Using the replacement laws to prove that ($a to $b) $vee$ ($a to $c) = $a to ($b $vee$ c)












0














I have been asked to prove that



($a to $b) $vee$ ($a to $c) = $a to ($b $vee$ c).



I believe it is just the simple case of using the distributive law:



$a wedge ($b $vee$ c)= (a $wedge c) vee ($a $wedge$ b).



But I am not sure.










share|cite|improve this question



























    0














    I have been asked to prove that



    ($a to $b) $vee$ ($a to $c) = $a to ($b $vee$ c).



    I believe it is just the simple case of using the distributive law:



    $a wedge ($b $vee$ c)= (a $wedge c) vee ($a $wedge$ b).



    But I am not sure.










    share|cite|improve this question

























      0












      0








      0







      I have been asked to prove that



      ($a to $b) $vee$ ($a to $c) = $a to ($b $vee$ c).



      I believe it is just the simple case of using the distributive law:



      $a wedge ($b $vee$ c)= (a $wedge c) vee ($a $wedge$ b).



      But I am not sure.










      share|cite|improve this question













      I have been asked to prove that



      ($a to $b) $vee$ ($a to $c) = $a to ($b $vee$ c).



      I believe it is just the simple case of using the distributive law:



      $a wedge ($b $vee$ c)= (a $wedge c) vee ($a $wedge$ b).



      But I am not sure.







      boolean-algebra






      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question











      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question










      asked Nov 25 at 20:35









      David MB

      144




      144






















          4 Answers
          4






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          0















          I believe it is just the simple case of using the distributive law:



          $a wedge ($b $vee$ c)= (a $wedge c) vee ($a $wedge$ b).



          But I am not sure.




          You are right to not be sure.



          First of all, there are distribution laws involving the conditional, but you have to be very careful. This is what is the case:



          Distribution Laws for Conditionals



          $a rightarrow (b land c) = (a rightarrow b) land (a rightarrow c)$



          $a rightarrow (b lor c) = (a rightarrow b) lor (a rightarrow c)$



          $(b land c) rightarrow a = (b rightarrow a) lor (c rightarrow a)$



          $(b lor c) rightarrow a = (b rightarrow a) land (c rightarrow a)$



          Note that for the last two, the $land$ and the $lor$ switch! ... So, it is easy to make mistakes with these. Therefore, it is typically safer to rewrite the conditionals as disjunctions.



          That is, go from:



          $(a rightarrow b) lor (a rightarrow c)$



          to:



          $(neg a lor b) lor (neg a lor c)$



          Now, can we do Distribution on this? No, because all the operators are $lor$'s.



          OK, but what you can do, given that all operators are the same, is Association. Using Association, you can either move parentheses around or, if you are allowed to do so, drop parentheses altogether. Assuming we can indeed just drop parentheses, we thus get:



          $neg a lor b lor neg a lor c$



          Now, at this point notice that you have two of the same terms $neg a$. By Idempotnece (which says that $p lor p = p$), you can drop one of them:



          $neg a lor b lor c$



          OK, and now you can rewrite the disjunction back as a conditional:



          $a rightarrow (b lor c)$






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • Brilliantly explained. Much appreciated.
            – David MB
            Nov 26 at 17:05










          • @DavidMB You're welcome! :)
            – Bram28
            Nov 26 at 17:06



















          0














          Left hand side is: $(a rightarrow b) vee (a rightarrow c)=(neg a vee b)vee(neg a vee c)=neg a vee b vee c.$



          also



          Right hand side is :$a rightarrow (b vee c)= neg a vee (b vee c)= neg a vee bvee c$.



          So they are equal.






          share|cite|improve this answer





























            0














            Hint: you want to prove $(neg alor b)lor(neg alor c)$ is equivalent by replacement to $neg alor (blor c)$.






            share|cite|improve this answer





























              0














              Yes, I believe you're correct. By expanding, using the distributive laws and simplifying you can prove this.



              $$
              begin{align}
              &quad (a Rightarrow b) lor (a Rightarrow c) \
              &Leftrightarrow (neg a lor b) lor (neg a lor c) \
              &Leftrightarrow (neg a lor b) lor (neg a lor b lor c) \
              &Leftrightarrow (neg a lor b) lor c \
              &Leftrightarrow neg a lor (blor c) \
              &Leftrightarrow a Rightarrow (blor c)
              end{align}
              $$






              share|cite|improve this answer





















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                4 Answers
                4






                active

                oldest

                votes








                4 Answers
                4






                active

                oldest

                votes









                active

                oldest

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                active

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                0















                I believe it is just the simple case of using the distributive law:



                $a wedge ($b $vee$ c)= (a $wedge c) vee ($a $wedge$ b).



