Prove that if $g^2=e$ for all $g$ in $G$ then $G$ is Abelian.












29












$begingroup$



Prove that if $g^2=e$ for all $g$ in $G$ then $G$ is Abelian.




This question is from group theory in Abstract Algebra and no matter how many times my lecturer teaches it for some reason I can't seem to crack it.



(Please note that $e$ in the question is the group's identity.)



Here's my attempt though...



First I understand Abelian means that if $g_1$ and $g_2$ are elements of a group $G$ then they are Abelian if $g_1g_2=g_2g_1$...



So, I begin by trying to play around with the elements of the group based on their definition...



$$(g_2g_1)^r=e$$
$$(g_2g_1g_2g_2^{-1})^r=e$$
$$(g_2g_1g_2g_2^{-1}g_2g_1g_2g_2^{-1}...g_2g_1g_2g_2^{-1})=e$$



I assume that the $g_2^{-1}$'s and the $g_2$'s cancel out so that we end up with something like,



$$g_2(g_1g_2)^rg_2^{-1}=e$$
$$g_2^{-1}g_2(g_1g_2)^r=g_2^{-1}g_2$$



Then ultimately...



$$g_1g_2=e$$



I figure this is the answer. But I'm not totally sure. I always feel like I do too much in the pursuit of an answer when there's a simpler way.



Reference: Fraleigh p. 49 Question 4.38 in A First Course in Abstract Algebra.










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  • $begingroup$
    What does r stand for?
    $endgroup$
    – john
    Oct 5 '17 at 21:03










  • $begingroup$
    I don't think we can assume that $ g_2 g_1 $ has finite order , with $(g_2g_1)^r=e $
    $endgroup$
    – john
    Oct 5 '17 at 21:05
















29












$begingroup$



Prove that if $g^2=e$ for all $g$ in $G$ then $G$ is Abelian.




This question is from group theory in Abstract Algebra and no matter how many times my lecturer teaches it for some reason I can't seem to crack it.



(Please note that $e$ in the question is the group's identity.)



Here's my attempt though...



First I understand Abelian means that if $g_1$ and $g_2$ are elements of a group $G$ then they are Abelian if $g_1g_2=g_2g_1$...



So, I begin by trying to play around with the elements of the group based on their definition...



$$(g_2g_1)^r=e$$
$$(g_2g_1g_2g_2^{-1})^r=e$$
$$(g_2g_1g_2g_2^{-1}g_2g_1g_2g_2^{-1}...g_2g_1g_2g_2^{-1})=e$$



I assume that the $g_2^{-1}$'s and the $g_2$'s cancel out so that we end up with something like,



$$g_2(g_1g_2)^rg_2^{-1}=e$$
$$g_2^{-1}g_2(g_1g_2)^r=g_2^{-1}g_2$$



Then ultimately...



$$g_1g_2=e$$



I figure this is the answer. But I'm not totally sure. I always feel like I do too much in the pursuit of an answer when there's a simpler way.



Reference: Fraleigh p. 49 Question 4.38 in A First Course in Abstract Algebra.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    What does r stand for?
    $endgroup$
    – john
    Oct 5 '17 at 21:03










  • $begingroup$
    I don't think we can assume that $ g_2 g_1 $ has finite order , with $(g_2g_1)^r=e $
    $endgroup$
    – john
    Oct 5 '17 at 21:05














29












29








29


8



$begingroup$



Prove that if $g^2=e$ for all $g$ in $G$ then $G$ is Abelian.




This question is from group theory in Abstract Algebra and no matter how many times my lecturer teaches it for some reason I can't seem to crack it.



(Please note that $e$ in the question is the group's identity.)



Here's my attempt though...



First I understand Abelian means that if $g_1$ and $g_2$ are elements of a group $G$ then they are Abelian if $g_1g_2=g_2g_1$...



So, I begin by trying to play around with the elements of the group based on their definition...



$$(g_2g_1)^r=e$$
$$(g_2g_1g_2g_2^{-1})^r=e$$
$$(g_2g_1g_2g_2^{-1}g_2g_1g_2g_2^{-1}...g_2g_1g_2g_2^{-1})=e$$



I assume that the $g_2^{-1}$'s and the $g_2$'s cancel out so that we end up with something like,



$$g_2(g_1g_2)^rg_2^{-1}=e$$
$$g_2^{-1}g_2(g_1g_2)^r=g_2^{-1}g_2$$



Then ultimately...



$$g_1g_2=e$$



I figure this is the answer. But I'm not totally sure. I always feel like I do too much in the pursuit of an answer when there's a simpler way.



Reference: Fraleigh p. 49 Question 4.38 in A First Course in Abstract Algebra.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$





Prove that if $g^2=e$ for all $g$ in $G$ then $G$ is Abelian.




This question is from group theory in Abstract Algebra and no matter how many times my lecturer teaches it for some reason I can't seem to crack it.



(Please note that $e$ in the question is the group's identity.)



Here's my attempt though...



First I understand Abelian means that if $g_1$ and $g_2$ are elements of a group $G$ then they are Abelian if $g_1g_2=g_2g_1$...



So, I begin by trying to play around with the elements of the group based on their definition...



$$(g_2g_1)^r=e$$
$$(g_2g_1g_2g_2^{-1})^r=e$$
$$(g_2g_1g_2g_2^{-1}g_2g_1g_2g_2^{-1}...g_2g_1g_2g_2^{-1})=e$$



I assume that the $g_2^{-1}$'s and the $g_2$'s cancel out so that we end up with something like,



$$g_2(g_1g_2)^rg_2^{-1}=e$$
$$g_2^{-1}g_2(g_1g_2)^r=g_2^{-1}g_2$$



Then ultimately...



$$g_1g_2=e$$



I figure this is the answer. But I'm not totally sure. I always feel like I do too much in the pursuit of an answer when there's a simpler way.



Reference: Fraleigh p. 49 Question 4.38 in A First Course in Abstract Algebra.







abstract-algebra group-theory abelian-groups






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edited Dec 26 '17 at 10:25









user26857

39.3k124183




39.3k124183










asked Nov 15 '12 at 19:20









SiyandaSiyanda

1,07552136




1,07552136












  • $begingroup$
    What does r stand for?
    $endgroup$
    – john
    Oct 5 '17 at 21:03










  • $begingroup$
    I don't think we can assume that $ g_2 g_1 $ has finite order , with $(g_2g_1)^r=e $
    $endgroup$
    – john
    Oct 5 '17 at 21:05


















  • $begingroup$
    What does r stand for?
    $endgroup$
    – john
    Oct 5 '17 at 21:03










  • $begingroup$
    I don't think we can assume that $ g_2 g_1 $ has finite order , with $(g_2g_1)^r=e $
    $endgroup$
    – john
    Oct 5 '17 at 21:05
















$begingroup$
What does r stand for?
$endgroup$
– john
Oct 5 '17 at 21:03




$begingroup$
What does r stand for?
$endgroup$
– john
Oct 5 '17 at 21:03












$begingroup$
I don't think we can assume that $ g_2 g_1 $ has finite order , with $(g_2g_1)^r=e $
$endgroup$
– john
Oct 5 '17 at 21:05




$begingroup$
I don't think we can assume that $ g_2 g_1 $ has finite order , with $(g_2g_1)^r=e $
$endgroup$
– john
Oct 5 '17 at 21:05










13 Answers
13






active

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40












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Hint: Take $(ab)^2=1$ and multiply both sides on the right with $b$, then again on the right with $a$.






share|cite|improve this answer









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    22












    $begingroup$

    For any $g, h in G$, consider the element $gcdot hcdot hcdot g.~$
    Since $g^2 = gcdot g= e$ for all $g in G$, we find that
    $$gcdot hcdot hcdot g = gcdot(hcdot h)cdot g = gcdot ecdot g = gcdot g = e.$$
    But, $gcdot h$ has unique inverse element $gcdot h$, while we have just proved that $(gcdot h)cdot (hcdot g) = e$, and so it must be that $gcdot h = hcdot g$ for all $g, h in G$, that is, $G$ is an abelian group.






    share|cite|improve this answer









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    • $begingroup$
      This is the elegant solution to this problem. I thought I'd post this exact solution on here if everyone did it the long way, but I'm half a year late. (+1)
      $endgroup$
      – user70962
      May 20 '13 at 21:52



















    13












    $begingroup$

    Whenever you have a condition $g^2=e$ in a group, it's equivalent to $g=g^{-1}$ (multiply both sides by $g^{-1}$).



