Then ultimately...
$$g_1g_2=e$$
I figure this is the answer. But I'm not totally sure. I always feel like I do too much in the pursuit of an answer when there's a simpler way.
Reference: Fraleigh p. 49 Question 4.38 in A First Course in Abstract Algebra.
abstract-algebra group-theory abelian-groups
$endgroup$
Prove that if $g^2=e$ for all $g$ in $G$ then $G$ is Abelian.
This question is from group theory in Abstract Algebra and no matter how many times my lecturer teaches it for some reason I can't seem to crack it.
(Please note that $e$ in the question is the group's identity.)
Here's my attempt though...
First I understand Abelian means that if $g_1$ and $g_2$ are elements of a group $G$ then they are Abelian if $g_1g_2=g_2g_1$...
So, I begin by trying to play around with the elements of the group based on their definition...
$$(g_2g_1)^r=e$$
$$(g_2g_1g_2g_2^{-1})^r=e$$
$$(g_2g_1g_2g_2^{-1}g_2g_1g_2g_2^{-1}...g_2g_1g_2g_2^{-1})=e$$
I assume that the $g_2^{-1}$'s and the $g_2$'s cancel out so that we end up with something like,
$$g_2(g_1g_2)^rg_2^{-1}=e$$
$$g_2^{-1}g_2(g_1g_2)^r=g_2^{-1}g_2$$
Then ultimately...
$$g_1g_2=e$$
I figure this is the answer. But I'm not totally sure. I always feel like I do too much in the pursuit of an answer when there's a simpler way.
Reference: Fraleigh p. 49 Question 4.38 in A First Course in Abstract Algebra.
abstract-algebra group-theory abelian-groups
abstract-algebra group-theory abelian-groups
edited Dec 26 '17 at 10:25
user26857
39.3k124183
39.3k124183
asked Nov 15 '12 at 19:20
SiyandaSiyanda
1,07552136
1,07552136
$begingroup$
What does r stand for?
$endgroup$
– john
Oct 5 '17 at 21:03
$begingroup$
I don't think we can assume that $ g_2 g_1 $ has finite order , with $(g_2g_1)^r=e $
$endgroup$
– john
Oct 5 '17 at 21:05
add a comment |
$begingroup$
What does r stand for?
$endgroup$
– john
Oct 5 '17 at 21:03
$begingroup$
I don't think we can assume that $ g_2 g_1 $ has finite order , with $(g_2g_1)^r=e $
$endgroup$
– john
Oct 5 '17 at 21:05
$begingroup$
What does r stand for?
$endgroup$
– john
Oct 5 '17 at 21:03
$begingroup$
What does r stand for?
$endgroup$
– john
Oct 5 '17 at 21:03
$begingroup$
I don't think we can assume that $ g_2 g_1 $ has finite order , with $(g_2g_1)^r=e $
$endgroup$
– john
Oct 5 '17 at 21:05
$begingroup$
I don't think we can assume that $ g_2 g_1 $ has finite order , with $(g_2g_1)^r=e $
$endgroup$
– john
Oct 5 '17 at 21:05
add a comment |
13 Answers
13
active
oldest
votes
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Hint: Take $(ab)^2=1$ and multiply both sides on the right with $b$, then again on the right with $a$.
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add a comment |
$begingroup$
For any $g, h in G$, consider the element $gcdot hcdot hcdot g.~$
Since $g^2 = gcdot g= e$ for all $g in G$, we find that
$$gcdot hcdot hcdot g = gcdot(hcdot h)cdot g = gcdot ecdot g = gcdot g = e.$$
But, $gcdot h$ has unique inverse element $gcdot h$, while we have just proved that $(gcdot h)cdot (hcdot g) = e$, and so it must be that $gcdot h = hcdot g$ for all $g, h in G$, that is, $G$ is an abelian group.
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This is the elegant solution to this problem. I thought I'd post this exact solution on here if everyone did it the long way, but I'm half a year late. (+1)
$endgroup$
– user70962
May 20 '13 at 21:52
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Whenever you have a condition $g^2=e$ in a group, it's equivalent to $g=g^{-1}$ (multiply both sides by $g^{-1}$).
In this case, it applies to every element of the group, so you can add or remove inverses from any expression freely. So the proof is simply $$ab=(ab)^{-1}=b^{-1}a^{-1}=ba.$$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
What happens after the 2nd equality?
$endgroup$
– Dole
Sep 13 '17 at 2:09
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@Dole, 1st equality: addition of an inverse, 2nd equality: formula for inverse of a product, 3rd equality: removal of inverses. Remember in this group, we can add or remove $^{-1}$ from anything, because every element is its own inverse. Does that answer your question?
$endgroup$
– asmeurer
Sep 14 '17 at 23:27
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Hint: Note that $g_1g_2=g_2g_1$ if and only if $g_1g_2g_1^{-1}g_2^{-1}=e$ (Why?), and that $g^{-1}=g$ for all $gin G$ (Why?).
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add a comment |
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Proof: let for all $a,b$ in group $G$.
claim that To show $ab=ba$ a commutative.
By using a fact that $acdot a=bcdot b=(ab)cdot(ab)=e$.
since $(ab)^2=a^2cdot b^2=ecdot e=e$. We have $abcdot ab=e$. Multiplying on the right by $ba$, we obtain
begin{align}
abcdot abcdot ba &= ecdot ba\
abcdot a(bcdot b)cdot a &= ba\
abcdot acdot b^2cdot a &=\
abcdot acdot ecdot a &=\
abcdot acdot a &=\
abcdot e &=\
ab &= ba,
end{align}
for all $a,b$ in $G$. since $G$ is abelian group. This is proved last.
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I think you meant "therefore" instead of "since" in the last sentence. That $G$ is abelian was to be proved, not given (and BTW, nowhere you've used that it is specifically a group; the argumentation works just as well for monoids that are not groups).
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– celtschk
Dec 14 '18 at 8:51
add a comment |
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Alternatively, the map $$begin{align*}f:G&rightarrow G\x&mapsto x^{-1}(=x)end{align*}$$ is an automorphism of $G$ and so $G$ is Abelian!
