Proving $(overline{A})'=A'$ if $(X,tau)$ for $T_1$.











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Let $(X,tau)$ be a topological space and $Asubseteq X$



Show $(overline{A})'=A'$ if $(X,tau)$ for $T_1$.




A $T_1$space is a topological space any $x,yin X$ then there exists an open set $U$ such that $Ucap {x,y}={y}$.



So if $(X,tau)$ is $T_1$, I can find $Uintau$ so that $ain A$ and $ain U$ so there are two options:
1) $Usubset A$ and $Ucap Aneqemptyset$ then $a$ is a limit point. Since $a$ is arbitrary all the points in A are limit points.



2)If $Ucap Ext {A}neqemptyset$ and $Ucap Aneq emptyset$ then there exists $xin U$ so that $xnotin A$ and therefore $x$ is a limit point of $A$.



If only 1) is true then $overline{A}=Aimplies(overline{A})'=A'$



If 2) is true then $Asubset overline{A}$ so that $overline{A}=A'cup A$ so that $Ucap overline{A}=Ucap(Acup A')=(Ucap A)cup (U cap A)=U cap A $ so that $(overline{A})'=A'$



Question:



Is my proof right? If not. Could someone provide me an alternative proof?



Thanks in advance!










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  • Your proof makes absolutely no sense to me. I provided my own below.
    – Henno Brandsma
    Nov 14 at 22:49















up vote
0
down vote

favorite













Let $(X,tau)$ be a topological space and $Asubseteq X$



Show $(overline{A})'=A'$ if $(X,tau)$ for $T_1$.




A $T_1$space is a topological space any $x,yin X$ then there exists an open set $U$ such that $Ucap {x,y}={y}$.



So if $(X,tau)$ is $T_1$, I can find $Uintau$ so that $ain A$ and $ain U$ so there are two options:
1) $Usubset A$ and $Ucap Aneqemptyset$ then $a$ is a limit point. Since $a$ is arbitrary all the points in A are limit points.



2)If $Ucap Ext {A}neqemptyset$ and $Ucap Aneq emptyset$ then there exists $xin U$ so that $xnotin A$ and therefore $x$ is a limit point of $A$.



If only 1) is true then $overline{A}=Aimplies(overline{A})'=A'$



If 2) is true then $Asubset overline{A}$ so that $overline{A}=A'cup A$ so that $Ucap overline{A}=Ucap(Acup A')=(Ucap A)cup (U cap A)=U cap A $ so that $(overline{A})'=A'$



Question:



Is my proof right? If not. Could someone provide me an alternative proof?



Thanks in advance!










share|cite|improve this question






















  • Your proof makes absolutely no sense to me. I provided my own below.
    – Henno Brandsma
    Nov 14 at 22:49













up vote
0
down vote

favorite









up vote
0
down vote

favorite












Let $(X,tau)$ be a topological space and $Asubseteq X$



Show $(overline{A})'=A'$ if $(X,tau)$ for $T_1$.




A $T_1$space is a topological space any $x,yin X$ then there exists an open set $U$ such that $Ucap {x,y}={y}$.



So if $(X,tau)$ is $T_1$, I can find $Uintau$ so that $ain A$ and $ain U$ so there are two options:
1) $Usubset A$ and $Ucap Aneqemptyset$ then $a$ is a limit point. Since $a$ is arbitrary all the points in A are limit points.



2)If $Ucap Ext {A}neqemptyset$ and $Ucap Aneq emptyset$ then there exists $xin U$ so that $xnotin A$ and therefore $x$ is a limit point of $A$.



If only 1) is true then $overline{A}=Aimplies(overline{A})'=A'$



If 2) is true then $Asubset overline{A}$ so that $overline{A}=A'cup A$ so that $Ucap overline{A}=Ucap(Acup A')=(Ucap A)cup (U cap A)=U cap A $ so that $(overline{A})'=A'$



Question:



Is my proof right? If not. Could someone provide me an alternative proof?



Thanks in advance!










share|cite|improve this question














Let $(X,tau)$ be a topological space and $Asubseteq X$



Show $(overline{A})'=A'$ if $(X,tau)$ for $T_1$.




A $T_1$space is a topological space any $x,yin X$ then there exists an open set $U$ such that $Ucap {x,y}={y}$.



So if $(X,tau)$ is $T_1$, I can find $Uintau$ so that $ain A$ and $ain U$ so there are two options:
1) $Usubset A$ and $Ucap Aneqemptyset$ then $a$ is a limit point. Since $a$ is arbitrary all the points in A are limit points.



