Proving $(overline{A})'=A'$ if $(X,tau)$ for $T_1$.
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Let $(X,tau)$ be a topological space and $Asubseteq X$
Show $(overline{A})'=A'$ if $(X,tau)$ for $T_1$.
A $T_1$space is a topological space any $x,yin X$ then there exists an open set $U$ such that $Ucap {x,y}={y}$.
So if $(X,tau)$ is $T_1$, I can find $Uintau$ so that $ain A$ and $ain U$ so there are two options:
1) $Usubset A$ and $Ucap Aneqemptyset$ then $a$ is a limit point. Since $a$ is arbitrary all the points in A are limit points.
2)If $Ucap Ext {A}neqemptyset$ and $Ucap Aneq emptyset$ then there exists $xin U$ so that $xnotin A$ and therefore $x$ is a limit point of $A$.
If only 1) is true then $overline{A}=Aimplies(overline{A})'=A'$
If 2) is true then $Asubset overline{A}$ so that $overline{A}=A'cup A$ so that $Ucap overline{A}=Ucap(Acup A')=(Ucap A)cup (U cap A)=U cap A $ so that $(overline{A})'=A'$
Question:
Is my proof right? If not. Could someone provide me an alternative proof?
Thanks in advance!
general-topology proof-verification metric-spaces proof-writing
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
Let $(X,tau)$ be a topological space and $Asubseteq X$
Show $(overline{A})'=A'$ if $(X,tau)$ for $T_1$.
A $T_1$space is a topological space any $x,yin X$ then there exists an open set $U$ such that $Ucap {x,y}={y}$.
So if $(X,tau)$ is $T_1$, I can find $Uintau$ so that $ain A$ and $ain U$ so there are two options:
1) $Usubset A$ and $Ucap Aneqemptyset$ then $a$ is a limit point. Since $a$ is arbitrary all the points in A are limit points.
2)If $Ucap Ext {A}neqemptyset$ and $Ucap Aneq emptyset$ then there exists $xin U$ so that $xnotin A$ and therefore $x$ is a limit point of $A$.
If only 1) is true then $overline{A}=Aimplies(overline{A})'=A'$
If 2) is true then $Asubset overline{A}$ so that $overline{A}=A'cup A$ so that $Ucap overline{A}=Ucap(Acup A')=(Ucap A)cup (U cap A)=U cap A $ so that $(overline{A})'=A'$
Question:
Is my proof right? If not. Could someone provide me an alternative proof?
Thanks in advance!
general-topology proof-verification metric-spaces proof-writing
Your proof makes absolutely no sense to me. I provided my own below.
– Henno Brandsma
Nov 14 at 22:49
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
Let $(X,tau)$ be a topological space and $Asubseteq X$
Show $(overline{A})'=A'$ if $(X,tau)$ for $T_1$.
A $T_1$space is a topological space any $x,yin X$ then there exists an open set $U$ such that $Ucap {x,y}={y}$.
So if $(X,tau)$ is $T_1$, I can find $Uintau$ so that $ain A$ and $ain U$ so there are two options:
1) $Usubset A$ and $Ucap Aneqemptyset$ then $a$ is a limit point. Since $a$ is arbitrary all the points in A are limit points.
2)If $Ucap Ext {A}neqemptyset$ and $Ucap Aneq emptyset$ then there exists $xin U$ so that $xnotin A$ and therefore $x$ is a limit point of $A$.
If only 1) is true then $overline{A}=Aimplies(overline{A})'=A'$
If 2) is true then $Asubset overline{A}$ so that $overline{A}=A'cup A$ so that $Ucap overline{A}=Ucap(Acup A')=(Ucap A)cup (U cap A)=U cap A $ so that $(overline{A})'=A'$
Question:
Is my proof right? If not. Could someone provide me an alternative proof?
Thanks in advance!
general-topology proof-verification metric-spaces proof-writing
Let $(X,tau)$ be a topological space and $Asubseteq X$
Show $(overline{A})'=A'$ if $(X,tau)$ for $T_1$.