    In this case, it applies to every element of the group, so you can add or remove inverses from any expression freely. So the proof is simply $$ab=(ab)^{-1}=b^{-1}a^{-1}=ba.$$






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      What happens after the 2nd equality?
      $endgroup$
      – Dole
      Sep 13 '17 at 2:09










    • $begingroup$
      @Dole, 1st equality: addition of an inverse, 2nd equality: formula for inverse of a product, 3rd equality: removal of inverses. Remember in this group, we can add or remove $^{-1}$ from anything, because every element is its own inverse. Does that answer your question?
      $endgroup$
      – asmeurer
      Sep 14 '17 at 23:27



















    7












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    Hint: Note that $g_1g_2=g_2g_1$ if and only if $g_1g_2g_1^{-1}g_2^{-1}=e$ (Why?), and that $g^{-1}=g$ for all $gin G$ (Why?).






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      6












      $begingroup$

      Proof: let for all $a,b$ in group $G$.
      claim that To show $ab=ba$ a commutative.
      By using a fact that $acdot a=bcdot b=(ab)cdot(ab)=e$.
      since $(ab)^2=a^2cdot b^2=ecdot e=e$. We have $abcdot ab=e$. Multiplying on the right by $ba$, we obtain
      begin{align}
      abcdot abcdot ba &= ecdot ba\
      abcdot a(bcdot b)cdot a &= ba\
      abcdot acdot b^2cdot a &=\
      abcdot acdot ecdot a &=\
      abcdot acdot a &=\
      abcdot e &=\
      ab &= ba,
      end{align}
      for all $a,b$ in $G$. since $G$ is abelian group. This is proved last.






      share|cite|improve this answer











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      • $begingroup$
        I think you meant "therefore" instead of "since" in the last sentence. That $G$ is abelian was to be proved, not given (and BTW, nowhere you've used that it is specifically a group; the argumentation works just as well for monoids that are not groups).
        $endgroup$
        – celtschk
        Dec 14 '18 at 8:51



















      5












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      Alternatively, the map $$begin{align*}f:G&rightarrow G\x&mapsto x^{-1}(=x)end{align*}$$ is an automorphism of $G$ and so $G$ is Abelian!






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$













      • $begingroup$
        This is actually quite neat! There is no circular logic either, which I was initially worried about. (Also, I've edited the post to make the map clearer. Feel free to undo my edit if you wish.)
        $endgroup$
        – user1729
        Dec 14 '18 at 15:35












      • $begingroup$
        @user1729: .This time it looks good. Thanks for the edit!
        $endgroup$
        – Chinnapparaj R
        Dec 15 '18 at 1:39






      • 1




        $begingroup$
        best answer by far.
        $endgroup$
        – Ivan Di Liberti
        Jan 13 at 23:53



















      4












      $begingroup$

      Another proof is by contradiction.



      Let G be a group with operation *. You want to show that:
      $(forall g in G:g^2=e)implies(Gtext{ Abelian}Leftrightarrow forall x,y in G: x*y = y*x)$.



      (where $g^2$ is shorthand for $g*g$)



      Suppose by contradiction that the group is not Abelian, i.e. that ($exists x,yin G: x*yneq y*x)$. Now multiply on the left by $x$ and on the right by $y$.



      You get $x^2*y^2 ne (xy)^2$. But then it means that $e*e neq e$ which is a contradiction.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$













      • $begingroup$
        Hi, I know this is old, but how can you multiply the left side by $x$ and right side by $y$ and not do the same for both sides? In other words, if I multiply one side by $x$, don't I have to do the same for the other side? I am not sure if I am reading that correctly.
        $endgroup$
        – Ryan
        Feb 10 at 1:22








      • 1




        $begingroup$
        $color{red}{x} *x*y*color{red}{y} neq color{red}{x} * y * x * color{red}{y} $, so to be precise I should have said multiple both sides on the left by $x$ and on the right by $y$. Then applying associativity ($*$ is associative by definition of group) you get $(color{red}{x} *x)*(y*color{red}{y}) neq (color{red}{x} * y) * (x * color{red}{y})$ and there you go. I hope it helps.
        $endgroup$
        – Marco Bellocchi
        Feb 10 at 9:49












      • $begingroup$
        Thank you for responding to an old post and for the clarification!
        $endgroup$
        – Ryan
        Feb 10 at 18:43



















      2












      $begingroup$

      By construction:



      $quadbegin{align*}
      (ab)(ab) &= e = a(bb)a \
      require{cancel}cancel{(ab)}(ab) &= cancel{(ab)}(ba) qquadtext{by associativity followed by cancellation}\
      ab &= ba
      end{align*}$



      Hence, the group is Abelian.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$













      • $begingroup$
        This is very direct and nice. Is this proof plausible?
        $endgroup$
        – Ryan
        Feb 10 at 1:26










      • $begingroup$
        What makes you think this proof may not be plausible?
        $endgroup$
        – hchar
        Feb 11 at 4:24



















      1












      $begingroup$

      $(ab)^{2}=e
      $($because$ $a,b in G, abin G$, due to the closure property of group axiom )$implies
      (ab)(ab)=etag 1$
      Pre multiply $a$ on both sides also post multiply $b$ on both sides. The equation (1) becomes,
      $aababb=abtag2$($because$ by associativity and self invertible property.
      $ba=abtag3$






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$





















        1












        $begingroup$

        Then for all $a,b in G$: $$ab = (bb)ab(aa) = b(baba)a = ba.$$






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$





















          0












          $begingroup$

          Let $a,bin G$:
          begin{align}
          abcdot (ab)^{-1} &= abcdot b^{-1}a^{-1}\
          &= abcdot baquadquad text{(since each element in $G$ is self inverse)}\
          &= a(b^{2})a\
          &= acdot ecdot a\
          &= a^{2}\
          &=e
          end{align}
          This shows $(ab)^{-1}=ba$. Now $(ab)^2=e$, so $abcdot ab=abcdot ba=e$, which by the cancellation law gives $ab=ba$ for all $a,bin G$, since $a$ and $b$ were arbitrary. Hence $G$ is abelian as required.






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          $endgroup$





















            0












            $begingroup$

            $$xyx^{-1}y^{-1}=(xyx^{-1})^2x^2(x^{-1}y^{-1})^2$$






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$





















              -2












              $begingroup$

              It is easier to solve. Let be c=a○b, then c○c=e, (a○b)○(a○b)=e.
              Then multiply the left and right parts of the right by b and a: (a○b)○(a○b)○b=e○b → (a○b)○(a○b○b)=e○b → (a○b)○(a○e)=e○b → (a○b)○a=b → (a○b)○a○a=b○a → (a○b)○e=b○a. the end.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$









              • 1




                $begingroup$
                Your answer is nigh unintelligible. A good place to start might be with the MathJax tutorial. You also declare that your approach is "easier"---it might be worthwhile to explain why it is easier than the other answers (or, at least, to point out the flaws of the other answers).
                $endgroup$
                – Xander Henderson
                Jan 14 at 0:07











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              13 Answers
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              13 Answers
              13






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              active

              oldest

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              40












              $begingroup$

              Hint: Take $(ab)^2=1$ and multiply both sides on the right with $b$, then again on the right with $a$.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$


















                40












                $begingroup$

                Hint: Take $(ab)^2=1$ and multiply both sides on the right with $b$, then again on the right with $a$.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$
















                  40












                  40








                  40





                  $begingroup$

                  Hint: Take $(ab)^2=1$ and multiply both sides on the right with $b$, then again on the right with $a$.