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This is actually quite neat! There is no circular logic either, which I was initially worried about. (Also, I've edited the post to make the map clearer. Feel free to undo my edit if you wish.)
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– user1729
Dec 14 '18 at 15:35
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@user1729: .This time it looks good. Thanks for the edit!
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– Chinnapparaj R
Dec 15 '18 at 1:39
1
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best answer by far.
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– Ivan Di Liberti
Jan 13 at 23:53
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Another proof is by contradiction.
Let G be a group with operation *. You want to show that:
$(forall g in G:g^2=e)implies(Gtext{ Abelian}Leftrightarrow forall x,y in G: x*y = y*x)$.
(where $g^2$ is shorthand for $g*g$)
Suppose by contradiction that the group is not Abelian, i.e. that ($exists x,yin G: x*yneq y*x)$. Now multiply on the left by $x$ and on the right by $y$.
You get $x^2*y^2 ne (xy)^2$. But then it means that $e*e neq e$ which is a contradiction.
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Hi, I know this is old, but how can you multiply the left side by $x$ and right side by $y$ and not do the same for both sides? In other words, if I multiply one side by $x$, don't I have to do the same for the other side? I am not sure if I am reading that correctly.
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– Ryan
Feb 10 at 1:22
1
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$color{red}{x} *x*y*color{red}{y} neq color{red}{x} * y * x * color{red}{y} $, so to be precise I should have said multiple both sides on the left by $x$ and on the right by $y$. Then applying associativity ($*$ is associative by definition of group) you get $(color{red}{x} *x)*(y*color{red}{y}) neq (color{red}{x} * y) * (x * color{red}{y})$ and there you go. I hope it helps.
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– Marco Bellocchi
Feb 10 at 9:49
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Thank you for responding to an old post and for the clarification!
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– Ryan
Feb 10 at 18:43
add a comment |
$begingroup$
By construction:
$quadbegin{align*}
(ab)(ab) &= e = a(bb)a \
require{cancel}cancel{(ab)}(ab) &= cancel{(ab)}(ba) qquadtext{by associativity followed by cancellation}\
ab &= ba
end{align*}$
Hence, the group is Abelian.
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This is very direct and nice. Is this proof plausible?
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– Ryan
Feb 10 at 1:26
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What makes you think this proof may not be plausible?
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– hchar
Feb 11 at 4:24
add a comment |
$begingroup$
$(ab)^{2}=e
$($because$ $a,b in G, abin G$, due to the closure property of group axiom )$implies
(ab)(ab)=etag 1$
Pre multiply $a$ on both sides also post multiply $b$ on both sides. The equation (1) becomes,
$aababb=abtag2$($because$ by associativity and self invertible property.
$ba=abtag3$
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add a comment |
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Then for all $a,b in G$: $$ab = (bb)ab(aa) = b(baba)a = ba.$$
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add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $a,bin G$:
begin{align}
abcdot (ab)^{-1} &= abcdot b^{-1}a^{-1}\
&= abcdot baquadquad text{(since each element in $G$ is self inverse)}\
&= a(b^{2})a\
&= acdot ecdot a\
&= a^{2}\
&=e
end{align}
This shows $(ab)^{-1}=ba$. Now $(ab)^2=e$, so $abcdot ab=abcdot ba=e$, which by the cancellation law gives $ab=ba$ for all $a,bin G$, since $a$ and $b$ were arbitrary. Hence $G$ is abelian as required.
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add a comment |
$begingroup$
$$xyx^{-1}y^{-1}=(xyx^{-1})^2x^2(x^{-1}y^{-1})^2$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
It is easier to solve. Let be c=a○b, then c○c=e, (a○b)○(a○b)=e.
Then multiply the left and right parts of the right by b and a: (a○b)○(a○b)○b=e○b → (a○b)○(a○b○b)=e○b → (a○b)○(a○e)=e○b → (a○b)○a=b → (a○b)○a○a=b○a → (a○b)○e=b○a. the end.
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1
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Your answer is nigh unintelligible. A good place to start might be with the MathJax tutorial. You also declare that your approach is "easier"---it might be worthwhile to explain why it is easier than the other answers (or, at least, to point out the flaws of the other answers).
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– Xander Henderson
Jan 14 at 0:07
add a comment |
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13 Answers
13
active
oldest
votes
13 Answers
13
active
oldest
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active
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$begingroup$
Hint: Take $(ab)^2=1$ and multiply both sides on the right with $b$, then again on the right with $a$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Hint: Take $(ab)^2=1$ and multiply both sides on the right with $b$, then again on the right with $a$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Hint: Take $(ab)^2=1$ and multiply both sides on the right with $b$, then again on the right with $a$.
$endgroup$
Hint: Take $(ab)^2=1$ and multiply both sides on the right with $b$, then again on the right with $a$.
answered Nov 15 '12 at 19:25
rschwiebrschwieb
107k12102250
107k12102250
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add a comment |
$begingroup$
For any $g, h in G$, consider the element $gcdot hcdot hcdot g.~$
Since $g^2 = gcdot g= e$ for all $g in G$, we find that
$$gcdot hcdot hcdot g = gcdot(hcdot h)cdot g = gcdot ecdot g = gcdot g = e.$$
But, $gcdot h$ has unique inverse element $gcdot h$, while we have just proved that $(gcdot h)cdot (hcdot g) = e$, and so it must be that $gcdot h = hcdot g$ for all $g, h in G$, that is, $G$ is an abelian group.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
This is the elegant solution to this problem. I thought I'd post this exact solution on here if everyone did it the long way, but I'm half a year late. (+1)
$endgroup$
– user70962
May 20 '13 at 21:52
add a comment |
$begingroup$
For any $g, h in G$, consider the element $gcdot hcdot hcdot g.~$
Since $g^2 = gcdot g= e$ for all $g in G$, we find that
$$gcdot hcdot hcdot g = gcdot(hcdot h)cdot g = gcdot ecdot g = gcdot g = e.$$
But, $gcdot h$ has unique inverse element $gcdot h$, while we have just proved that $(gcdot h)cdot (hcdot g) = e$, and so it must be that $gcdot h = hcdot g$ for all $g, h in G$, that is, $G$ is an abelian group.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
This is the elegant solution to this problem. I thought I'd post this exact solution on here if everyone did it the long way, but I'm half a year late. (+1)
$endgroup$
– user70962
May 20 '13 at 21:52
add a comment |
$begingroup$
For any $g, h in G$, consider the element $gcdot hcdot hcdot g.~$
Since $g^2 = gcdot g= e$ for all $g in G$, we find that
$$gcdot hcdot hcdot g = gcdot(hcdot h)cdot g = gcdot ecdot g = gcdot g = e.$$
But, $gcdot h$ has unique inverse element $gcdot h$, while we have just proved that $(gcdot h)cdot (hcdot g) = e$, and so it must be that $gcdot h = hcdot g$ for all $g, h in G$, that is, $G$ is an abelian group.
