$lambda$-pure morphisms in $lambda$-accessible categories are monos, unclear proof












0














This is Proposition 2.29 from the book Locally Presentable and Accessible Categories by Jiří Adámek and Jiří Rosický.



enter image description here



Above is a proof that $lambda$-pure morphisms in $lambda$-accessible categories are monos. It is unclear to me why do we create new $h$ instead of taking $bar{v}$ in the line -4 and why such a $h$ exists in the canonical diagram of $B$ by the displayed line -5th?










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  • Can you provide me with a link to an upload site for math.stackexchange? Thank you.
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  • By clicking on the landscape image in the edit mode, you can upload, drag and drop, or copy and paste an image from your computer or from elsewhere on the Internet.
    – Kevin Carlson
    Nov 26 at 20:31










  • I've corrected the above link to point to the page with jpg.
    – user122424
    Nov 26 at 20:39










  • I inserted the image in your question.
    – Kevin Carlson
    Nov 26 at 21:52
















0














This is Proposition 2.29 from the book Locally Presentable and Accessible Categories by Jiří Adámek and Jiří Rosický.



enter image description here



Above is a proof that $lambda$-pure morphisms in $lambda$-accessible categories are monos. It is unclear to me why do we create new $h$ instead of taking $bar{v}$ in the line -4 and why such a $h$ exists in the canonical diagram of $B$ by the displayed line -5th?










share|cite|improve this question




















  • 1




    I get a link to a Czech page containing a link to an .xps file, whatever that is. It's best to embed your images directly in the post.
    – Kevin Carlson
    Nov 26 at 19:44










  • Can you provide me with a link to an upload site for math.stackexchange? Thank you.
    – user122424
    Nov 26 at 20:19










  • By clicking on the landscape image in the edit mode, you can upload, drag and drop, or copy and paste an image from your computer or from elsewhere on the Internet.
    – Kevin Carlson
    Nov 26 at 20:31










  • I've corrected the above link to point to the page with jpg.
    – user122424
    Nov 26 at 20:39










  • I inserted the image in your question.
    – Kevin Carlson
    Nov 26 at 21:52














0












0








0







This is Proposition 2.29 from the book Locally Presentable and Accessible Categories by Jiří Adámek and Jiří Rosický.



enter image description here



Above is a proof that $lambda$-pure morphisms in $lambda$-accessible categories are monos. It is unclear to me why do we create new $h$ instead of taking $bar{v}$ in the line -4 and why such a $h$ exists in the canonical diagram of $B$ by the displayed line -5th?










share|cite|improve this question















This is Proposition 2.29 from the book Locally Presentable and Accessible Categories by Jiří Adámek and Jiří Rosický.



enter image description here



Above is a proof that $lambda$-pure morphisms in $lambda$-accessible categories are monos. It is unclear to me why do we create new $h$ instead of taking $bar{v}$ in the line -4 and why such a $h$ exists in the canonical diagram of $B$ by the displayed line -5th?







category-theory morphism monomorphisms






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edited Dec 18 at 7:20









Asaf Karagila

301k32423755




301k32423755










asked Nov 26 at 18:22









user122424

1,0771616




1,0771616








  • 1




    I get a link to a Czech page containing a link to an .xps file, whatever that is. It's best to embed your images directly in the post.
    – Kevin Carlson
    Nov 26 at 19:44










  • Can you provide me with a link to an upload site for math.stackexchange? Thank you.
    – user122424
    Nov 26 at 20:19










  • By clicking on the landscape image in the edit mode, you can upload, drag and drop, or copy and paste an image from your computer or from elsewhere on the Internet.
    – Kevin Carlson
    Nov 26 at 20:31










  • I've corrected the above link to point to the page with jpg.
    – user122424
    Nov 26 at 20:39










  • I inserted the image in your question.
    – Kevin Carlson
    Nov 26 at 21:52














  • 1




    I get a link to a Czech page containing a link to an .xps file, whatever that is. It's best to embed your images directly in the post.
    – Kevin Carlson
    Nov 26 at 19:44










  • Can you provide me with a link to an upload site for math.stackexchange? Thank you.
    – user122424
    Nov 26 at 20:19