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$



                  Hint: Take $(ab)^2=1$ and multiply both sides on the right with $b$, then again on the right with $a$.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Nov 15 '12 at 19:25









                  rschwiebrschwieb

                  107k12102250




                  107k12102250























                      22












                      $begingroup$

                      For any $g, h in G$, consider the element $gcdot hcdot hcdot g.~$
                      Since $g^2 = gcdot g= e$ for all $g in G$, we find that
                      $$gcdot hcdot hcdot g = gcdot(hcdot h)cdot g = gcdot ecdot g = gcdot g = e.$$
                      But, $gcdot h$ has unique inverse element $gcdot h$, while we have just proved that $(gcdot h)cdot (hcdot g) = e$, and so it must be that $gcdot h = hcdot g$ for all $g, h in G$, that is, $G$ is an abelian group.






                      share|cite|improve this answer









                      $endgroup$













                      • $begingroup$
                        This is the elegant solution to this problem. I thought I'd post this exact solution on here if everyone did it the long way, but I'm half a year late. (+1)
                        $endgroup$
                        – user70962
                        May 20 '13 at 21:52
















                      22












                      $begingroup$

                      For any $g, h in G$, consider the element $gcdot hcdot hcdot g.~$
                      Since $g^2 = gcdot g= e$ for all $g in G$, we find that
                      $$gcdot hcdot hcdot g = gcdot(hcdot h)cdot g = gcdot ecdot g = gcdot g = e.$$
                      But, $gcdot h$ has unique inverse element $gcdot h$, while we have just proved that $(gcdot h)cdot (hcdot g) = e$, and so it must be that $gcdot h = hcdot g$ for all $g, h in G$, that is, $G$ is an abelian group.






                      share|cite|improve this answer









                      $endgroup$













                      • $begingroup$
                        This is the elegant solution to this problem. I thought I'd post this exact solution on here if everyone did it the long way, but I'm half a year late. (+1)
                        $endgroup$
                        – user70962
                        May 20 '13 at 21:52














                      22












                      22








                      22





                      $begingroup$

                      For any $g, h in G$, consider the element $gcdot hcdot hcdot g.~$
                      Since $g^2 = gcdot g= e$ for all $g in G$, we find that
                      $$gcdot hcdot hcdot g = gcdot(hcdot h)cdot g = gcdot ecdot g = gcdot g = e.$$
                      But, $gcdot h$ has unique inverse element $gcdot h$, while we have just proved that $(gcdot h)cdot (hcdot g) = e$, and so it must be that $gcdot h = hcdot g$ for all $g, h in G$, that is, $G$ is an abelian group.






                      share|cite|improve this answer









                      $endgroup$



                      For any $g, h in G$, consider the element $gcdot hcdot hcdot g.~$
                      Since $g^2 = gcdot g= e$ for all $g in G$, we find that
                      $$gcdot hcdot hcdot g = gcdot(hcdot h)cdot g = gcdot ecdot g = gcdot g = e.$$
                      But, $gcdot h$ has unique inverse element $gcdot h$, while we have just proved that $(gcdot h)cdot (hcdot g) = e$, and so it must be that $gcdot h = hcdot g$ for all $g, h in G$, that is, $G$ is an abelian group.







                      share|cite|improve this answer












                      share|cite|improve this answer



                      share|cite|improve this answer










                      answered Nov 15 '12 at 20:54









                      Dilip SarwateDilip Sarwate

                      19.2k13076




                      19.2k13076












                      • $begingroup$
                        This is the elegant solution to this problem. I thought I'd post this exact solution on here if everyone did it the long way, but I'm half a year late. (+1)
                        $endgroup$
                        – user70962
                        May 20 '13 at 21:52


















                      • $begingroup$
                        This is the elegant solution to this problem. I thought I'd post this exact solution on here if everyone did it the long way, but I'm half a year late. (+1)
                        $endgroup$
                        – user70962
                        May 20 '13 at 21:52
















                      $begingroup$
                      This is the elegant solution to this problem. I thought I'd post this exact solution on here if everyone did it the long way, but I'm half a year late. (+1)
                      $endgroup$
                      – user70962
                      May 20 '13 at 21:52




                      $begingroup$
                      This is the elegant solution to this problem. I thought I'd post this exact solution on here if everyone did it the long way, but I'm half a year late. (+1)
                      $endgroup$
                      – user70962
                      May 20 '13 at 21:52











                      13












                      $begingroup$

                      Whenever you have a condition $g^2=e$ in a group, it's equivalent to $g=g^{-1}$ (multiply both sides by $g^{-1}$).



                      In this case, it applies to every element of the group, so you can add or remove inverses from any expression freely. So the proof is simply $$ab=(ab)^{-1}=b^{-1}a^{-1}=ba.$$






                      share|cite|improve this answer









                      $endgroup$













                      • $begingroup$
                        What happens after the 2nd equality?
                        $endgroup$
                        – Dole
                        Sep 13 '17 at 2:09










                      • $begingroup$
                        @Dole, 1st equality: addition of an inverse, 2nd equality: formula for inverse of a product, 3rd equality: removal of inverses. Remember in this group, we can add or remove $^{-1}$ from anything, because every element is its own inverse. Does that answer your question?
                        $endgroup$
                        – asmeurer
                        Sep 14 '17 at 23:27
















                      13












                      $begingroup$

                      Whenever you have a condition $g^2=e$ in a group, it's equivalent to $g=g^{-1}$ (multiply both sides by $g^{-1}$).



                      In this case, it applies to every element of the group, so you can add or remove inverses from any expression freely. So the proof is simply $$ab=(ab)^{-1}=b^{-1}a^{-1}=ba.$$






                      share|cite|improve this answer









                      $endgroup$













                      • $begingroup$
                        What happens after the 2nd equality?
                        $endgroup$
                        – Dole
                        Sep 13 '17 at 2:09










                      • $begingroup$
                        @Dole, 1st equality: addition of an inverse, 2nd equality: formula for inverse of a product, 3rd equality: removal of inverses. Remember in this group, we can add or remove $^{-1}$ from anything, because every element is its own inverse. Does that answer your question?
                        $endgroup$
                        – asmeurer
                        Sep 14 '17 at 23:27














                      13












                      13








                      13





                      $begingroup$

                      Whenever you have a condition $g^2=e$ in a group, it's equivalent to $g=g^{-1}$ (multiply both sides by $g^{-1}$).



                      In this case, it applies to every element of the group, so you can add or remove inverses from any expression freely. So the proof is simply $$ab=(ab)^{-1}=b^{-1}a^{-1}=ba.$$






                      share|cite|improve this answer









                      $endgroup$



                      Whenever you have a condition $g^2=e$ in a group, it's equivalent to $g=g^{-1}$ (multiply both sides by $g^{-1}$).