$endgroup$
For any $g, h in G$, consider the element $gcdot hcdot hcdot g.~$
Since $g^2 = gcdot g= e$ for all $g in G$, we find that
$$gcdot hcdot hcdot g = gcdot(hcdot h)cdot g = gcdot ecdot g = gcdot g = e.$$
But, $gcdot h$ has unique inverse element $gcdot h$, while we have just proved that $(gcdot h)cdot (hcdot g) = e$, and so it must be that $gcdot h = hcdot g$ for all $g, h in G$, that is, $G$ is an abelian group.
answered Nov 15 '12 at 20:54
Dilip SarwateDilip Sarwate
19.2k13076
19.2k13076
$begingroup$
This is the elegant solution to this problem. I thought I'd post this exact solution on here if everyone did it the long way, but I'm half a year late. (+1)
$endgroup$
– user70962
May 20 '13 at 21:52
add a comment |
$begingroup$
This is the elegant solution to this problem. I thought I'd post this exact solution on here if everyone did it the long way, but I'm half a year late. (+1)
$endgroup$
– user70962
May 20 '13 at 21:52
$begingroup$
This is the elegant solution to this problem. I thought I'd post this exact solution on here if everyone did it the long way, but I'm half a year late. (+1)
$endgroup$
– user70962
May 20 '13 at 21:52
$begingroup$
This is the elegant solution to this problem. I thought I'd post this exact solution on here if everyone did it the long way, but I'm half a year late. (+1)
$endgroup$
– user70962
May 20 '13 at 21:52
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Whenever you have a condition $g^2=e$ in a group, it's equivalent to $g=g^{-1}$ (multiply both sides by $g^{-1}$).
In this case, it applies to every element of the group, so you can add or remove inverses from any expression freely. So the proof is simply $$ab=(ab)^{-1}=b^{-1}a^{-1}=ba.$$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
What happens after the 2nd equality?
$endgroup$
– Dole
Sep 13 '17 at 2:09
$begingroup$
@Dole, 1st equality: addition of an inverse, 2nd equality: formula for inverse of a product, 3rd equality: removal of inverses. Remember in this group, we can add or remove $^{-1}$ from anything, because every element is its own inverse. Does that answer your question?
$endgroup$
– asmeurer
Sep 14 '17 at 23:27
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Whenever you have a condition $g^2=e$ in a group, it's equivalent to $g=g^{-1}$ (multiply both sides by $g^{-1}$).
In this case, it applies to every element of the group, so you can add or remove inverses from any expression freely. So the proof is simply $$ab=(ab)^{-1}=b^{-1}a^{-1}=ba.$$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
What happens after the 2nd equality?
$endgroup$
– Dole
Sep 13 '17 at 2:09
$begingroup$
@Dole, 1st equality: addition of an inverse, 2nd equality: formula for inverse of a product, 3rd equality: removal of inverses. Remember in this group, we can add or remove $^{-1}$ from anything, because every element is its own inverse. Does that answer your question?
$endgroup$
– asmeurer
Sep 14 '17 at 23:27
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Whenever you have a condition $g^2=e$ in a group, it's equivalent to $g=g^{-1}$ (multiply both sides by $g^{-1}$).
In this case, it applies to every element of the group, so you can add or remove inverses from any expression freely. So the proof is simply $$ab=(ab)^{-1}=b^{-1}a^{-1}=ba.$$
$endgroup$
Whenever you have a condition $g^2=e$ in a group, it's equivalent to $g=g^{-1}$ (multiply both sides by $g^{-1}$).
In this case, it applies to every element of the group, so you can add or remove inverses from any expression freely. So the proof is simply $$ab=(ab)^{-1}=b^{-1}a^{-1}=ba.$$
answered Jul 7 '15 at 19:03
asmeurerasmeurer
5,87742443
5,87742443
$begingroup$
What happens after the 2nd equality?
$endgroup$
– Dole
Sep 13 '17 at 2:09
$begingroup$
@Dole, 1st equality: addition of an inverse, 2nd equality: formula for inverse of a product, 3rd equality: removal of inverses. Remember in this group, we can add or remove $^{-1}$ from anything, because every element is its own inverse. Does that answer your question?
$endgroup$
– asmeurer
Sep 14 '17 at 23:27
add a comment |
$begingroup$
What happens after the 2nd equality?
$endgroup$
– Dole
Sep 13 '17 at 2:09
$begingroup$
@Dole, 1st equality: addition of an inverse, 2nd equality: formula for inverse of a product, 3rd equality: removal of inverses. Remember in this group, we can add or remove $^{-1}$ from anything, because every element is its own inverse. Does that answer your question?
$endgroup$
– asmeurer
Sep 14 '17 at 23:27
$begingroup$
What happens after the 2nd equality?
$endgroup$
– Dole
Sep 13 '17 at 2:09
$begingroup$
What happens after the 2nd equality?