  • By clicking on the landscape image in the edit mode, you can upload, drag and drop, or copy and paste an image from your computer or from elsewhere on the Internet.
    – Kevin Carlson
    Nov 26 at 20:31










  • I've corrected the above link to point to the page with jpg.
    – user122424
    Nov 26 at 20:39










  • I inserted the image in your question.
    – Kevin Carlson
    Nov 26 at 21:52








1




1




I get a link to a Czech page containing a link to an .xps file, whatever that is. It's best to embed your images directly in the post.
– Kevin Carlson
Nov 26 at 19:44




I get a link to a Czech page containing a link to an .xps file, whatever that is. It's best to embed your images directly in the post.
– Kevin Carlson
Nov 26 at 19:44












Can you provide me with a link to an upload site for math.stackexchange? Thank you.
– user122424
Nov 26 at 20:19




Can you provide me with a link to an upload site for math.stackexchange? Thank you.
– user122424
Nov 26 at 20:19












By clicking on the landscape image in the edit mode, you can upload, drag and drop, or copy and paste an image from your computer or from elsewhere on the Internet.
– Kevin Carlson
Nov 26 at 20:31




By clicking on the landscape image in the edit mode, you can upload, drag and drop, or copy and paste an image from your computer or from elsewhere on the Internet.
– Kevin Carlson
Nov 26 at 20:31












I've corrected the above link to point to the page with jpg.
– user122424
Nov 26 at 20:39




I've corrected the above link to point to the page with jpg.
– user122424
Nov 26 at 20:39












I inserted the image in your question.
– Kevin Carlson
Nov 26 at 21:52




I inserted the image in your question.
– Kevin Carlson
Nov 26 at 21:52










1 Answer
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The goal of the first part of the proof is to find a morphism of $lambda$-presentable objects which coequalizes $p'$ and $q'$ to which to apply the assumption of purity on $f$. There is no reason why $bar fp'$ should equal $bar f q'$, so it would be useless to apply purity before constructing $h$. That said, the reason $h$ exists is that the canonical diagram of $B$ is filtered. We have parallel maps $bar f p'$ and $bar f q'$ in that diagram, and so there must exist a map $h$ in the diagram coequalizing them.






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • OK. Why do we need coequalizing $bar f p'$ and $bar f q'$ rather than just precomposing them with $h$ and making them equal by this precomposition?
    – user122424
    Nov 27 at 17:28






  • 1




    The map $hbar{f}$ coequalizes $p'$ and $q'$, i.e. the equation $(hbar{f})p' = (hbar{f})q'$holds.
    – Marc Olschok
    Nov 27 at 19:22










  • Why such an coequalizer exits ? I know, however, that the diagram is filtetred.
    – user122424
    Nov 28 at 14:53










  • @user122424 What definition of filtered do you favor? This follows either instantly or quickly from any of them. To be clear, this isn't a coequalizer in the sense of a colimit, it's just an arbitrary cocone over the diagram given by two parallel arrows.
    – Kevin Carlson
    Nov 28 at 18:06






  • 1




    @user122424 OK, sorry if my wording confused you. It's common to say that a morphism "coequalizes" two other morphisms without meaning that it's actually a coequalizer. But that language doesn't appear in the Adamek-Rosicky proof, and I was just explaining the argument they had already made. Is everything clear now?
    – Kevin Carlson
    Nov 28 at 18:53











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The goal of the first part of the proof is to find a morphism of $lambda$-presentable objects which coequalizes $p'$ and $q'$ to which to apply the assumption of purity on $f$. There is no reason why $bar fp'$ should equal $bar f q'$, so it would be useless to apply purity before constructing $h$. That said, the reason $h$ exists is that the canonical diagram of $B$ is filtered. We have parallel maps $bar f p'$ and $bar f q'$ in that diagram, and so there must exist a map $h$ in the diagram coequalizing them.