                      In this case, it applies to every element of the group, so you can add or remove inverses from any expression freely. So the proof is simply $$ab=(ab)^{-1}=b^{-1}a^{-1}=ba.$$







                      share|cite|improve this answer












                      share|cite|improve this answer



                      share|cite|improve this answer










                      answered Jul 7 '15 at 19:03









                      asmeurerasmeurer

                      5,87742443




                      5,87742443












                      • $begingroup$
                        What happens after the 2nd equality?
                        $endgroup$
                        – Dole
                        Sep 13 '17 at 2:09










                      • $begingroup$
                        @Dole, 1st equality: addition of an inverse, 2nd equality: formula for inverse of a product, 3rd equality: removal of inverses. Remember in this group, we can add or remove $^{-1}$ from anything, because every element is its own inverse. Does that answer your question?
                        $endgroup$
                        – asmeurer
                        Sep 14 '17 at 23:27


















                      • $begingroup$
                        What happens after the 2nd equality?
                        $endgroup$
                        – Dole
                        Sep 13 '17 at 2:09










                      • $begingroup$
                        @Dole, 1st equality: addition of an inverse, 2nd equality: formula for inverse of a product, 3rd equality: removal of inverses. Remember in this group, we can add or remove $^{-1}$ from anything, because every element is its own inverse. Does that answer your question?
                        $endgroup$
                        – asmeurer
                        Sep 14 '17 at 23:27
















                      $begingroup$
                      What happens after the 2nd equality?
                      $endgroup$
                      – Dole
                      Sep 13 '17 at 2:09




                      $begingroup$
                      What happens after the 2nd equality?
                      $endgroup$
                      – Dole
                      Sep 13 '17 at 2:09












                      $begingroup$
                      @Dole, 1st equality: addition of an inverse, 2nd equality: formula for inverse of a product, 3rd equality: removal of inverses. Remember in this group, we can add or remove $^{-1}$ from anything, because every element is its own inverse. Does that answer your question?
                      $endgroup$
                      – asmeurer
                      Sep 14 '17 at 23:27




                      $begingroup$
                      @Dole, 1st equality: addition of an inverse, 2nd equality: formula for inverse of a product, 3rd equality: removal of inverses. Remember in this group, we can add or remove $^{-1}$ from anything, because every element is its own inverse. Does that answer your question?
                      $endgroup$
                      – asmeurer
                      Sep 14 '17 at 23:27











                      7












                      $begingroup$

                      Hint: Note that $g_1g_2=g_2g_1$ if and only if $g_1g_2g_1^{-1}g_2^{-1}=e$ (Why?), and that $g^{-1}=g$ for all $gin G$ (Why?).






                      share|cite|improve this answer











                      $endgroup$


















                        7












                        $begingroup$

                        Hint: Note that $g_1g_2=g_2g_1$ if and only if $g_1g_2g_1^{-1}g_2^{-1}=e$ (Why?), and that $g^{-1}=g$ for all $gin G$ (Why?).






                        share|cite|improve this answer











                        $endgroup$
















                          7












                          7








                          7





                          $begingroup$

                          Hint: Note that $g_1g_2=g_2g_1$ if and only if $g_1g_2g_1^{-1}g_2^{-1}=e$ (Why?), and that $g^{-1}=g$ for all $gin G$ (Why?).






                          share|cite|improve this answer











                          $endgroup$



                          Hint: Note that $g_1g_2=g_2g_1$ if and only if $g_1g_2g_1^{-1}g_2^{-1}=e$ (Why?), and that $g^{-1}=g$ for all $gin G$ (Why?).







                          share|cite|improve this answer














                          share|cite|improve this answer



                          share|cite|improve this answer








                          edited Dec 6 '12 at 16:12

























                          answered Nov 15 '12 at 19:24









                          Cameron BuieCameron Buie

                          85.2k772156




                          85.2k772156























                              6












                              $begingroup$

                              Proof: let for all $a,b$ in group $G$.
                              claim that To show $ab=ba$ a commutative.
                              By using a fact that $acdot a=bcdot b=(ab)cdot(ab)=e$.
                              since $(ab)^2=a^2cdot b^2=ecdot e=e$. We have $abcdot ab=e$. Multiplying on the right by $ba$, we obtain
                              begin{align}
                              abcdot abcdot ba &= ecdot ba\
                              abcdot a(bcdot b)cdot a &= ba\
                              abcdot acdot b^2cdot a &=\
                              abcdot acdot ecdot a &=\
                              abcdot acdot a &=\
                              abcdot e &=\
                              ab &= ba,
                              end{align}
                              for all $a,b$ in $G$. since $G$ is abelian group. This is proved last.






                              share|cite|improve this answer











                              $endgroup$













                              • $begingroup$
                                I think you meant "therefore" instead of "since" in the last sentence. That $G$ is abelian was to be proved, not given (and BTW, nowhere you've used that it is specifically a group; the argumentation works just as well for monoids that are not groups).
                                $endgroup$
                                – celtschk
                                Dec 14 '18 at 8:51
















                              6












                              $begingroup$

                              Proof: let for all $a,b$ in group $G$.
                              claim that To show $ab=ba$ a commutative.
                              By using a fact that $acdot a=bcdot b=(ab)cdot(ab)=e$.
                              since $(ab)^2=a^2cdot b^2=ecdot e=e$. We have $abcdot ab=e$. Multiplying on the right by $ba$, we obtain
                              begin{align}
                              abcdot abcdot ba &= ecdot ba\
                              abcdot a(bcdot b)cdot a &= ba\
                              abcdot acdot b^2cdot a &=\
                              abcdot acdot ecdot a &=\
                              abcdot acdot a &=\
                              abcdot e &=\
                              ab &= ba,
                              end{align}
                              for all $a,b$ in $G$. since $G$ is abelian group. This is proved last.






                              share|cite|improve this answer











                              $endgroup$













                              • $begingroup$
                                I think you meant "therefore" instead of "since" in the last sentence. That $G$ is abelian was to be proved, not given (and BTW, nowhere you've used that it is specifically a group; the argumentation works just as well for monoids that are not groups).
                                $endgroup$
                                – celtschk
                                Dec 14 '18 at 8:51














                              6












                              6








                              6





                              $begingroup$

                              Proof: let for all $a,b$ in group $G$.
                              claim that To show $ab=ba$ a commutative.
                              By using a fact that $acdot a=bcdot b=(ab)cdot(ab)=e$.
                              since $(ab)^2=a^2cdot b^2=ecdot e=e$. We have $abcdot ab=e$. Multiplying on the right by $ba$, we obtain
                              begin{align}
                              abcdot abcdot ba &= ecdot ba\
                              abcdot a(bcdot b)cdot a &= ba\
                              abcdot acdot b^2cdot a &=\
                              abcdot acdot ecdot a &=\
                              abcdot acdot a &=\
                              abcdot e &=\
                              ab &= ba,
                              end{align}
                              for all $a,b$ in $G$. since $G$ is abelian group. This is proved last.






                              share|cite|improve this answer











                              $endgroup$



                              Proof: let for all $a,b$ in group $G$.
                              claim that To show $ab=ba$ a commutative.
                              By using a fact that $acdot a=bcdot b=(ab)cdot(ab)=e$.
                              since $(ab)^2=a^2cdot b^2=ecdot e=e$. We have $abcdot ab=e$. Multiplying on the right by $ba$, we obtain
                              begin{align}
                              abcdot abcdot ba &= ecdot ba\
                              abcdot a(bcdot b)cdot a &= ba\
                              abcdot acdot b^2cdot a &=\
                              abcdot acdot ecdot a &=\
                              abcdot acdot a &=\
                              abcdot e &=\
                              ab &= ba,
                              end{align}
                              for all $a,b$ in $G$. since $G$ is abelian group. This is proved last.