$endgroup$
– Dole
Sep 13 '17 at 2:09
$begingroup$
@Dole, 1st equality: addition of an inverse, 2nd equality: formula for inverse of a product, 3rd equality: removal of inverses. Remember in this group, we can add or remove $^{-1}$ from anything, because every element is its own inverse. Does that answer your question?
$endgroup$
– asmeurer
Sep 14 '17 at 23:27
$begingroup$
@Dole, 1st equality: addition of an inverse, 2nd equality: formula for inverse of a product, 3rd equality: removal of inverses. Remember in this group, we can add or remove $^{-1}$ from anything, because every element is its own inverse. Does that answer your question?
$endgroup$
– asmeurer
Sep 14 '17 at 23:27
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Hint: Note that $g_1g_2=g_2g_1$ if and only if $g_1g_2g_1^{-1}g_2^{-1}=e$ (Why?), and that $g^{-1}=g$ for all $gin G$ (Why?).
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Hint: Note that $g_1g_2=g_2g_1$ if and only if $g_1g_2g_1^{-1}g_2^{-1}=e$ (Why?), and that $g^{-1}=g$ for all $gin G$ (Why?).
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Hint: Note that $g_1g_2=g_2g_1$ if and only if $g_1g_2g_1^{-1}g_2^{-1}=e$ (Why?), and that $g^{-1}=g$ for all $gin G$ (Why?).
$endgroup$
Hint: Note that $g_1g_2=g_2g_1$ if and only if $g_1g_2g_1^{-1}g_2^{-1}=e$ (Why?), and that $g^{-1}=g$ for all $gin G$ (Why?).
edited Dec 6 '12 at 16:12
answered Nov 15 '12 at 19:24
Cameron BuieCameron Buie
85.2k772156
85.2k772156
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Proof: let for all $a,b$ in group $G$.
claim that To show $ab=ba$ a commutative.
By using a fact that $acdot a=bcdot b=(ab)cdot(ab)=e$.
since $(ab)^2=a^2cdot b^2=ecdot e=e$. We have $abcdot ab=e$. Multiplying on the right by $ba$, we obtain
begin{align}
abcdot abcdot ba &= ecdot ba\
abcdot a(bcdot b)cdot a &= ba\
abcdot acdot b^2cdot a &=\
abcdot acdot ecdot a &=\
abcdot acdot a &=\
abcdot e &=\
ab &= ba,
end{align}
for all $a,b$ in $G$. since $G$ is abelian group. This is proved last.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
I think you meant "therefore" instead of "since" in the last sentence. That $G$ is abelian was to be proved, not given (and BTW, nowhere you've used that it is specifically a group; the argumentation works just as well for monoids that are not groups).
$endgroup$
– celtschk
Dec 14 '18 at 8:51
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Proof: let for all $a,b$ in group $G$.
claim that To show $ab=ba$ a commutative.
By using a fact that $acdot a=bcdot b=(ab)cdot(ab)=e$.
since $(ab)^2=a^2cdot b^2=ecdot e=e$. We have $abcdot ab=e$. Multiplying on the right by $ba$, we obtain
begin{align}
abcdot abcdot ba &= ecdot ba\
abcdot a(bcdot b)cdot a &= ba\
abcdot acdot b^2cdot a &=\
abcdot acdot ecdot a &=\
abcdot acdot a &=\
abcdot e &=\
ab &= ba,
end{align}
for all $a,b$ in $G$. since $G$ is abelian group. This is proved last.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
I think you meant "therefore" instead of "since" in the last sentence. That $G$ is abelian was to be proved, not given (and BTW, nowhere you've used that it is specifically a group; the argumentation works just as well for monoids that are not groups).
$endgroup$
– celtschk
Dec 14 '18 at 8:51
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Proof: let for all $a,b$ in group $G$.
claim that To show $ab=ba$ a commutative.
By using a fact that $acdot a=bcdot b=(ab)cdot(ab)=e$.
since $(ab)^2=a^2cdot b^2=ecdot e=e$. We have $abcdot ab=e$. Multiplying on the right by $ba$, we obtain
begin{align}
abcdot abcdot ba &= ecdot ba\
abcdot a(bcdot b)cdot a &= ba\
abcdot acdot b^2cdot a &=\
abcdot acdot ecdot a &=\
abcdot acdot a &=\
abcdot e &=\
ab &= ba,
end{align}
for all $a,b$ in $G$. since $G$ is abelian group. This is proved last.
$endgroup$
Proof: let for all $a,b$ in group $G$.
claim that To show $ab=ba$ a commutative.
By using a fact that $acdot a=bcdot b=(ab)cdot(ab)=e$.
since $(ab)^2=a^2cdot b^2=ecdot e=e$. We have $abcdot ab=e$. Multiplying on the right by $ba$, we obtain
begin{align}
abcdot abcdot ba &= ecdot ba\
abcdot a(bcdot b)cdot a &= ba\
abcdot acdot b^2cdot a &=\
abcdot acdot ecdot a &=\
abcdot acdot a &=\
abcdot e &=\
ab &= ba,
end{align}
for all $a,b$ in $G$. since $G$ is abelian group. This is proved last.
edited Dec 26 '17 at 10:29
user26857
39.3k124183
39.3k124183
answered Dec 9 '15 at 12:21
Gudesa KuseGudesa Kuse
6111
6111
$begingroup$
I think you meant "therefore" instead of "since" in the last sentence. That $G$ is abelian was to be proved, not given (and BTW, nowhere you've used that it is specifically a group; the argumentation works just as well for monoids that are not groups).
$endgroup$
– celtschk
Dec 14 '18 at 8:51
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I think you meant "therefore" instead of "since" in the last sentence. That $G$ is abelian was to be proved, not given (and BTW, nowhere you've used that it is specifically a group; the argumentation works just as well for monoids that are not groups).
$endgroup$
– celtschk
Dec 14 '18 at 8:51
$begingroup$
I think you meant "therefore" instead of "since" in the last sentence. That $G$ is abelian was to be proved, not given (and BTW, nowhere you've used that it is specifically a group; the argumentation works just as well for monoids that are not groups).
