Why is a relation that is $Sigma-$representable not an IFF condition?












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I was reading these notes and the definition of $Sigma-$representability of a relation. It's as followings. $R$ is $Sigma$ representable if $forall a in mathbf N^m$ (where $a_i = S^{a_i} 0$ and $S$ is the successor function):




  1. $R(a) implies Sigma vdash varphi(a)$

  2. $neg R(a) implies Sigma vdash neg varphi(a)$


however for some reason the definition does not apply both ways automatically (which is what I would have expected). It does when $Sigma$ is consistent (for some reason).




  1. $R(a) iff Sigma vdash varphi(a)$

  2. $neg R(a) iff Sigma vdash neg varphi(a)$


Why does that only happen when $Sigma$ is consistent (and thus can be completed easily by Lindenbaum).










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    I was reading these notes and the definition of $Sigma-$representability of a relation. It's as followings. $R$ is $Sigma$ representable if $forall a in mathbf N^m$ (where $a_i = S^{a_i} 0$ and $S$ is the successor function):




    1. $R(a) implies Sigma vdash varphi(a)$

    2. $neg R(a) implies Sigma vdash neg varphi(a)$


    however for some reason the definition does not apply both ways automatically (which is what I would have expected). It does when $Sigma$ is consistent (for some reason).




    1. $R(a) iff Sigma vdash varphi(a)$

    2. $neg R(a) iff Sigma vdash neg varphi(a)$


    Why does that only happen when $Sigma$ is consistent (and thus can be completed easily by Lindenbaum).










    share|cite|improve this question

























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      I was reading these notes and the definition of $Sigma-$representability of a relation. It's as followings. $R$ is $Sigma$ representable if $forall a in mathbf N^m$ (where $a_i = S^{a_i} 0$ and $S$ is the successor function):




      1. $R(a) implies Sigma vdash varphi(a)$

      2. $neg R(a) implies Sigma vdash neg varphi(a)$


      however for some reason the definition does not apply both ways automatically (which is what I would have expected). It does when $Sigma$ is consistent (for some reason).




      1. $R(a) iff Sigma vdash varphi(a)$

      2. $neg R(a) iff Sigma vdash neg varphi(a)$


      Why does that only happen when $Sigma$ is consistent (and thus can be completed easily by Lindenbaum).










      share|cite|improve this question













      I was reading these notes and the definition of $Sigma-$representability of a relation. It's as followings. $R$ is $Sigma$ representable if $forall a in mathbf N^m$ (where $a_i = S^{a_i} 0$ and $S$ is the successor function):




      1. $R(a) implies Sigma vdash varphi(a)$

      2. $neg R(a) implies Sigma vdash neg varphi(a)$


      however for some reason the definition does not apply both ways automatically (which is what I would have expected). It does when $Sigma$ is consistent (for some reason).




      1. $R(a) iff Sigma vdash varphi(a)$

      2. $neg R(a) iff Sigma vdash neg varphi(a)$


      Why does that only happen when $Sigma$ is consistent (and thus can be completed easily by Lindenbaum).







      logic first-order-logic predicate-logic






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      asked Nov 30 '18 at 2:28









      PinocchioPinocchio

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          If $Sigma$ is inconsistent, it proves everything, so $Sigmavdash varphi(mathbf a)$ and $Sigma vdash lnot varphi(mathbf a)$ always hold, whereas at most one of $R(a)$ or $lnot R(a)$ hold, so it is impossible for both $leftarrow$ directions to hold for any $a,$ let alone all of them.






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          • I see I missed that if its not consistent it must be inconsistent...law of excluded middle in the meta logic?
            – Pinocchio
            Nov 30 '18 at 2:43











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          If $Sigma$ is inconsistent, it proves everything, so $Sigmavdash varphi(mathbf a)$ and $Sigma vdash lnot varphi(mathbf a)$ always hold, whereas at most one of $R(a)$ or $lnot R(a)$ hold, so it is impossible for both $leftarrow$ directions to hold for any $a,$ let alone all of them.






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • I see I missed that if its not consistent it must be inconsistent...law of excluded middle in the meta logic?
            – Pinocchio
            Nov 30 '18 at 2:43
















          1














          If $Sigma$ is inconsistent, it proves everything, so $Sigmavdash varphi(mathbf a)$ and $Sigma vdash lnot varphi(mathbf a)$ always hold, whereas at most one of $R(a)$ or $lnot R(a)$ hold, so it is impossible for both $leftarrow$ directions to hold for any $a,$ let alone all of them.






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • I see I missed that if its not consistent it must be inconsistent...law of excluded middle in the meta logic?
            – Pinocchio
            Nov 30 '18 at 2:43














          1












          1








          1






          If $Sigma$ is inconsistent, it proves everything, so $Sigmavdash varphi(mathbf a)$ and $Sigma vdash lnot varphi(mathbf a)$ always hold, whereas at most one of $R(a)$ or $lnot R(a)$ hold, so it is impossible for both $leftarrow$ directions to hold for any $a,$ let alone all of them.






          share|cite|improve this answer














          If $Sigma$ is inconsistent, it proves everything, so $Sigmavdash varphi(mathbf a)$ and $Sigma vdash lnot varphi(mathbf a)$ always hold, whereas at most one of $R(a)$ or $lnot R(a)$ hold, so it is impossible for both $leftarrow$ directions to hold for any $a,$ let alone all of them.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Nov 30 '18 at 2:43

























          answered Nov 30 '18 at 2:42









          spaceisdarkgreenspaceisdarkgreen

          32.5k21753




          32.5k21753












          • I see I missed that if its not consistent it must be inconsistent...law of excluded middle in the meta logic?
            – Pinocchio
            Nov 30 '18 at 2:43


















          • I see I missed that if its not consistent it must be inconsistent...law of excluded middle in the meta logic?
            – Pinocchio
            Nov 30 '18 at 2:43
















          I see I missed that if its not consistent it must be inconsistent...law of excluded middle in the meta logic?
          – Pinocchio
          Nov 30 '18 at 2:43




          I see I missed that if its not consistent it must be inconsistent...law of excluded middle in the meta logic?
          – Pinocchio
          Nov 30 '18 at 2:43


















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