                              share|cite|improve this answer














                              share|cite|improve this answer



                              share|cite|improve this answer








                              edited Dec 26 '17 at 10:29









                              user26857

                              39.3k124183




                              39.3k124183










                              answered Dec 9 '15 at 12:21









                              Gudesa KuseGudesa Kuse

                              6111




                              6111












                              • $begingroup$
                                I think you meant "therefore" instead of "since" in the last sentence. That $G$ is abelian was to be proved, not given (and BTW, nowhere you've used that it is specifically a group; the argumentation works just as well for monoids that are not groups).
                                $endgroup$
                                – celtschk
                                Dec 14 '18 at 8:51


















                              • $begingroup$
                                I think you meant "therefore" instead of "since" in the last sentence. That $G$ is abelian was to be proved, not given (and BTW, nowhere you've used that it is specifically a group; the argumentation works just as well for monoids that are not groups).
                                $endgroup$
                                – celtschk
                                Dec 14 '18 at 8:51
















                              $begingroup$
                              I think you meant "therefore" instead of "since" in the last sentence. That $G$ is abelian was to be proved, not given (and BTW, nowhere you've used that it is specifically a group; the argumentation works just as well for monoids that are not groups).
                              $endgroup$
                              – celtschk
                              Dec 14 '18 at 8:51




                              $begingroup$
                              I think you meant "therefore" instead of "since" in the last sentence. That $G$ is abelian was to be proved, not given (and BTW, nowhere you've used that it is specifically a group; the argumentation works just as well for monoids that are not groups).
                              $endgroup$
                              – celtschk
                              Dec 14 '18 at 8:51











                              5












                              $begingroup$

                              Alternatively, the map $$begin{align*}f:G&rightarrow G\x&mapsto x^{-1}(=x)end{align*}$$ is an automorphism of $G$ and so $G$ is Abelian!






                              share|cite|improve this answer











                              $endgroup$













                              • $begingroup$
                                This is actually quite neat! There is no circular logic either, which I was initially worried about. (Also, I've edited the post to make the map clearer. Feel free to undo my edit if you wish.)
                                $endgroup$
                                – user1729
                                Dec 14 '18 at 15:35












                              • $begingroup$
                                @user1729: .This time it looks good. Thanks for the edit!
                                $endgroup$
                                – Chinnapparaj R
                                Dec 15 '18 at 1:39






                              • 1




                                $begingroup$
                                best answer by far.
                                $endgroup$
                                – Ivan Di Liberti
                                Jan 13 at 23:53
















                              5












                              $begingroup$

                              Alternatively, the map $$begin{align*}f:G&rightarrow G\x&mapsto x^{-1}(=x)end{align*}$$ is an automorphism of $G$ and so $G$ is Abelian!






                              share|cite|improve this answer











                              $endgroup$













                              • $begingroup$
                                This is actually quite neat! There is no circular logic either, which I was initially worried about. (Also, I've edited the post to make the map clearer. Feel free to undo my edit if you wish.)
                                $endgroup$
                                – user1729
                                Dec 14 '18 at 15:35












                              • $begingroup$
                                @user1729: .This time it looks good. Thanks for the edit!
                                $endgroup$
                                – Chinnapparaj R
                                Dec 15 '18 at 1:39






                              • 1




                                $begingroup$
                                best answer by far.
                                $endgroup$
                                – Ivan Di Liberti
                                Jan 13 at 23:53














                              5












                              5








                              5





                              $begingroup$

                              Alternatively, the map $$begin{align*}f:G&rightarrow G\x&mapsto x^{-1}(=x)end{align*}$$ is an automorphism of $G$ and so $G$ is Abelian!






                              share|cite|improve this answer











                              $endgroup$



                              Alternatively, the map $$begin{align*}f:G&rightarrow G\x&mapsto x^{-1}(=x)end{align*}$$ is an automorphism of $G$ and so $G$ is Abelian!







                              share|cite|improve this answer














                              share|cite|improve this answer



                              share|cite|improve this answer








                              edited Dec 14 '18 at 15:36









                              user1729

                              17.1k64193




                              17.1k64193










                              answered Dec 14 '18 at 8:35









                              Chinnapparaj RChinnapparaj R

                              5,5072928




                              5,5072928












                              • $begingroup$
                                This is actually quite neat! There is no circular logic either, which I was initially worried about. (Also, I've edited the post to make the map clearer. Feel free to undo my edit if you wish.)
                                $endgroup$
                                – user1729
                                Dec 14 '18 at 15:35












                              • $begingroup$
                                @user1729: .This time it looks good. Thanks for the edit!
                                $endgroup$
                                – Chinnapparaj R
                                Dec 15 '18 at 1:39






                              • 1




                                $begingroup$
                                best answer by far.
                                $endgroup$
                                – Ivan Di Liberti
                                Jan 13 at 23:53


















                              • $begingroup$
                                This is actually quite neat! There is no circular logic either, which I was initially worried about. (Also, I've edited the post to make the map clearer. Feel free to undo my edit if you wish.)
                                $endgroup$
                                – user1729
                                Dec 14 '18 at 15:35












                              • $begingroup$
                                @user1729: .This time it looks good. Thanks for the edit!
                                $endgroup$
                                – Chinnapparaj R
                                Dec 15 '18 at 1:39






                              • 1




                                $begingroup$
                                best answer by far.
                                $endgroup$
                                – Ivan Di Liberti
                                Jan 13 at 23:53
















                              $begingroup$
                              This is actually quite neat! There is no circular logic either, which I was initially worried about. (Also, I've edited the post to make the map clearer. Feel free to undo my edit if you wish.)
                              $endgroup$
                              – user1729
                              Dec 14 '18 at 15:35






                              $begingroup$
                              This is actually quite neat! There is no circular logic either, which I was initially worried about. (Also, I've edited the post to make the map clearer. Feel free to undo my edit if you wish.)
                              $endgroup$
                              – user1729
                              Dec 14 '18 at 15:35














                              $begingroup$
                              @user1729: .This time it looks good. Thanks for the edit!
                              $endgroup$
                              – Chinnapparaj R
                              Dec 15 '18 at 1:39




                              $begingroup$
                              @user1729: .This time it looks good. Thanks for the edit!
                              $endgroup$
                              – Chinnapparaj R
                              Dec 15 '18 at 1:39




                              1




                              1




                              $begingroup$
                              best answer by far.
                              $endgroup$
                              – Ivan Di Liberti
                              Jan 13 at 23:53




                              $begingroup$
                              best answer by far.
                              $endgroup$
                              – Ivan Di Liberti
                              Jan 13 at 23:53











                              4












                              $begingroup$

                              Another proof is by contradiction.



                              Let G be a group with operation *. You want to show that:
                              $(forall g in G:g^2=e)implies(Gtext{ Abelian}Leftrightarrow forall x,y in G: x*y = y*x)$.



                              (where $g^2$ is shorthand for $g*g$)



                              Suppose by contradiction that the group is not Abelian, i.e. that ($exists x,yin G: x*yneq y*x)$. Now multiply on the left by $x$ and on the right by $y$.



                              You get $x^2*y^2 ne (xy)^2$. But then it means that $e*e neq e$ which is a contradiction.






                              share|cite|improve this answer











                              $endgroup$













                              • $begingroup$
                                Hi, I know this is old, but how can you multiply the left side by $x$ and right side by $y$ and not do the same for both sides? In other words, if I multiply one side by $x$, don't I have to do the same for the other side? I am not sure if I am reading that correctly.
                                $endgroup$
                                – Ryan
                                Feb 10 at 1:22








                              • 1




                                $begingroup$
                                $color{red}{x} *x*y*color{red}{y} neq color{red}{x} * y * x * color{red}{y} $, so to be precise I should have said multiple both sides on the left by $x$ and on the right by $y$. Then applying associativity ($*$ is associative by definition of group) you get $(color{red}{x} *x)*(y*color{red}{y}) neq (color{red}{x} * y) * (x * color{red}{y})$ and there you go. I hope it helps.
                                $endgroup$
                                – Marco Bellocchi
                                Feb 10 at 9:49












                              • $begingroup$
                                Thank you for responding to an old post and for the clarification!
                                $endgroup$
                                – Ryan
                                Feb 10 at 18:43
















                              4












                              $begingroup$

                              Another proof is by contradiction.



