A slight confusion about a particular step in Euclidean Transformations (Computer Vision)












1














On page 392 of Computer vision by Simon Prince (http://web4.cs.ucl.ac.uk/staff/s.prince/book/book.pdf), equation 15.2 has the following expression for the Euclidean transformation in homogeneous coordinates:



$$
lambda
begin{bmatrix}
x\y\1
end{bmatrix} =
begin{bmatrix}
phi_x&gamma&delta_x\
0 &phi_y&delta_y\
0&0&1
end{bmatrix}
begin{bmatrix}
w_{11}&w_{12}&tau_x\
w_{21}&w_{22}&tau_y\
0&0&D
end{bmatrix}
begin{bmatrix} u\v\1end{bmatrix}
$$



In what follows, he switches the position of $1$ and $D$:



$$
lambda
begin{bmatrix}
x\y\1
end{bmatrix} =
begin{bmatrix}
phi_x&gamma&delta_x\
0 &phi_y&delta_y\
0&0&D
end{bmatrix}
begin{bmatrix}
w_{11}&w_{12}&tau_x\
w_{21}&w_{22}&tau_y\
0&0&1
end{bmatrix}
begin{bmatrix} u\v\1end{bmatrix}
$$



with the comment that the last equation is unchanged.



My question is this: the other two equations do seem to change when you make this switch, so firstly, why can we make this switch? Secondly, is there a geometric explanation underlying this switch?



Edit:



Here are the multiplied out matrices:



$$
begin{bmatrix}
phi_x&gamma&delta_x\
0 &phi_y&delta_y\
0&0&1
end{bmatrix}
begin{bmatrix}
w_{11}&w_{12}&tau_x\
w_{21}&w_{22}&tau_y\
0&0&D
end{bmatrix} =
begin{bmatrix}
phi_x w_{11} + gamma w_{21}&phi_x w_{12} + gamma w_{22}&phi_x tau_x + gamma tau_y + Ddelta_x\
phi_y w_{21}& phi_y w_{22}&phi_y tau_y + Ddelta_y\
0&0&D
end{bmatrix}
$$



$$
begin{bmatrix}
phi_x&gamma&delta_x\
0 &phi_y&delta_y\
0&0&D
end{bmatrix}
begin{bmatrix}
w_{11}&w_{12}&tau_x\
w_{21}&w_{22}&tau_y\
0&0&1
end{bmatrix} =
begin{bmatrix}
phi_x w_{11} + gamma w_{21}&phi_x w_{12} + gamma w_{22}&phi_x tau_x + gamma tau_y + delta_x\
phi_y w_{21}& phi_y w_{22}&phi_y tau_y + delta_y\
0&0&D
end{bmatrix}
$$



As can be seen in the last column, the first two equations have changed.



Edit 2:



I have checked with my lecturer and he thinks that there might be an error in the book.










share|cite|improve this question
























  • Multiply it out for yourself!
    – amd
    Nov 30 '18 at 2:42










  • @amd Question has been edited - I am still unable to see why we can switch the positions of the 1 and D given that the first two equations are not equivalent. Is there a particular reason why we don't need to be concerned about the switching of 1 and D?
    – Sean Lee
    Nov 30 '18 at 10:56
















1














On page 392 of Computer vision by Simon Prince (http://web4.cs.ucl.ac.uk/staff/s.prince/book/book.pdf), equation 15.2 has the following expression for the Euclidean transformation in homogeneous coordinates:



$$
lambda
begin{bmatrix}
x\y\1
end{bmatrix} =
begin{bmatrix}
phi_x&gamma&delta_x\
0 &phi_y&delta_y\
0&0&1
end{bmatrix}
begin{bmatrix}
w_{11}&w_{12}&tau_x\
w_{21}&w_{22}&tau_y\
0&0&D
end{bmatrix}
begin{bmatrix} u\v\1end{bmatrix}
$$



In what follows, he switches the position of $1$ and $D$:



$$
lambda
begin{bmatrix}
x\y\1
end{bmatrix} =
begin{bmatrix}
phi_x&gamma&delta_x\
0 &phi_y&delta_y\
0&0&D
end{bmatrix}
begin{bmatrix}
w_{11}&w_{12}&tau_x\
w_{21}&w_{22}&tau_y\
0&0&1
end{bmatrix}
begin{bmatrix} u\v\1end{bmatrix}
$$



with the comment that the last equation is unchanged.



My question is this: the other two equations do seem to change when you make this switch, so firstly, why can we make this switch? Secondly, is there a geometric explanation underlying this switch?