$endgroup$
– celtschk
Dec 14 '18 at 8:51
$begingroup$
I think you meant "therefore" instead of "since" in the last sentence. That $G$ is abelian was to be proved, not given (and BTW, nowhere you've used that it is specifically a group; the argumentation works just as well for monoids that are not groups).
$endgroup$
– celtschk
Dec 14 '18 at 8:51
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Alternatively, the map $$begin{align*}f:G&rightarrow G\x&mapsto x^{-1}(=x)end{align*}$$ is an automorphism of $G$ and so $G$ is Abelian!
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
This is actually quite neat! There is no circular logic either, which I was initially worried about. (Also, I've edited the post to make the map clearer. Feel free to undo my edit if you wish.)
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– user1729
Dec 14 '18 at 15:35
$begingroup$
@user1729: .This time it looks good. Thanks for the edit!
$endgroup$
– Chinnapparaj R
Dec 15 '18 at 1:39
1
$begingroup$
best answer by far.
$endgroup$
– Ivan Di Liberti
Jan 13 at 23:53
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Alternatively, the map $$begin{align*}f:G&rightarrow G\x&mapsto x^{-1}(=x)end{align*}$$ is an automorphism of $G$ and so $G$ is Abelian!
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
This is actually quite neat! There is no circular logic either, which I was initially worried about. (Also, I've edited the post to make the map clearer. Feel free to undo my edit if you wish.)
$endgroup$
– user1729
Dec 14 '18 at 15:35
$begingroup$
@user1729: .This time it looks good. Thanks for the edit!
$endgroup$
– Chinnapparaj R
Dec 15 '18 at 1:39
1
$begingroup$
best answer by far.
$endgroup$
– Ivan Di Liberti
Jan 13 at 23:53
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Alternatively, the map $$begin{align*}f:G&rightarrow G\x&mapsto x^{-1}(=x)end{align*}$$ is an automorphism of $G$ and so $G$ is Abelian!
$endgroup$
Alternatively, the map $$begin{align*}f:G&rightarrow G\x&mapsto x^{-1}(=x)end{align*}$$ is an automorphism of $G$ and so $G$ is Abelian!
edited Dec 14 '18 at 15:36
user1729
17.1k64193
17.1k64193
answered Dec 14 '18 at 8:35
Chinnapparaj RChinnapparaj R
5,5072928
5,5072928
$begingroup$
This is actually quite neat! There is no circular logic either, which I was initially worried about. (Also, I've edited the post to make the map clearer. Feel free to undo my edit if you wish.)
$endgroup$
– user1729
Dec 14 '18 at 15:35
$begingroup$
@user1729: .This time it looks good. Thanks for the edit!
$endgroup$
– Chinnapparaj R
Dec 15 '18 at 1:39
1
$begingroup$
best answer by far.
$endgroup$
– Ivan Di Liberti
Jan 13 at 23:53
add a comment |
$begingroup$
This is actually quite neat! There is no circular logic either, which I was initially worried about. (Also, I've edited the post to make the map clearer. Feel free to undo my edit if you wish.)
$endgroup$
– user1729
Dec 14 '18 at 15:35
$begingroup$
@user1729: .This time it looks good. Thanks for the edit!
$endgroup$
– Chinnapparaj R
Dec 15 '18 at 1:39
1
$begingroup$
best answer by far.
$endgroup$
– Ivan Di Liberti
Jan 13 at 23:53
$begingroup$
This is actually quite neat! There is no circular logic either, which I was initially worried about. (Also, I've edited the post to make the map clearer. Feel free to undo my edit if you wish.)
$endgroup$
– user1729
Dec 14 '18 at 15:35
$begingroup$
This is actually quite neat! There is no circular logic either, which I was initially worried about. (Also, I've edited the post to make the map clearer. Feel free to undo my edit if you wish.)
$endgroup$
– user1729
Dec 14 '18 at 15:35
$begingroup$
@user1729: .This time it looks good. Thanks for the edit!
$endgroup$
– Chinnapparaj R
Dec 15 '18 at 1:39
$begingroup$
@user1729: .This time it looks good. Thanks for the edit!
$endgroup$
– Chinnapparaj R
Dec 15 '18 at 1:39
1
1
$begingroup$
best answer by far.
$endgroup$
– Ivan Di Liberti
Jan 13 at 23:53
$begingroup$
best answer by far.
$endgroup$
– Ivan Di Liberti
Jan 13 at 23:53
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Another proof is by contradiction.
Let G be a group with operation *. You want to show that:
$(forall g in G:g^2=e)implies(Gtext{ Abelian}Leftrightarrow forall x,y in G: x*y = y*x)$.
(where $g^2$ is shorthand for $g*g$)
Suppose by contradiction that the group is not Abelian, i.e. that ($exists x,yin G: x*yneq y*x)$. Now multiply on the left by $x$ and on the right by $y$.
You get $x^2*y^2 ne (xy)^2$. But then it means that $e*e neq e$ which is a contradiction.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Hi, I know this is old, but how can you multiply the left side by $x$ and right side by $y$ and not do the same for both sides? In other words, if I multiply one side by $x$, don't I have to do the same for the other side? I am not sure if I am reading that correctly.
$endgroup$
– Ryan
Feb 10 at 1:22
1
$begingroup$
$color{red}{x} *x*y*color{red}{y} neq color{red}{x} * y * x * color{red}{y} $, so to be precise I should have said multiple both sides on the left by $x$ and on the right by $y$. Then applying associativity ($*$ is associative by definition of group) you get $(color{red}{x} *x)*(y*color{red}{y}) neq (color{red}{x} * y) * (x * color{red}{y})$ and there you go. I hope it helps.
$endgroup$
– Marco Bellocchi
Feb 10 at 9:49
$begingroup$
Thank you for responding to an old post and for the clarification!
$endgroup$
– Ryan
Feb 10 at 18:43
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Another proof is by contradiction.
Let G be a group with operation *. You want to show that:
$(forall g in G:g^2=e)implies(Gtext{ Abelian}Leftrightarrow forall x,y in G: x*y = y*x)$.