                But I am not sure.




                You are right to not be sure.



                First of all, there are distribution laws involving the conditional, but you have to be very careful. This is what is the case:



                Distribution Laws for Conditionals



                $a rightarrow (b land c) = (a rightarrow b) land (a rightarrow c)$



                $a rightarrow (b lor c) = (a rightarrow b) lor (a rightarrow c)$



                $(b land c) rightarrow a = (b rightarrow a) lor (c rightarrow a)$



                $(b lor c) rightarrow a = (b rightarrow a) land (c rightarrow a)$



                Note that for the last two, the $land$ and the $lor$ switch! ... So, it is easy to make mistakes with these. Therefore, it is typically safer to rewrite the conditionals as disjunctions.



                That is, go from:



                $(a rightarrow b) lor (a rightarrow c)$



                to:



                $(neg a lor b) lor (neg a lor c)$



                Now, can we do Distribution on this? No, because all the operators are $lor$'s.



                OK, but what you can do, given that all operators are the same, is Association. Using Association, you can either move parentheses around or, if you are allowed to do so, drop parentheses altogether. Assuming we can indeed just drop parentheses, we thus get:



                $neg a lor b lor neg a lor c$



                Now, at this point notice that you have two of the same terms $neg a$. By Idempotnece (which says that $p lor p = p$), you can drop one of them:



                $neg a lor b lor c$



                OK, and now you can rewrite the disjunction back as a conditional:



                $a rightarrow (b lor c)$






                share|cite|improve this answer





















                • Brilliantly explained. Much appreciated.
                  – David MB
                  Nov 26 at 17:05










                • @DavidMB You're welcome! :)
                  – Bram28
                  Nov 26 at 17:06
















                0















                I believe it is just the simple case of using the distributive law:



                $a wedge ($b $vee$ c)= (a $wedge c) vee ($a $wedge$ b).



                But I am not sure.




                You are right to not be sure.



                First of all, there are distribution laws involving the conditional, but you have to be very careful. This is what is the case:



                Distribution Laws for Conditionals



                $a rightarrow (b land c) = (a rightarrow b) land (a rightarrow c)$



                $a rightarrow (b lor c) = (a rightarrow b) lor (a rightarrow c)$



                $(b land c) rightarrow a = (b rightarrow a) lor (c rightarrow a)$



                $(b lor c) rightarrow a = (b rightarrow a) land (c rightarrow a)$



                Note that for the last two, the $land$ and the $lor$ switch! ... So, it is easy to make mistakes with these. Therefore, it is typically safer to rewrite the conditionals as disjunctions.



                That is, go from:



                $(a rightarrow b) lor (a rightarrow c)$



                to:



                $(neg a lor b) lor (neg a lor c)$



                Now, can we do Distribution on this? No, because all the operators are $lor$'s.



                OK, but what you can do, given that all operators are the same, is Association. Using Association, you can either move parentheses around or, if you are allowed to do so, drop parentheses altogether. Assuming we can indeed just drop parentheses, we thus get:



                $neg a lor b lor neg a lor c$



                Now, at this point notice that you have two of the same terms $neg a$. By Idempotnece (which says that $p lor p = p$), you can drop one of them:



                $neg a lor b lor c$



                OK, and now you can rewrite the disjunction back as a conditional:



                $a rightarrow (b lor c)$






                share|cite|improve this answer





















                • Brilliantly explained. Much appreciated.
                  – David MB
                  Nov 26 at 17:05










                • @DavidMB You're welcome! :)
                  – Bram28
                  Nov 26 at 17:06














                0












                0








                0







                I believe it is just the simple case of using the distributive law:



                $a wedge ($b $vee$ c)= (a $wedge c) vee ($a $wedge$ b).



                But I am not sure.




                You are right to not be sure.