                              Let G be a group with operation *. You want to show that:
                              $(forall g in G:g^2=e)implies(Gtext{ Abelian}Leftrightarrow forall x,y in G: x*y = y*x)$.



                              (where $g^2$ is shorthand for $g*g$)



                              Suppose by contradiction that the group is not Abelian, i.e. that ($exists x,yin G: x*yneq y*x)$. Now multiply on the left by $x$ and on the right by $y$.



                              You get $x^2*y^2 ne (xy)^2$. But then it means that $e*e neq e$ which is a contradiction.






                              share|cite|improve this answer











                              $endgroup$













                              • $begingroup$
                                Hi, I know this is old, but how can you multiply the left side by $x$ and right side by $y$ and not do the same for both sides? In other words, if I multiply one side by $x$, don't I have to do the same for the other side? I am not sure if I am reading that correctly.
                                $endgroup$
                                – Ryan
                                Feb 10 at 1:22








                              • 1




                                $begingroup$
                                $color{red}{x} *x*y*color{red}{y} neq color{red}{x} * y * x * color{red}{y} $, so to be precise I should have said multiple both sides on the left by $x$ and on the right by $y$. Then applying associativity ($*$ is associative by definition of group) you get $(color{red}{x} *x)*(y*color{red}{y}) neq (color{red}{x} * y) * (x * color{red}{y})$ and there you go. I hope it helps.
                                $endgroup$
                                – Marco Bellocchi
                                Feb 10 at 9:49












                              • $begingroup$
                                Thank you for responding to an old post and for the clarification!
                                $endgroup$
                                – Ryan
                                Feb 10 at 18:43














                              4












                              4








                              4





                              $begingroup$

                              Another proof is by contradiction.



                              Let G be a group with operation *. You want to show that:
                              $(forall g in G:g^2=e)implies(Gtext{ Abelian}Leftrightarrow forall x,y in G: x*y = y*x)$.



                              (where $g^2$ is shorthand for $g*g$)



                              Suppose by contradiction that the group is not Abelian, i.e. that ($exists x,yin G: x*yneq y*x)$. Now multiply on the left by $x$ and on the right by $y$.



                              You get $x^2*y^2 ne (xy)^2$. But then it means that $e*e neq e$ which is a contradiction.






                              share|cite|improve this answer











                              $endgroup$



                              Another proof is by contradiction.



                              Let G be a group with operation *. You want to show that:
                              $(forall g in G:g^2=e)implies(Gtext{ Abelian}Leftrightarrow forall x,y in G: x*y = y*x)$.



                              (where $g^2$ is shorthand for $g*g$)



                              Suppose by contradiction that the group is not Abelian, i.e. that ($exists x,yin G: x*yneq y*x)$. Now multiply on the left by $x$ and on the right by $y$.



                              You get $x^2*y^2 ne (xy)^2$. But then it means that $e*e neq e$ which is a contradiction.







                              share|cite|improve this answer














                              share|cite|improve this answer



                              share|cite|improve this answer








                              edited Dec 26 '17 at 10:27









                              user26857

                              39.3k124183




                              39.3k124183










                              answered Nov 19 '17 at 13:02









                              Marco BellocchiMarco Bellocchi

                              5081412




                              5081412












                              • $begingroup$
                                Hi, I know this is old, but how can you multiply the left side by $x$ and right side by $y$ and not do the same for both sides? In other words, if I multiply one side by $x$, don't I have to do the same for the other side? I am not sure if I am reading that correctly.
                                $endgroup$
                                – Ryan
                                Feb 10 at 1:22








                              • 1




                                $begingroup$
                                $color{red}{x} *x*y*color{red}{y} neq color{red}{x} * y * x * color{red}{y} $, so to be precise I should have said multiple both sides on the left by $x$ and on the right by $y$. Then applying associativity ($*$ is associative by definition of group) you get $(color{red}{x} *x)*(y*color{red}{y}) neq (color{red}{x} * y) * (x * color{red}{y})$ and there you go. I hope it helps.
                                $endgroup$
                                – Marco Bellocchi
                                Feb 10 at 9:49












                              • $begingroup$
                                Thank you for responding to an old post and for the clarification!
                                $endgroup$
                                – Ryan
                                Feb 10 at 18:43


















                              • $begingroup$
                                Hi, I know this is old, but how can you multiply the left side by $x$ and right side by $y$ and not do the same for both sides? In other words, if I multiply one side by $x$, don't I have to do the same for the other side? I am not sure if I am reading that correctly.
                                $endgroup$
                                – Ryan
                                Feb 10 at 1:22








                              • 1




                                $begingroup$
                                $color{red}{x} *x*y*color{red}{y} neq color{red}{x} * y * x * color{red}{y} $, so to be precise I should have said multiple both sides on the left by $x$ and on the right by $y$. Then applying associativity ($*$ is associative by definition of group) you get $(color{red}{x} *x)*(y*color{red}{y}) neq (color{red}{x} * y) * (x * color{red}{y})$ and there you go. I hope it helps.
                                $endgroup$
                                – Marco Bellocchi
                                Feb 10 at 9:49












                              • $begingroup$
                                Thank you for responding to an old post and for the clarification!
                                $endgroup$
                                – Ryan
                                Feb 10 at 18:43
















                              $begingroup$
                              Hi, I know this is old, but how can you multiply the left side by $x$ and right side by $y$ and not do the same for both sides? In other words, if I multiply one side by $x$, don't I have to do the same for the other side? I am not sure if I am reading that correctly.
                              $endgroup$
                              – Ryan
                              Feb 10 at 1:22






                              $begingroup$
                              Hi, I know this is old, but how can you multiply the left side by $x$ and right side by $y$ and not do the same for both sides? In other words, if I multiply one side by $x$, don't I have to do the same for the other side? I am not sure if I am reading that correctly.
                              $endgroup$
                              – Ryan
                              Feb 10 at 1:22






                              1




                              1




                              $begingroup$
                              $color{red}{x} *x*y*color{red}{y} neq color{red}{x} * y * x * color{red}{y} $, so to be precise I should have said multiple both sides on the left by $x$ and on the right by $y$. Then applying associativity ($*$ is associative by definition of group) you get $(color{red}{x} *x)*(y*color{red}{y}) neq (color{red}{x} * y) * (x * color{red}{y})$ and there you go. I hope it helps.
                              $endgroup$
                              – Marco Bellocchi
                              Feb 10 at 9:49






                              $begingroup$
                              $color{red}{x} *x*y*color{red}{y} neq color{red}{x} * y * x * color{red}{y} $, so to be precise I should have said multiple both sides on the left by $x$ and on the right by $y$. Then applying associativity ($*$ is associative by definition of group) you get $(color{red}{x} *x)*(y*color{red}{y}) neq (color{red}{x} * y) * (x * color{red}{y})$ and there you go. I hope it helps.
                              $endgroup$
                              – Marco Bellocchi
                              Feb 10 at 9:49














                              $begingroup$
                              Thank you for responding to an old post and for the clarification!
                              $endgroup$
                              – Ryan
                              Feb 10 at 18:43




                              $begingroup$
                              Thank you for responding to an old post and for the clarification!
                              $endgroup$
                              – Ryan
                              Feb 10 at 18:43











                              2












                              $begingroup$

                              By construction:



                              $quadbegin{align*}
                              (ab)(ab) &= e = a(bb)a \
                              require{cancel}cancel{(ab)}(ab) &= cancel{(ab)}(ba) qquadtext{by associativity followed by cancellation}\
                              ab &= ba
                              end{align*}$



                              Hence, the group is Abelian.