(where $g^2$ is shorthand for $g*g$)
Suppose by contradiction that the group is not Abelian, i.e. that ($exists x,yin G: x*yneq y*x)$. Now multiply on the left by $x$ and on the right by $y$.
You get $x^2*y^2 ne (xy)^2$. But then it means that $e*e neq e$ which is a contradiction.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Hi, I know this is old, but how can you multiply the left side by $x$ and right side by $y$ and not do the same for both sides? In other words, if I multiply one side by $x$, don't I have to do the same for the other side? I am not sure if I am reading that correctly.
$endgroup$
– Ryan
Feb 10 at 1:22
1
$begingroup$
$color{red}{x} *x*y*color{red}{y} neq color{red}{x} * y * x * color{red}{y} $, so to be precise I should have said multiple both sides on the left by $x$ and on the right by $y$. Then applying associativity ($*$ is associative by definition of group) you get $(color{red}{x} *x)*(y*color{red}{y}) neq (color{red}{x} * y) * (x * color{red}{y})$ and there you go. I hope it helps.
$endgroup$
– Marco Bellocchi
Feb 10 at 9:49
$begingroup$
Thank you for responding to an old post and for the clarification!
$endgroup$
– Ryan
Feb 10 at 18:43
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Another proof is by contradiction.
Let G be a group with operation *. You want to show that:
$(forall g in G:g^2=e)implies(Gtext{ Abelian}Leftrightarrow forall x,y in G: x*y = y*x)$.
(where $g^2$ is shorthand for $g*g$)
Suppose by contradiction that the group is not Abelian, i.e. that ($exists x,yin G: x*yneq y*x)$. Now multiply on the left by $x$ and on the right by $y$.
You get $x^2*y^2 ne (xy)^2$. But then it means that $e*e neq e$ which is a contradiction.
$endgroup$
Another proof is by contradiction.
Let G be a group with operation *. You want to show that:
$(forall g in G:g^2=e)implies(Gtext{ Abelian}Leftrightarrow forall x,y in G: x*y = y*x)$.
(where $g^2$ is shorthand for $g*g$)
Suppose by contradiction that the group is not Abelian, i.e. that ($exists x,yin G: x*yneq y*x)$. Now multiply on the left by $x$ and on the right by $y$.
You get $x^2*y^2 ne (xy)^2$. But then it means that $e*e neq e$ which is a contradiction.
edited Dec 26 '17 at 10:27
user26857
39.3k124183
39.3k124183
answered Nov 19 '17 at 13:02
Marco BellocchiMarco Bellocchi
5081412
5081412
$begingroup$
Hi, I know this is old, but how can you multiply the left side by $x$ and right side by $y$ and not do the same for both sides? In other words, if I multiply one side by $x$, don't I have to do the same for the other side? I am not sure if I am reading that correctly.
$endgroup$
– Ryan
Feb 10 at 1:22
1
$begingroup$
$color{red}{x} *x*y*color{red}{y} neq color{red}{x} * y * x * color{red}{y} $, so to be precise I should have said multiple both sides on the left by $x$ and on the right by $y$. Then applying associativity ($*$ is associative by definition of group) you get $(color{red}{x} *x)*(y*color{red}{y}) neq (color{red}{x} * y) * (x * color{red}{y})$ and there you go. I hope it helps.
$endgroup$
– Marco Bellocchi
Feb 10 at 9:49
$begingroup$
Thank you for responding to an old post and for the clarification!
$endgroup$
– Ryan
Feb 10 at 18:43
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Hi, I know this is old, but how can you multiply the left side by $x$ and right side by $y$ and not do the same for both sides? In other words, if I multiply one side by $x$, don't I have to do the same for the other side? I am not sure if I am reading that correctly.
$endgroup$
– Ryan
Feb 10 at 1:22
1
$begingroup$
$color{red}{x} *x*y*color{red}{y} neq color{red}{x} * y * x * color{red}{y} $, so to be precise I should have said multiple both sides on the left by $x$ and on the right by $y$. Then applying associativity ($*$ is associative by definition of group) you get $(color{red}{x} *x)*(y*color{red}{y}) neq (color{red}{x} * y) * (x * color{red}{y})$ and there you go. I hope it helps.
$endgroup$
– Marco Bellocchi
Feb 10 at 9:49
$begingroup$
Thank you for responding to an old post and for the clarification!
$endgroup$
– Ryan
Feb 10 at 18:43
$begingroup$
Hi, I know this is old, but how can you multiply the left side by $x$ and right side by $y$ and not do the same for both sides? In other words, if I multiply one side by $x$, don't I have to do the same for the other side? I am not sure if I am reading that correctly.
$endgroup$
– Ryan
Feb 10 at 1:22
$begingroup$
Hi, I know this is old, but how can you multiply the left side by $x$ and right side by $y$ and not do the same for both sides? In other words, if I multiply one side by $x$, don't I have to do the same for the other side? I am not sure if I am reading that correctly.
$endgroup$
– Ryan
Feb 10 at 1:22
1
1
$begingroup$
$color{red}{x} *x*y*color{red}{y} neq color{red}{x} * y * x * color{red}{y} $, so to be precise I should have said multiple both sides on the left by $x$ and on the right by $y$. Then applying associativity ($*$ is associative by definition of group) you get $(color{red}{x} *x)*(y*color{red}{y}) neq (color{red}{x} * y) * (x * color{red}{y})$ and there you go. I hope it helps.
$endgroup$
– Marco Bellocchi
Feb 10 at 9:49
$begingroup$
$color{red}{x} *x*y*color{red}{y} neq color{red}{x} * y * x * color{red}{y} $, so to be precise I should have said multiple both sides on the left by $x$ and on the right by $y$. Then applying associativity ($*$ is associative by definition of group) you get $(color{red}{x} *x)*(y*color{red}{y}) neq (color{red}{x} * y) * (x * color{red}{y})$ and there you go. I hope it helps.