2)If $Ucap Ext {A}neqemptyset$ and $Ucap Aneq emptyset$ then there exists $xin U$ so that $xnotin A$ and therefore $x$ is a limit point of $A$.



If only 1) is true then $overline{A}=Aimplies(overline{A})'=A'$



If 2) is true then $Asubset overline{A}$ so that $overline{A}=A'cup A$ so that $Ucap overline{A}=Ucap(Acup A')=(Ucap A)cup (U cap A)=U cap A $ so that $(overline{A})'=A'$



Question:



Is my proof right? If not. Could someone provide me an alternative proof?



Thanks in advance!







general-topology proof-verification metric-spaces proof-writing






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asked Nov 14 at 22:40









Pedro Gomes

1,5692620




1,5692620












  • Your proof makes absolutely no sense to me. I provided my own below.
    – Henno Brandsma
    Nov 14 at 22:49


















  • Your proof makes absolutely no sense to me. I provided my own below.
    – Henno Brandsma
    Nov 14 at 22:49
















Your proof makes absolutely no sense to me. I provided my own below.
– Henno Brandsma
Nov 14 at 22:49




Your proof makes absolutely no sense to me. I provided my own below.
– Henno Brandsma
Nov 14 at 22:49










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
1
down vote



accepted










Note that it is sufficient to show $A'' subseteq A'$:



$overline{A'} = A' cup A'' subseteq A'$ in that case, and the reverse inclusion is trivial.



I'll use the $T_1$-ness in that $x in A'$ iff every open neighbourhood of $x$ contains infinitely many points of $A$. This fact holds in $T_1$ spaces, as is well-known.



If $x in A''$ then let $O$ be any open neighbourhood of $x$.
Then $O$ contains a point $y in A'$ and then $O$ must thus contain infinitely many points of $A$ (as $O$ is an open neighbourhood of $y$ too and $y in A'$), and so $x in A'$ as required.






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • I do not know if I am thinking wrongly but $(overline{A})'$ is the set of limit points of $overline{A}$ and not the set of limit points of $A'$.
    – Pedro Gomes
    Nov 14 at 22:55










  • @PedroGomes It's the closure of the set of limit points. It rightly states that the set of limit points is a closed set in a $T_1$ space.
    – Henno Brandsma
    Nov 14 at 22:57






  • 1




    @PedroGomes $(overline{A})' = (A cup A')' = A' cup A'' = overline{A'}$ so it comes to the same set.
    – Henno Brandsma
    Nov 14 at 22:58













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up vote
1
down vote



accepted










Note that it is sufficient to show $A'' subseteq A'$:



$overline{A'} = A' cup A'' subseteq A'$ in that case, and the reverse inclusion is trivial.



I'll use the $T_1$-ness in that $x in A'$ iff every open neighbourhood of $x$ contains infinitely many points of $A$. This fact holds in $T_1$ spaces, as is well-known.



If $x in A''$ then let $O$ be any open neighbourhood of $x$.
Then $O$ contains a point $y in A'$ and then $O$ must thus contain infinitely many points of $A$ (as $O$ is an open neighbourhood of $y$ too and $y in A'$), and so $x in A'$ as required.






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • I do not know if I am thinking wrongly but $(overline{A})'$ is the set of limit points of $overline{A}$ and not the set of limit points of $A'$.
    – Pedro Gomes
    Nov 14 at 22:55










  • @PedroGomes It's the closure of the set of limit points. It rightly states that the set of limit points is a closed set in a $T_1$ space.
    – Henno Brandsma
    Nov 14 at 22:57






  • 1




    @PedroGomes $(overline{A})' = (A cup A')' = A' cup A'' = overline{A'}$ so it comes to the same set.
    – Henno Brandsma
    Nov 14 at 22:58

















up vote
1
down vote



accepted










Note that it is sufficient to show $A'' subseteq A'$:



$overline{A'} = A' cup A'' subseteq A'$ in that case, and the reverse inclusion is trivial.



I'll use the $T_1$-ness in that $x in A'$ iff every open neighbourhood of $x$ contains infinitely many points of $A$. This fact holds in $T_1$ spaces, as is well-known.



If $x in A''$ then let $O$ be any open neighbourhood of $x$.
Then $O$ contains a point $y in A'$ and then $O$ must thus contain infinitely many points of $A$ (as $O$ is an open neighbourhood of $y$ too and $y in A'$), and so $x in A'$ as required.