                              share|cite|improve this answer











                              $endgroup$













                              • $begingroup$
                                This is very direct and nice. Is this proof plausible?
                                $endgroup$
                                – Ryan
                                Feb 10 at 1:26










                              • $begingroup$
                                What makes you think this proof may not be plausible?
                                $endgroup$
                                – hchar
                                Feb 11 at 4:24
















                              2












                              $begingroup$

                              By construction:



                              $quadbegin{align*}
                              (ab)(ab) &= e = a(bb)a \
                              require{cancel}cancel{(ab)}(ab) &= cancel{(ab)}(ba) qquadtext{by associativity followed by cancellation}\
                              ab &= ba
                              end{align*}$



                              Hence, the group is Abelian.






                              share|cite|improve this answer











                              $endgroup$













                              • $begingroup$
                                This is very direct and nice. Is this proof plausible?
                                $endgroup$
                                – Ryan
                                Feb 10 at 1:26










                              • $begingroup$
                                What makes you think this proof may not be plausible?
                                $endgroup$
                                – hchar
                                Feb 11 at 4:24














                              2












                              2








                              2





                              $begingroup$

                              By construction:



                              $quadbegin{align*}
                              (ab)(ab) &= e = a(bb)a \
                              require{cancel}cancel{(ab)}(ab) &= cancel{(ab)}(ba) qquadtext{by associativity followed by cancellation}\
                              ab &= ba
                              end{align*}$



                              Hence, the group is Abelian.






                              share|cite|improve this answer











                              $endgroup$



                              By construction:



                              $quadbegin{align*}
                              (ab)(ab) &= e = a(bb)a \
                              require{cancel}cancel{(ab)}(ab) &= cancel{(ab)}(ba) qquadtext{by associativity followed by cancellation}\
                              ab &= ba
                              end{align*}$



                              Hence, the group is Abelian.







                              share|cite|improve this answer














                              share|cite|improve this answer



                              share|cite|improve this answer








                              edited Mar 11 '18 at 2:58

























                              answered Mar 11 '18 at 2:50









                              hcharhchar

                              714




                              714












                              • $begingroup$
                                This is very direct and nice. Is this proof plausible?
                                $endgroup$
                                – Ryan
                                Feb 10 at 1:26










                              • $begingroup$
                                What makes you think this proof may not be plausible?
                                $endgroup$
                                – hchar
                                Feb 11 at 4:24


















                              • $begingroup$
                                This is very direct and nice. Is this proof plausible?
                                $endgroup$
                                – Ryan
                                Feb 10 at 1:26










                              • $begingroup$
                                What makes you think this proof may not be plausible?
                                $endgroup$
                                – hchar
                                Feb 11 at 4:24
















                              $begingroup$
                              This is very direct and nice. Is this proof plausible?
                              $endgroup$
                              – Ryan
                              Feb 10 at 1:26




                              $begingroup$
                              This is very direct and nice. Is this proof plausible?
                              $endgroup$
                              – Ryan
                              Feb 10 at 1:26












                              $begingroup$
                              What makes you think this proof may not be plausible?
                              $endgroup$
                              – hchar
                              Feb 11 at 4:24




                              $begingroup$
                              What makes you think this proof may not be plausible?
                              $endgroup$
                              – hchar
                              Feb 11 at 4:24











                              1












                              $begingroup$

                              $(ab)^{2}=e
                              $($because$ $a,b in G, abin G$, due to the closure property of group axiom )$implies
                              (ab)(ab)=etag 1$
                              Pre multiply $a$ on both sides also post multiply $b$ on both sides. The equation (1) becomes,
                              $aababb=abtag2$($because$ by associativity and self invertible property.
                              $ba=abtag3$






                              share|cite|improve this answer









                              $endgroup$


















                                1












                                $begingroup$

                                $(ab)^{2}=e
                                $($because$ $a,b in G, abin G$, due to the closure property of group axiom )$implies
                                (ab)(ab)=etag 1$
                                Pre multiply $a$ on both sides also post multiply $b$ on both sides. The equation (1) becomes,
                                $aababb=abtag2$($because$ by associativity and self invertible property.
                                $ba=abtag3$






                                share|cite|improve this answer









                                $endgroup$
















                                  1












                                  1








                                  1





                                  $begingroup$

                                  $(ab)^{2}=e
                                  $($because$ $a,b in G, abin G$, due to the closure property of group axiom )$implies
                                  (ab)(ab)=etag 1$
                                  Pre multiply $a$ on both sides also post multiply $b$ on both sides. The equation (1) becomes,
                                  $aababb=abtag2$($because$ by associativity and self invertible property.
                                  $ba=abtag3$






                                  share|cite|improve this answer









                                  $endgroup$



                                  $(ab)^{2}=e
                                  $($because$ $a,b in G, abin G$, due to the closure property of group axiom )$implies
                                  (ab)(ab)=etag 1$
                                  Pre multiply $a$ on both sides also post multiply $b$ on both sides. The equation (1) becomes,
                                  $aababb=abtag2$($because$ by associativity and self invertible property.
                                  $ba=abtag3$







                                  share|cite|improve this answer












                                  share|cite|improve this answer



                                  share|cite|improve this answer










                                  answered Jul 26 '17 at 8:03









                                  Unknown xUnknown x

                                  2,53311026




                                  2,53311026























                                      1












                                      $begingroup$

                                      Then for all $a,b in G$: $$ab = (bb)ab(aa) = b(baba)a = ba.$$






                                      share|cite|improve this answer









                                      $endgroup$


















                                        1












                                        $begingroup$

                                        Then for all $a,b in G$: $$ab = (bb)ab(aa) = b(baba)a = ba.$$






                                        share|cite|improve this answer









                                        $endgroup$
















                                          1












                                          1








                                          1





                                          $begingroup$

                                          Then for all $a,b in G$: $$ab = (bb)ab(aa) = b(baba)a = ba.$$






                                          share|cite|improve this answer









                                          $endgroup$



                                          Then for all $a,b in G$: $$ab = (bb)ab(aa) = b(baba)a = ba.$$







                                          share|cite|improve this answer












                                          share|cite|improve this answer



                                          share|cite|improve this answer










                                          answered Feb 18 '18 at 18:17









                                          LynnLynn

                                          2,5851526




                                          2,5851526























                                              0












                                              $begingroup$

                                              Let $a,bin G$:
                                              begin{align}
                                              abcdot (ab)^{-1} &= abcdot b^{-1}a^{-1}\
                                              &= abcdot baquadquad text{(since each element in $G$ is self inverse)}\
                                              &= a(b^{2})a\
                                              &= acdot ecdot a\
                                              &= a^{2}\
                                              &=e
                                              end{align}
                                              This shows $(ab)^{-1}=ba$. Now $(ab)^2=e$, so $abcdot ab=abcdot ba=e$, which by the cancellation law gives $ab=ba$ for all $a,bin G$, since $a$ and $b$ were arbitrary. Hence $G$ is abelian as required.






                                              share|cite|improve this answer









                                              $endgroup$


















                                                0












                                                $begingroup$

                                                Let $a,bin G$:
                                                begin{align}
                                                abcdot (ab)^{-1} &= abcdot b^{-1}a^{-1}\
                                                &= abcdot baquadquad text{(since each element in $G$ is self inverse)}\
                                                &= a(b^{2})a\
                                                &= acdot ecdot a\
                                                &= a^{2}\
                                                &=e
                                                end{align}
                                                This shows $(ab)^{-1}=ba$. Now $(ab)^2=e$, so $abcdot ab=abcdot ba=e$, which by the cancellation law gives $ab=ba$ for all $a,bin G$, since $a$ and $b$ were arbitrary. Hence $G$ is abelian as required.