                First of all, there are distribution laws involving the conditional, but you have to be very careful. This is what is the case:



                Distribution Laws for Conditionals



                $a rightarrow (b land c) = (a rightarrow b) land (a rightarrow c)$



                $a rightarrow (b lor c) = (a rightarrow b) lor (a rightarrow c)$



                $(b land c) rightarrow a = (b rightarrow a) lor (c rightarrow a)$



                $(b lor c) rightarrow a = (b rightarrow a) land (c rightarrow a)$



                Note that for the last two, the $land$ and the $lor$ switch! ... So, it is easy to make mistakes with these. Therefore, it is typically safer to rewrite the conditionals as disjunctions.



                That is, go from:



                $(a rightarrow b) lor (a rightarrow c)$



                to:



                $(neg a lor b) lor (neg a lor c)$



                Now, can we do Distribution on this? No, because all the operators are $lor$'s.



                OK, but what you can do, given that all operators are the same, is Association. Using Association, you can either move parentheses around or, if you are allowed to do so, drop parentheses altogether. Assuming we can indeed just drop parentheses, we thus get:



                $neg a lor b lor neg a lor c$



                Now, at this point notice that you have two of the same terms $neg a$. By Idempotnece (which says that $p lor p = p$), you can drop one of them:



                $neg a lor b lor c$



                OK, and now you can rewrite the disjunction back as a conditional:



                $a rightarrow (b lor c)$






                share|cite|improve this answer













                I believe it is just the simple case of using the distributive law:



                $a wedge ($b $vee$ c)= (a $wedge c) vee ($a $wedge$ b).



                But I am not sure.




                You are right to not be sure.



                First of all, there are distribution laws involving the conditional, but you have to be very careful. This is what is the case:



                Distribution Laws for Conditionals



                $a rightarrow (b land c) = (a rightarrow b) land (a rightarrow c)$



                $a rightarrow (b lor c) = (a rightarrow b) lor (a rightarrow c)$



                $(b land c) rightarrow a = (b rightarrow a) lor (c rightarrow a)$



                $(b lor c) rightarrow a = (b rightarrow a) land (c rightarrow a)$



                Note that for the last two, the $land$ and the $lor$ switch! ... So, it is easy to make mistakes with these. Therefore, it is typically safer to rewrite the conditionals as disjunctions.



                That is, go from:



                $(a rightarrow b) lor (a rightarrow c)$



                to:



                $(neg a lor b) lor (neg a lor c)$



                Now, can we do Distribution on this? No, because all the operators are $lor$'s.



                OK, but what you can do, given that all operators are the same, is Association. Using Association, you can either move parentheses around or, if you are allowed to do so, drop parentheses altogether. Assuming we can indeed just drop parentheses, we thus get:



                $neg a lor b lor neg a lor c$



                Now, at this point notice that you have two of the same terms $neg a$. By Idempotnece (which says that $p lor p = p$), you can drop one of them:



                $neg a lor b lor c$



                OK, and now you can rewrite the disjunction back as a conditional:



                $a rightarrow (b lor c)$







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Nov 26 at 14:21









                Bram28

                59.7k44186




                59.7k44186












                • Brilliantly explained. Much appreciated.
                  – David MB
                  Nov 26 at 17:05










                • @DavidMB You're welcome! :)
                  – Bram28
                  Nov 26 at 17:06


















                • Brilliantly explained. Much appreciated.
                  – David MB
                  Nov 26 at 17:05










                • @DavidMB You're welcome! :)
                  – Bram28
                  Nov 26 at 17:06
















                Brilliantly explained. Much appreciated.
                – David MB
                Nov 26 at 17:05




                Brilliantly explained. Much appreciated.
                – David MB
                Nov 26 at 17:05












                @DavidMB You're welcome! :)
                – Bram28
                Nov 26 at 17:06




                @DavidMB You're welcome! :)
                – Bram28
                Nov 26 at 17:06











                0














                Left hand side is: $(a rightarrow b) vee (a rightarrow c)=(neg a vee b)vee(neg a vee c)=neg a vee b vee c.$



                also



                Right hand side is :$a rightarrow (b vee c)= neg a vee (b vee c)= neg a vee bvee c$.



                So they are equal.






                share|cite|improve this answer


























                  0














                  Left hand side is: $(a rightarrow b) vee (a rightarrow c)=(neg a vee b)vee(neg a vee c)=neg a vee b vee c.$



                  also



                  Right hand side is :$a rightarrow (b vee c)= neg a vee (b vee c)= neg a vee bvee c$.