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • OK. Why do we need coequalizing $bar f p'$ and $bar f q'$ rather than just precomposing them with $h$ and making them equal by this precomposition?
    – user122424
    Nov 27 at 17:28






  • 1




    The map $hbar{f}$ coequalizes $p'$ and $q'$, i.e. the equation $(hbar{f})p' = (hbar{f})q'$holds.
    – Marc Olschok
    Nov 27 at 19:22










  • Why such an coequalizer exits ? I know, however, that the diagram is filtetred.
    – user122424
    Nov 28 at 14:53










  • @user122424 What definition of filtered do you favor? This follows either instantly or quickly from any of them. To be clear, this isn't a coequalizer in the sense of a colimit, it's just an arbitrary cocone over the diagram given by two parallel arrows.
    – Kevin Carlson
    Nov 28 at 18:06






  • 1




    @user122424 OK, sorry if my wording confused you. It's common to say that a morphism "coequalizes" two other morphisms without meaning that it's actually a coequalizer. But that language doesn't appear in the Adamek-Rosicky proof, and I was just explaining the argument they had already made. Is everything clear now?
    – Kevin Carlson
    Nov 28 at 18:53
















1














The goal of the first part of the proof is to find a morphism of $lambda$-presentable objects which coequalizes $p'$ and $q'$ to which to apply the assumption of purity on $f$. There is no reason why $bar fp'$ should equal $bar f q'$, so it would be useless to apply purity before constructing $h$. That said, the reason $h$ exists is that the canonical diagram of $B$ is filtered. We have parallel maps $bar f p'$ and $bar f q'$ in that diagram, and so there must exist a map $h$ in the diagram coequalizing them.






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • OK. Why do we need coequalizing $bar f p'$ and $bar f q'$ rather than just precomposing them with $h$ and making them equal by this precomposition?
    – user122424
    Nov 27 at 17:28






  • 1




    The map $hbar{f}$ coequalizes $p'$ and $q'$, i.e. the equation $(hbar{f})p' = (hbar{f})q'$holds.
    – Marc Olschok
    Nov 27 at 19:22










  • Why such an coequalizer exits ? I know, however, that the diagram is filtetred.
    – user122424
    Nov 28 at 14:53










  • @user122424 What definition of filtered do you favor? This follows either instantly or quickly from any of them. To be clear, this isn't a coequalizer in the sense of a colimit, it's just an arbitrary cocone over the diagram given by two parallel arrows.
    – Kevin Carlson
    Nov 28 at 18:06






  • 1




    @user122424 OK, sorry if my wording confused you. It's common to say that a morphism "coequalizes" two other morphisms without meaning that it's actually a coequalizer. But that language doesn't appear in the Adamek-Rosicky proof, and I was just explaining the argument they had already made. Is everything clear now?
    – Kevin Carlson
    Nov 28 at 18:53














1












1








1






The goal of the first part of the proof is to find a morphism of $lambda$-presentable objects which coequalizes $p'$ and $q'$ to which to apply the assumption of purity on $f$. There is no reason why $bar fp'$ should equal $bar f q'$, so it would be useless to apply purity before constructing $h$. That said, the reason $h$ exists is that the canonical diagram of $B$ is filtered. We have parallel maps $bar f p'$ and $bar f q'$ in that diagram, and so there must exist a map $h$ in the diagram coequalizing them.






share|cite|improve this answer












The goal of the first part of the proof is to find a morphism of $lambda$-presentable objects which coequalizes $p'$ and $q'$ to which to apply the assumption of purity on $f$. There is no reason why $bar fp'$ should equal $bar f q'$, so it would be useless to apply purity before constructing $h$. That said, the reason $h$ exists is that the canonical diagram of $B$ is filtered. We have parallel maps $bar f p'$ and $bar f q'$ in that diagram, and so there must exist a map $h$ in the diagram coequalizing them.