                                                share|cite|improve this answer









                                                $endgroup$
















                                                  0












                                                  0








                                                  0





                                                  $begingroup$

                                                  Let $a,bin G$:
                                                  begin{align}
                                                  abcdot (ab)^{-1} &= abcdot b^{-1}a^{-1}\
                                                  &= abcdot baquadquad text{(since each element in $G$ is self inverse)}\
                                                  &= a(b^{2})a\
                                                  &= acdot ecdot a\
                                                  &= a^{2}\
                                                  &=e
                                                  end{align}
                                                  This shows $(ab)^{-1}=ba$. Now $(ab)^2=e$, so $abcdot ab=abcdot ba=e$, which by the cancellation law gives $ab=ba$ for all $a,bin G$, since $a$ and $b$ were arbitrary. Hence $G$ is abelian as required.






                                                  share|cite|improve this answer









                                                  $endgroup$



                                                  Let $a,bin G$:
                                                  begin{align}
                                                  abcdot (ab)^{-1} &= abcdot b^{-1}a^{-1}\
                                                  &= abcdot baquadquad text{(since each element in $G$ is self inverse)}\
                                                  &= a(b^{2})a\
                                                  &= acdot ecdot a\
                                                  &= a^{2}\
                                                  &=e
                                                  end{align}
                                                  This shows $(ab)^{-1}=ba$. Now $(ab)^2=e$, so $abcdot ab=abcdot ba=e$, which by the cancellation law gives $ab=ba$ for all $a,bin G$, since $a$ and $b$ were arbitrary. Hence $G$ is abelian as required.







                                                  share|cite|improve this answer












                                                  share|cite|improve this answer



                                                  share|cite|improve this answer










                                                  answered Mar 13 '17 at 14:26









                                                  Daniel BuckDaniel Buck

                                                  2,8301725




                                                  2,8301725























                                                      0












                                                      $begingroup$

                                                      $$xyx^{-1}y^{-1}=(xyx^{-1})^2x^2(x^{-1}y^{-1})^2$$






                                                      share|cite|improve this answer









                                                      $endgroup$


















                                                        0












                                                        $begingroup$

                                                        $$xyx^{-1}y^{-1}=(xyx^{-1})^2x^2(x^{-1}y^{-1})^2$$






                                                        share|cite|improve this answer









                                                        $endgroup$
















                                                          0












                                                          0








                                                          0





                                                          $begingroup$

                                                          $$xyx^{-1}y^{-1}=(xyx^{-1})^2x^2(x^{-1}y^{-1})^2$$






                                                          share|cite|improve this answer









                                                          $endgroup$



                                                          $$xyx^{-1}y^{-1}=(xyx^{-1})^2x^2(x^{-1}y^{-1})^2$$







                                                          share|cite|improve this answer












                                                          share|cite|improve this answer



                                                          share|cite|improve this answer










                                                          answered Dec 26 '17 at 7:01









                                                          YCorYCor

                                                          7,613929




                                                          7,613929























                                                              -2












                                                              $begingroup$

                                                              It is easier to solve. Let be c=a○b, then c○c=e, (a○b)○(a○b)=e.
                                                              Then multiply the left and right parts of the right by b and a: (a○b)○(a○b)○b=e○b → (a○b)○(a○b○b)=e○b → (a○b)○(a○e)=e○b → (a○b)○a=b → (a○b)○a○a=b○a → (a○b)○e=b○a. the end.






                                                              share|cite|improve this answer









                                                              $endgroup$









                                                              • 1




                                                                $begingroup$
                                                                Your answer is nigh unintelligible. A good place to start might be with the MathJax tutorial. You also declare that your approach is "easier"---it might be worthwhile to explain why it is easier than the other answers (or, at least, to point out the flaws of the other answers).
                                                                $endgroup$
                                                                – Xander Henderson
                                                                Jan 14 at 0:07
















                                                              -2












                                                              $begingroup$

                                                              It is easier to solve. Let be c=a○b, then c○c=e, (a○b)○(a○b)=e.
                                                              Then multiply the left and right parts of the right by b and a: (a○b)○(a○b)○b=e○b → (a○b)○(a○b○b)=e○b → (a○b)○(a○e)=e○b → (a○b)○a=b → (a○b)○a○a=b○a → (a○b)○e=b○a. the end.






                                                              share|cite|improve this answer









                                                              $endgroup$









                                                              • 1




                                                                $begingroup$
                                                                Your answer is nigh unintelligible. A good place to start might be with the MathJax tutorial. You also declare that your approach is "easier"---it might be worthwhile to explain why it is easier than the other answers (or, at least, to point out the flaws of the other answers).
                                                                $endgroup$
                                                                – Xander Henderson
                                                                Jan 14 at 0:07














                                                              -2












                                                              -2








                                                              -2





                                                              $begingroup$

                                                              It is easier to solve. Let be c=a○b, then c○c=e, (a○b)○(a○b)=e.
                                                              Then multiply the left and right parts of the right by b and a: (a○b)○(a○b)○b=e○b → (a○b)○(a○b○b)=e○b → (a○b)○(a○e)=e○b → (a○b)○a=b → (a○b)○a○a=b○a → (a○b)○e=b○a. the end.






                                                              share|cite|improve this answer









                                                              $endgroup$



                                                              It is easier to solve. Let be c=a○b, then c○c=e, (a○b)○(a○b)=e.
                                                              Then multiply the left and right parts of the right by b and a: (a○b)○(a○b)○b=e○b → (a○b)○(a○b○b)=e○b → (a○b)○(a○e)=e○b → (a○b)○a=b → (a○b)○a○a=b○a → (a○b)○e=b○a. the end.







                                                              share|cite|improve this answer












                                                              share|cite|improve this answer



                                                              share|cite|improve this answer










                                                              answered Jan 13 at 23:49









                                                              Vishnyakov VictorVishnyakov Victor

                                                              1




                                                              1








                                                              • 1




                                                                $begingroup$
                                                                Your answer is nigh unintelligible. A good place to start might be with the MathJax tutorial. You also declare that your approach is "easier"---it might be worthwhile to explain why it is easier than the other answers (or, at least, to point out the flaws of the other answers).
                                                                $endgroup$
                                                                – Xander Henderson
                                                                Jan 14 at 0:07














                                                              • 1




                                                                $begingroup$
                                                                Your answer is nigh unintelligible. A good place to start might be with the MathJax tutorial. You also declare that your approach is "easier"---it might be worthwhile to explain why it is easier than the other answers (or, at least, to point out the flaws of the other answers).
                                                                $endgroup$
                                                                – Xander Henderson
                                                                Jan 14 at 0:07








                                                              1




                                                              1




                                                              $begingroup$
                                                              Your answer is nigh unintelligible. A good place to start might be with the MathJax tutorial. You also declare that your approach is "easier"---it might be worthwhile to explain why it is easier than the other answers (or, at least, to point out the flaws of the other answers).
                                                              $endgroup$
                                                              – Xander Henderson
                                                              Jan 14 at 0:07




                                                              $begingroup$
                                                              Your answer is nigh unintelligible. A good place to start might be with the MathJax tutorial. You also declare that your approach is "easier"---it might be worthwhile to explain why it is easier than the other answers (or, at least, to point out the flaws of the other answers).
                                                              $endgroup$
                                                              – Xander Henderson
                                                              Jan 14 at 0:07


















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