Edit:



Here are the multiplied out matrices:



$$
begin{bmatrix}
phi_x&gamma&delta_x\
0 &phi_y&delta_y\
0&0&1
end{bmatrix}
begin{bmatrix}
w_{11}&w_{12}&tau_x\
w_{21}&w_{22}&tau_y\
0&0&D
end{bmatrix} =
begin{bmatrix}
phi_x w_{11} + gamma w_{21}&phi_x w_{12} + gamma w_{22}&phi_x tau_x + gamma tau_y + Ddelta_x\
phi_y w_{21}& phi_y w_{22}&phi_y tau_y + Ddelta_y\
0&0&D
end{bmatrix}
$$



$$
begin{bmatrix}
phi_x&gamma&delta_x\
0 &phi_y&delta_y\
0&0&D
end{bmatrix}
begin{bmatrix}
w_{11}&w_{12}&tau_x\
w_{21}&w_{22}&tau_y\
0&0&1
end{bmatrix} =
begin{bmatrix}
phi_x w_{11} + gamma w_{21}&phi_x w_{12} + gamma w_{22}&phi_x tau_x + gamma tau_y + delta_x\
phi_y w_{21}& phi_y w_{22}&phi_y tau_y + delta_y\
0&0&D
end{bmatrix}
$$



As can be seen in the last column, the first two equations have changed.



Edit 2:



I have checked with my lecturer and he thinks that there might be an error in the book.










share|cite|improve this question
























  • Multiply it out for yourself!
    – amd
    Nov 30 '18 at 2:42










  • @amd Question has been edited - I am still unable to see why we can switch the positions of the 1 and D given that the first two equations are not equivalent. Is there a particular reason why we don't need to be concerned about the switching of 1 and D?
    – Sean Lee
    Nov 30 '18 at 10:56














1












1








1


1





On page 392 of Computer vision by Simon Prince (http://web4.cs.ucl.ac.uk/staff/s.prince/book/book.pdf), equation 15.2 has the following expression for the Euclidean transformation in homogeneous coordinates:



$$
lambda
begin{bmatrix}
x\y\1
end{bmatrix} =
begin{bmatrix}
phi_x&gamma&delta_x\
0 &phi_y&delta_y\
0&0&1
end{bmatrix}
begin{bmatrix}
w_{11}&w_{12}&tau_x\
w_{21}&w_{22}&tau_y\
0&0&D
end{bmatrix}
begin{bmatrix} u\v\1end{bmatrix}
$$



In what follows, he switches the position of $1$ and $D$:



$$
lambda
begin{bmatrix}
x\y\1
end{bmatrix} =
begin{bmatrix}
phi_x&gamma&delta_x\
0 &phi_y&delta_y\
0&0&D
end{bmatrix}
begin{bmatrix}
w_{11}&w_{12}&tau_x\
w_{21}&w_{22}&tau_y\
0&0&1
end{bmatrix}
begin{bmatrix} u\v\1end{bmatrix}
$$



with the comment that the last equation is unchanged.



My question is this: the other two equations do seem to change when you make this switch, so firstly, why can we make this switch? Secondly, is there a geometric explanation underlying this switch?



Edit:



Here are the multiplied out matrices:



$$
begin{bmatrix}
phi_x&gamma&delta_x\
0 &phi_y&delta_y\
0&0&1
end{bmatrix}
begin{bmatrix}
w_{11}&w_{12}&tau_x\
w_{21}&w_{22}&tau_y\
0&0&D
end{bmatrix} =
begin{bmatrix}
phi_x w_{11} + gamma w_{21}&phi_x w_{12} + gamma w_{22}&phi_x tau_x + gamma tau_y + Ddelta_x\
phi_y w_{21}& phi_y w_{22}&phi_y tau_y + Ddelta_y\
0&0&D
end{bmatrix}
$$



$$
begin{bmatrix}
phi_x&gamma&delta_x\
0 &phi_y&delta_y\
0&0&D
end{bmatrix}
begin{bmatrix}
w_{11}&w_{12}&tau_x\
w_{21}&w_{22}&tau_y\
0&0&1
end{bmatrix} =
begin{bmatrix}
phi_x w_{11} + gamma w_{21}&phi_x w_{12} + gamma w_{22}&phi_x tau_x + gamma tau_y + delta_x\
phi_y w_{21}& phi_y w_{22}&phi_y tau_y + delta_y\
0&0&D
end{bmatrix}
$$



As can be seen in the last column, the first two equations have changed.