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • I do not know if I am thinking wrongly but $(overline{A})'$ is the set of limit points of $overline{A}$ and not the set of limit points of $A'$.
    – Pedro Gomes
    Nov 14 at 22:55










  • @PedroGomes It's the closure of the set of limit points. It rightly states that the set of limit points is a closed set in a $T_1$ space.
    – Henno Brandsma
    Nov 14 at 22:57






  • 1




    @PedroGomes $(overline{A})' = (A cup A')' = A' cup A'' = overline{A'}$ so it comes to the same set.
    – Henno Brandsma
    Nov 14 at 22:58















up vote
1
down vote



accepted







up vote
1
down vote



accepted






Note that it is sufficient to show $A'' subseteq A'$:



$overline{A'} = A' cup A'' subseteq A'$ in that case, and the reverse inclusion is trivial.



I'll use the $T_1$-ness in that $x in A'$ iff every open neighbourhood of $x$ contains infinitely many points of $A$. This fact holds in $T_1$ spaces, as is well-known.



If $x in A''$ then let $O$ be any open neighbourhood of $x$.
Then $O$ contains a point $y in A'$ and then $O$ must thus contain infinitely many points of $A$ (as $O$ is an open neighbourhood of $y$ too and $y in A'$), and so $x in A'$ as required.






share|cite|improve this answer












Note that it is sufficient to show $A'' subseteq A'$:



$overline{A'} = A' cup A'' subseteq A'$ in that case, and the reverse inclusion is trivial.



I'll use the $T_1$-ness in that $x in A'$ iff every open neighbourhood of $x$ contains infinitely many points of $A$. This fact holds in $T_1$ spaces, as is well-known.



If $x in A''$ then let $O$ be any open neighbourhood of $x$.
Then $O$ contains a point $y in A'$ and then $O$ must thus contain infinitely many points of $A$ (as $O$ is an open neighbourhood of $y$ too and $y in A'$), and so $x in A'$ as required.







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Nov 14 at 22:48









Henno Brandsma

101k344107




101k344107












  • I do not know if I am thinking wrongly but $(overline{A})'$ is the set of limit points of $overline{A}$ and not the set of limit points of $A'$.
    – Pedro Gomes
    Nov 14 at 22:55










  • @PedroGomes It's the closure of the set of limit points. It rightly states that the set of limit points is a closed set in a $T_1$ space.
    – Henno Brandsma
    Nov 14 at 22:57






  • 1




    @PedroGomes $(overline{A})' = (A cup A')' = A' cup A'' = overline{A'}$ so it comes to the same set.
    – Henno Brandsma
    Nov 14 at 22:58




















  • I do not know if I am thinking wrongly but $(overline{A})'$ is the set of limit points of $overline{A}$ and not the set of limit points of $A'$.
    – Pedro Gomes
    Nov 14 at 22:55










  • @PedroGomes It's the closure of the set of limit points. It rightly states that the set of limit points is a closed set in a $T_1$ space.
    – Henno Brandsma
    Nov 14 at 22:57






  • 1




    @PedroGomes $(overline{A})' = (A cup A')' = A' cup A'' = overline{A'}$ so it comes to the same set.
    – Henno Brandsma
    Nov 14 at 22:58


















I do not know if I am thinking wrongly but $(overline{A})'$ is the set of limit points of $overline{A}$ and not the set of limit points of $A'$.
– Pedro Gomes
Nov 14 at 22:55




I do not know if I am thinking wrongly but $(overline{A})'$ is the set of limit points of $overline{A}$ and not the set of limit points of $A'$.
– Pedro Gomes
Nov 14 at 22:55












@PedroGomes It's the closure of the set of limit points. It rightly states that the set of limit points is a closed set in a $T_1$ space.
– Henno Brandsma
Nov 14 at 22:57




@PedroGomes It's the closure of the set of limit points. It rightly states that the set of limit points is a closed set in a $T_1$ space.
– Henno Brandsma
Nov 14 at 22:57




1




1




@PedroGomes $(overline{A})' = (A cup A')' = A' cup A'' = overline{A'}$ so it comes to the same set.
– Henno Brandsma
Nov 14 at 22:58






@PedroGomes $(overline{A})' = (A cup A')' = A' cup A'' = overline{A'}$ so it comes to the same set.
– Henno Brandsma
Nov 14 at 22:58




















 

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