$endgroup$
– Marco Bellocchi
Feb 10 at 9:49
$begingroup$
Thank you for responding to an old post and for the clarification!
$endgroup$
– Ryan
Feb 10 at 18:43
$begingroup$
Thank you for responding to an old post and for the clarification!
$endgroup$
– Ryan
Feb 10 at 18:43
add a comment |
$begingroup$
By construction:
$quadbegin{align*}
(ab)(ab) &= e = a(bb)a \
require{cancel}cancel{(ab)}(ab) &= cancel{(ab)}(ba) qquadtext{by associativity followed by cancellation}\
ab &= ba
end{align*}$
Hence, the group is Abelian.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
This is very direct and nice. Is this proof plausible?
$endgroup$
– Ryan
Feb 10 at 1:26
$begingroup$
What makes you think this proof may not be plausible?
$endgroup$
– hchar
Feb 11 at 4:24
add a comment |
$begingroup$
By construction:
$quadbegin{align*}
(ab)(ab) &= e = a(bb)a \
require{cancel}cancel{(ab)}(ab) &= cancel{(ab)}(ba) qquadtext{by associativity followed by cancellation}\
ab &= ba
end{align*}$
Hence, the group is Abelian.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
This is very direct and nice. Is this proof plausible?
$endgroup$
– Ryan
Feb 10 at 1:26
$begingroup$
What makes you think this proof may not be plausible?
$endgroup$
– hchar
Feb 11 at 4:24
add a comment |
$begingroup$
By construction:
$quadbegin{align*}
(ab)(ab) &= e = a(bb)a \
require{cancel}cancel{(ab)}(ab) &= cancel{(ab)}(ba) qquadtext{by associativity followed by cancellation}\
ab &= ba
end{align*}$
Hence, the group is Abelian.
$endgroup$
By construction:
$quadbegin{align*}
(ab)(ab) &= e = a(bb)a \
require{cancel}cancel{(ab)}(ab) &= cancel{(ab)}(ba) qquadtext{by associativity followed by cancellation}\
ab &= ba
end{align*}$
Hence, the group is Abelian.
edited Mar 11 '18 at 2:58
answered Mar 11 '18 at 2:50
hcharhchar
714
714
$begingroup$
This is very direct and nice. Is this proof plausible?
$endgroup$
– Ryan
Feb 10 at 1:26
$begingroup$
What makes you think this proof may not be plausible?
$endgroup$
– hchar
Feb 11 at 4:24
add a comment |
$begingroup$
This is very direct and nice. Is this proof plausible?
$endgroup$
– Ryan
Feb 10 at 1:26
$begingroup$
What makes you think this proof may not be plausible?
$endgroup$
– hchar
Feb 11 at 4:24
$begingroup$
This is very direct and nice. Is this proof plausible?
$endgroup$
– Ryan
Feb 10 at 1:26
$begingroup$
This is very direct and nice. Is this proof plausible?
$endgroup$
– Ryan
Feb 10 at 1:26
$begingroup$
What makes you think this proof may not be plausible?
$endgroup$
– hchar
Feb 11 at 4:24
$begingroup$
What makes you think this proof may not be plausible?
$endgroup$
– hchar
Feb 11 at 4:24
add a comment |
$begingroup$
$(ab)^{2}=e
$($because$ $a,b in G, abin G$, due to the closure property of group axiom )$implies
(ab)(ab)=etag 1$
Pre multiply $a$ on both sides also post multiply $b$ on both sides. The equation (1) becomes,
$aababb=abtag2$($because$ by associativity and self invertible property.
$ba=abtag3$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
$(ab)^{2}=e
$($because$ $a,b in G, abin G$, due to the closure property of group axiom )$implies
(ab)(ab)=etag 1$
Pre multiply $a$ on both sides also post multiply $b$ on both sides. The equation (1) becomes,
$aababb=abtag2$($because$ by associativity and self invertible property.
$ba=abtag3$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
$(ab)^{2}=e
$($because$ $a,b in G, abin G$, due to the closure property of group axiom )$implies
(ab)(ab)=etag 1$
Pre multiply $a$ on both sides also post multiply $b$ on both sides. The equation (1) becomes,
$aababb=abtag2$($because$ by associativity and self invertible property.
$ba=abtag3$
$endgroup$
$(ab)^{2}=e
$($because$ $a,b in G, abin G$, due to the closure property of group axiom )$implies
(ab)(ab)=etag 1$
Pre multiply $a$ on both sides also post multiply $b$ on both sides. The equation (1) becomes,
$aababb=abtag2$($because$ by associativity and self invertible property.
$ba=abtag3$
answered Jul 26 '17 at 8:03
Unknown xUnknown x
2,53311026
2,53311026
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Then for all $a,b in G$: $$ab = (bb)ab(aa) = b(baba)a = ba.$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Then for all $a,b in G$: $$ab = (bb)ab(aa) = b(baba)a = ba.$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Then for all $a,b in G$: $$ab = (bb)ab(aa) = b(baba)a = ba.$$
$endgroup$
Then for all $a,b in G$: $$ab = (bb)ab(aa) = b(baba)a = ba.$$
answered Feb 18 '18 at 18:17
LynnLynn
2,5851526
2,5851526
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $a,bin G$:
begin{align}
abcdot (ab)^{-1} &= abcdot b^{-1}a^{-1}\
&= abcdot baquadquad text{(since each element in $G$ is self inverse)}\
&= a(b^{2})a\
&= acdot ecdot a\
&= a^{2}\
&=e
end{align}
This shows $(ab)^{-1}=ba$. Now $(ab)^2=e$, so $abcdot ab=abcdot ba=e$, which by the cancellation law gives $ab=ba$ for all $a,bin G$, since $a$ and $b$ were arbitrary. Hence $G$ is abelian as required.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $a,bin G$:
begin{align}
abcdot (ab)^{-1} &= abcdot b^{-1}a^{-1}\
&= abcdot baquadquad text{(since each element in $G$ is self inverse)}\
&= a(b^{2})a\
&= acdot ecdot a\
&= a^{2}\
&=e
end{align}
This shows $(ab)^{-1}=ba$. Now $(ab)^2=e$, so $abcdot ab=abcdot ba=e$, which by the cancellation law gives $ab=ba$ for all $a,bin G$, since $a$ and $b$ were arbitrary. Hence $G$ is abelian as required.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $a,bin G$:
begin{align}
abcdot (ab)^{-1} &= abcdot b^{-1}a^{-1}\
&= abcdot baquadquad text{(since each element in $G$ is self inverse)}\
&= a(b^{2})a\
&= acdot ecdot a\
&= a^{2}\
&=e
end{align}
This shows $(ab)^{-1}=ba$. Now $(ab)^2=e$, so $abcdot ab=abcdot ba=e$, which by the cancellation law gives $ab=ba$ for all $a,bin G$, since $a$ and $b$ were arbitrary. Hence $G$ is abelian as required.