Edit 2:



I have checked with my lecturer and he thinks that there might be an error in the book.










share|cite|improve this question















On page 392 of Computer vision by Simon Prince (http://web4.cs.ucl.ac.uk/staff/s.prince/book/book.pdf), equation 15.2 has the following expression for the Euclidean transformation in homogeneous coordinates:



$$
lambda
begin{bmatrix}
x\y\1
end{bmatrix} =
begin{bmatrix}
phi_x&gamma&delta_x\
0 &phi_y&delta_y\
0&0&1
end{bmatrix}
begin{bmatrix}
w_{11}&w_{12}&tau_x\
w_{21}&w_{22}&tau_y\
0&0&D
end{bmatrix}
begin{bmatrix} u\v\1end{bmatrix}
$$



In what follows, he switches the position of $1$ and $D$:



$$
lambda
begin{bmatrix}
x\y\1
end{bmatrix} =
begin{bmatrix}
phi_x&gamma&delta_x\
0 &phi_y&delta_y\
0&0&D
end{bmatrix}
begin{bmatrix}
w_{11}&w_{12}&tau_x\
w_{21}&w_{22}&tau_y\
0&0&1
end{bmatrix}
begin{bmatrix} u\v\1end{bmatrix}
$$



with the comment that the last equation is unchanged.



My question is this: the other two equations do seem to change when you make this switch, so firstly, why can we make this switch? Secondly, is there a geometric explanation underlying this switch?



Edit:



Here are the multiplied out matrices:



$$
begin{bmatrix}
phi_x&gamma&delta_x\
0 &phi_y&delta_y\
0&0&1
end{bmatrix}
begin{bmatrix}
w_{11}&w_{12}&tau_x\
w_{21}&w_{22}&tau_y\
0&0&D
end{bmatrix} =
begin{bmatrix}
phi_x w_{11} + gamma w_{21}&phi_x w_{12} + gamma w_{22}&phi_x tau_x + gamma tau_y + Ddelta_x\
phi_y w_{21}& phi_y w_{22}&phi_y tau_y + Ddelta_y\
0&0&D
end{bmatrix}
$$



$$
begin{bmatrix}
phi_x&gamma&delta_x\
0 &phi_y&delta_y\
0&0&D
end{bmatrix}
begin{bmatrix}
w_{11}&w_{12}&tau_x\
w_{21}&w_{22}&tau_y\
0&0&1
end{bmatrix} =
begin{bmatrix}
phi_x w_{11} + gamma w_{21}&phi_x w_{12} + gamma w_{22}&phi_x tau_x + gamma tau_y + delta_x\
phi_y w_{21}& phi_y w_{22}&phi_y tau_y + delta_y\
0&0&D
end{bmatrix}
$$



As can be seen in the last column, the first two equations have changed.



Edit 2:



I have checked with my lecturer and he thinks that there might be an error in the book.







machine-learning rigid-transformation






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Nov 30 '18 at 23:27







Sean Lee

















asked Nov 30 '18 at 2:23









Sean LeeSean Lee

1578




1578












  • Multiply it out for yourself!
    – amd
    Nov 30 '18 at 2:42










  • @amd Question has been edited - I am still unable to see why we can switch the positions of the 1 and D given that the first two equations are not equivalent. Is there a particular reason why we don't need to be concerned about the switching of 1 and D?
    – Sean Lee
    Nov 30 '18 at 10:56


















  • Multiply it out for yourself!
    – amd
    Nov 30 '18 at 2:42










  • @amd Question has been edited - I am still unable to see why we can switch the positions of the 1 and D given that the first two equations are not equivalent. Is there a particular reason why we don't need to be concerned about the switching of 1 and D?
    – Sean Lee
    Nov 30 '18 at 10:56
















Multiply it out for yourself!
– amd
Nov 30 '18 at 2:42




Multiply it out for yourself!
– amd
Nov 30 '18 at 2:42












@amd Question has been edited - I am still unable to see why we can switch the positions of the 1 and D given that the first two equations are not equivalent. Is there a particular reason why we don't need to be concerned about the switching of 1 and D?
– Sean Lee
Nov 30 '18 at 10:56




@amd Question has been edited - I am still unable to see why we can switch the positions of the 1 and D given that the first two equations are not equivalent. Is there a particular reason why we don't need to be concerned about the switching of 1 and D?
– Sean Lee
Nov 30 '18 at 10:56










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