                  So they are equal.






                  share|cite|improve this answer
























                    0












                    0








                    0






                    Left hand side is: $(a rightarrow b) vee (a rightarrow c)=(neg a vee b)vee(neg a vee c)=neg a vee b vee c.$



                    also



                    Right hand side is :$a rightarrow (b vee c)= neg a vee (b vee c)= neg a vee bvee c$.



                    So they are equal.






                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    Left hand side is: $(a rightarrow b) vee (a rightarrow c)=(neg a vee b)vee(neg a vee c)=neg a vee b vee c.$



                    also



                    Right hand side is :$a rightarrow (b vee c)= neg a vee (b vee c)= neg a vee bvee c$.



                    So they are equal.







                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    share|cite|improve this answer



                    share|cite|improve this answer










                    answered Nov 25 at 20:41









                    mathnoob

                    1,761422




                    1,761422























                        0














                        Hint: you want to prove $(neg alor b)lor(neg alor c)$ is equivalent by replacement to $neg alor (blor c)$.






                        share|cite|improve this answer


























                          0














                          Hint: you want to prove $(neg alor b)lor(neg alor c)$ is equivalent by replacement to $neg alor (blor c)$.






                          share|cite|improve this answer
























                            0












                            0








                            0






                            Hint: you want to prove $(neg alor b)lor(neg alor c)$ is equivalent by replacement to $neg alor (blor c)$.






                            share|cite|improve this answer












                            Hint: you want to prove $(neg alor b)lor(neg alor c)$ is equivalent by replacement to $neg alor (blor c)$.







                            share|cite|improve this answer












                            share|cite|improve this answer



                            share|cite|improve this answer










                            answered Nov 25 at 20:42









                            J.G.

                            22.1k22034




                            22.1k22034























                                0














                                Yes, I believe you're correct. By expanding, using the distributive laws and simplifying you can prove this.



                                $$
                                begin{align}
                                &quad (a Rightarrow b) lor (a Rightarrow c) \
                                &Leftrightarrow (neg a lor b) lor (neg a lor c) \
                                &Leftrightarrow (neg a lor b) lor (neg a lor b lor c) \
                                &Leftrightarrow (neg a lor b) lor c \
                                &Leftrightarrow neg a lor (blor c) \
                                &Leftrightarrow a Rightarrow (blor c)
                                end{align}
                                $$






                                share|cite|improve this answer


























                                  0














                                  Yes, I believe you're correct. By expanding, using the distributive laws and simplifying you can prove this.



                                  $$
                                  begin{align}
                                  &quad (a Rightarrow b) lor (a Rightarrow c) \
                                  &Leftrightarrow (neg a lor b) lor (neg a lor c) \
                                  &Leftrightarrow (neg a lor b) lor (neg a lor b lor c) \
                                  &Leftrightarrow (neg a lor b) lor c \
                                  &Leftrightarrow neg a lor (blor c) \
                                  &Leftrightarrow a Rightarrow (blor c)
                                  end{align}
                                  $$






                                  share|cite|improve this answer
























                                    0












                                    0








                                    0






                                    Yes, I believe you're correct. By expanding, using the distributive laws and simplifying you can prove this.



                                    $$
                                    begin{align}
                                    &quad (a Rightarrow b) lor (a Rightarrow c) \
                                    &Leftrightarrow (neg a lor b) lor (neg a lor c) \
                                    &Leftrightarrow (neg a lor b) lor (neg a lor b lor c) \
                                    &Leftrightarrow (neg a lor b) lor c \
                                    &Leftrightarrow neg a lor (blor c) \
                                    &Leftrightarrow a Rightarrow (blor c)
                                    end{align}
                                    $$






                                    share|cite|improve this answer












                                    Yes, I believe you're correct. By expanding, using the distributive laws and simplifying you can prove this.



                                    $$
                                    begin{align}
                                    &quad (a Rightarrow b) lor (a Rightarrow c) \
                                    &Leftrightarrow (neg a lor b) lor (neg a lor c) \
                                    &Leftrightarrow (neg a lor b) lor (neg a lor b lor c) \
                                    &Leftrightarrow (neg a lor b) lor c \
                                    &Leftrightarrow neg a lor (blor c) \
                                    &Leftrightarrow a Rightarrow (blor c)
                                    end{align}
                                    $$







                                    share|cite|improve this answer












                                    share|cite|improve this answer



                                    share|cite|improve this answer










                                    answered Nov 25 at 20:42









                                    Thomas Lang

                                    1624




                                    1624






























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