$endgroup$
Let $a,bin G$:
begin{align}
abcdot (ab)^{-1} &= abcdot b^{-1}a^{-1}\
&= abcdot baquadquad text{(since each element in $G$ is self inverse)}\
&= a(b^{2})a\
&= acdot ecdot a\
&= a^{2}\
&=e
end{align}
This shows $(ab)^{-1}=ba$. Now $(ab)^2=e$, so $abcdot ab=abcdot ba=e$, which by the cancellation law gives $ab=ba$ for all $a,bin G$, since $a$ and $b$ were arbitrary. Hence $G$ is abelian as required.
answered Mar 13 '17 at 14:26
Daniel BuckDaniel Buck
2,8301725
2,8301725
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
$$xyx^{-1}y^{-1}=(xyx^{-1})^2x^2(x^{-1}y^{-1})^2$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
$$xyx^{-1}y^{-1}=(xyx^{-1})^2x^2(x^{-1}y^{-1})^2$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
$$xyx^{-1}y^{-1}=(xyx^{-1})^2x^2(x^{-1}y^{-1})^2$$
$endgroup$
$$xyx^{-1}y^{-1}=(xyx^{-1})^2x^2(x^{-1}y^{-1})^2$$
answered Dec 26 '17 at 7:01
YCorYCor
7,613929
7,613929
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
It is easier to solve. Let be c=a○b, then c○c=e, (a○b)○(a○b)=e.
Then multiply the left and right parts of the right by b and a: (a○b)○(a○b)○b=e○b → (a○b)○(a○b○b)=e○b → (a○b)○(a○e)=e○b → (a○b)○a=b → (a○b)○a○a=b○a → (a○b)○e=b○a. the end.
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
Your answer is nigh unintelligible. A good place to start might be with the MathJax tutorial. You also declare that your approach is "easier"---it might be worthwhile to explain why it is easier than the other answers (or, at least, to point out the flaws of the other answers).
$endgroup$
– Xander Henderson
Jan 14 at 0:07
add a comment |
$begingroup$
It is easier to solve. Let be c=a○b, then c○c=e, (a○b)○(a○b)=e.
Then multiply the left and right parts of the right by b and a: (a○b)○(a○b)○b=e○b → (a○b)○(a○b○b)=e○b → (a○b)○(a○e)=e○b → (a○b)○a=b → (a○b)○a○a=b○a → (a○b)○e=b○a. the end.
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
Your answer is nigh unintelligible. A good place to start might be with the MathJax tutorial. You also declare that your approach is "easier"---it might be worthwhile to explain why it is easier than the other answers (or, at least, to point out the flaws of the other answers).
$endgroup$
– Xander Henderson
Jan 14 at 0:07
add a comment |
$begingroup$
It is easier to solve. Let be c=a○b, then c○c=e, (a○b)○(a○b)=e.
Then multiply the left and right parts of the right by b and a: (a○b)○(a○b)○b=e○b → (a○b)○(a○b○b)=e○b → (a○b)○(a○e)=e○b → (a○b)○a=b → (a○b)○a○a=b○a → (a○b)○e=b○a. the end.
$endgroup$
It is easier to solve. Let be c=a○b, then c○c=e, (a○b)○(a○b)=e.
Then multiply the left and right parts of the right by b and a: (a○b)○(a○b)○b=e○b → (a○b)○(a○b○b)=e○b → (a○b)○(a○e)=e○b → (a○b)○a=b → (a○b)○a○a=b○a → (a○b)○e=b○a. the end.
answered Jan 13 at 23:49
Vishnyakov VictorVishnyakov Victor
1
1
1
$begingroup$
Your answer is nigh unintelligible. A good place to start might be with the MathJax tutorial. You also declare that your approach is "easier"---it might be worthwhile to explain why it is easier than the other answers (or, at least, to point out the flaws of the other answers).
$endgroup$
– Xander Henderson
Jan 14 at 0:07
add a comment |
1
$begingroup$
Your answer is nigh unintelligible. A good place to start might be with the MathJax tutorial. You also declare that your approach is "easier"---it might be worthwhile to explain why it is easier than the other answers (or, at least, to point out the flaws of the other answers).
$endgroup$
– Xander Henderson
Jan 14 at 0:07
1
1
$begingroup$
Your answer is nigh unintelligible. A good place to start might be with the MathJax tutorial. You also declare that your approach is "easier"---it might be worthwhile to explain why it is easier than the other answers (or, at least, to point out the flaws of the other answers).
$endgroup$
– Xander Henderson
Jan 14 at 0:07
$begingroup$
Your answer is nigh unintelligible. A good place to start might be with the MathJax tutorial. You also declare that your approach is "easier"---it might be worthwhile to explain why it is easier than the other answers (or, at least, to point out the flaws of the other answers).
$endgroup$
– Xander Henderson
Jan 14 at 0:07
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
What does r stand for?
$endgroup$
– john
Oct 5 '17 at 21:03
$begingroup$
I don't think we can assume that $ g_2 g_1 $ has finite order , with $(g_2g_1)^r=e $
$endgroup$
– john
Oct 5 '17 at 21:05