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Nov 27 at 16:31









Kevin Carlson

32.5k23271




32.5k23271












  • OK. Why do we need coequalizing $bar f p'$ and $bar f q'$ rather than just precomposing them with $h$ and making them equal by this precomposition?
    – user122424
    Nov 27 at 17:28






  • 1




    The map $hbar{f}$ coequalizes $p'$ and $q'$, i.e. the equation $(hbar{f})p' = (hbar{f})q'$holds.
    – Marc Olschok
    Nov 27 at 19:22










  • Why such an coequalizer exits ? I know, however, that the diagram is filtetred.
    – user122424
    Nov 28 at 14:53










  • @user122424 What definition of filtered do you favor? This follows either instantly or quickly from any of them. To be clear, this isn't a coequalizer in the sense of a colimit, it's just an arbitrary cocone over the diagram given by two parallel arrows.
    – Kevin Carlson
    Nov 28 at 18:06






  • 1




    @user122424 OK, sorry if my wording confused you. It's common to say that a morphism "coequalizes" two other morphisms without meaning that it's actually a coequalizer. But that language doesn't appear in the Adamek-Rosicky proof, and I was just explaining the argument they had already made. Is everything clear now?
    – Kevin Carlson
    Nov 28 at 18:53


















  • OK. Why do we need coequalizing $bar f p'$ and $bar f q'$ rather than just precomposing them with $h$ and making them equal by this precomposition?
    – user122424
    Nov 27 at 17:28






  • 1




    The map $hbar{f}$ coequalizes $p'$ and $q'$, i.e. the equation $(hbar{f})p' = (hbar{f})q'$holds.
    – Marc Olschok
    Nov 27 at 19:22










  • Why such an coequalizer exits ? I know, however, that the diagram is filtetred.
    – user122424
    Nov 28 at 14:53










  • @user122424 What definition of filtered do you favor? This follows either instantly or quickly from any of them. To be clear, this isn't a coequalizer in the sense of a colimit, it's just an arbitrary cocone over the diagram given by two parallel arrows.
    – Kevin Carlson
    Nov 28 at 18:06






  • 1




    @user122424 OK, sorry if my wording confused you. It's common to say that a morphism "coequalizes" two other morphisms without meaning that it's actually a coequalizer. But that language doesn't appear in the Adamek-Rosicky proof, and I was just explaining the argument they had already made. Is everything clear now?
    – Kevin Carlson
    Nov 28 at 18:53
















OK. Why do we need coequalizing $bar f p'$ and $bar f q'$ rather than just precomposing them with $h$ and making them equal by this precomposition?
– user122424
Nov 27 at 17:28




OK. Why do we need coequalizing $bar f p'$ and $bar f q'$ rather than just precomposing them with $h$ and making them equal by this precomposition?
– user122424
Nov 27 at 17:28




1




1




The map $hbar{f}$ coequalizes $p'$ and $q'$, i.e. the equation $(hbar{f})p' = (hbar{f})q'$holds.
– Marc Olschok
Nov 27 at 19:22




The map $hbar{f}$ coequalizes $p'$ and $q'$, i.e. the equation $(hbar{f})p' = (hbar{f})q'$holds.
– Marc Olschok
Nov 27 at 19:22












Why such an coequalizer exits ? I know, however, that the diagram is filtetred.
– user122424
Nov 28 at 14:53




Why such an coequalizer exits ? I know, however, that the diagram is filtetred.
– user122424
Nov 28 at 14:53












@user122424 What definition of filtered do you favor? This follows either instantly or quickly from any of them. To be clear, this isn't a coequalizer in the sense of a colimit, it's just an arbitrary cocone over the diagram given by two parallel arrows.
– Kevin Carlson
Nov 28 at 18:06




@user122424 What definition of filtered do you favor? This follows either instantly or quickly from any of them. To be clear, this isn't a coequalizer in the sense of a colimit, it's just an arbitrary cocone over the diagram given by two parallel arrows.
– Kevin Carlson
Nov 28 at 18:06




1




1




@user122424 OK, sorry if my wording confused you. It's common to say that a morphism "coequalizes" two other morphisms without meaning that it's actually a coequalizer. But that language doesn't appear in the Adamek-Rosicky proof, and I was just explaining the argument they had already made. Is everything clear now?
– Kevin Carlson
Nov 28 at 18:53




@user122424 OK, sorry if my wording confused you. It's common to say that a morphism "coequalizes" two other morphisms without meaning that it's actually a coequalizer. But that language doesn't appear in the Adamek-Rosicky proof, and I was just explaining the argument they had already made. Is everything clear now?
– Kevin Carlson
Nov 28 at 18:53


















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