A $T_1$space is a topological space any $x,yin X$ then there exists an open set $U$ such that $Ucap {x,y}={y}$.
So if $(X,tau)$ is $T_1$, I can find $Uintau$ so that $ain A$ and $ain U$ so there are two options:
1) $Usubset A$ and $Ucap Aneqemptyset$ then $a$ is a limit point. Since $a$ is arbitrary all the points in A are limit points.
2)If $Ucap Ext {A}neqemptyset$ and $Ucap Aneq emptyset$ then there exists $xin U$ so that $xnotin A$ and therefore $x$ is a limit point of $A$.
If only 1) is true then $overline{A}=Aimplies(overline{A})'=A'$
If 2) is true then $Asubset overline{A}$ so that $overline{A}=A'cup A$ so that $Ucap overline{A}=Ucap(Acup A')=(Ucap A)cup (U cap A)=U cap A $ so that $(overline{A})'=A'$
Question:
Is my proof right? If not. Could someone provide me an alternative proof?
Thanks in advance!
general-topology proof-verification metric-spaces proof-writing
general-topology proof-verification metric-spaces proof-writing
asked Nov 14 at 22:40
Pedro Gomes
1,5692620
1,5692620
Your proof makes absolutely no sense to me. I provided my own below.
– Henno Brandsma
Nov 14 at 22:49
add a comment |
Your proof makes absolutely no sense to me. I provided my own below.
– Henno Brandsma
Nov 14 at 22:49
Your proof makes absolutely no sense to me. I provided my own below.
– Henno Brandsma
Nov 14 at 22:49
Your proof makes absolutely no sense to me. I provided my own below.
– Henno Brandsma
Nov 14 at 22:49
add a comment |
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
Note that it is sufficient to show $A'' subseteq A'$:
$overline{A'} = A' cup A'' subseteq A'$ in that case, and the reverse inclusion is trivial.
I'll use the $T_1$-ness in that $x in A'$ iff every open neighbourhood of $x$ contains infinitely many points of $A$. This fact holds in $T_1$ spaces, as is well-known.
If $x in A''$ then let $O$ be any open neighbourhood of $x$.
Then $O$ contains a point $y in A'$ and then $O$ must thus contain infinitely many points of $A$ (as $O$ is an open neighbourhood of $y$ too and $y in A'$), and so $x in A'$ as required.
I do not know if I am thinking wrongly but $(overline{A})'$ is the set of limit points of $overline{A}$ and not the set of limit points of $A'$.
– Pedro Gomes
Nov 14 at 22:55
@PedroGomes It's the closure of the set of limit points. It rightly states that the set of limit points is a closed set in a $T_1$ space.
– Henno Brandsma
Nov 14 at 22:57
1
@PedroGomes $(overline{A})' = (A cup A')' = A' cup A'' = overline{A'}$ so it comes to the same set.
– Henno Brandsma
Nov 14 at 22:58
add a comment |
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
Note that it is sufficient to show $A'' subseteq A'$:
$overline{A'} = A' cup A'' subseteq A'$ in that case, and the reverse inclusion is trivial.
I'll use the $T_1$-ness in that $x in A'$ iff every open neighbourhood of $x$ contains infinitely many points of $A$. This fact holds in $T_1$ spaces, as is well-known.
If $x in A''$ then let $O$ be any open neighbourhood of $x$.
Then $O$ contains a point $y in A'$ and then $O$ must thus contain infinitely many points of $A$ (as $O$ is an open neighbourhood of $y$ too and $y in A'$), and so $x in A'$ as required.
I do not know if I am thinking wrongly but $(overline{A})'$ is the set of limit points of $overline{A}$ and not the set of limit points of $A'$.
– Pedro Gomes
Nov 14 at 22:55
@PedroGomes It's the closure of the set of limit points. It rightly states that the set of limit points is a closed set in a $T_1$ space.
– Henno Brandsma
Nov 14 at 22:57
1
@PedroGomes $(overline{A})' = (A cup A')' = A' cup A'' = overline{A'}$ so it comes to the same set.
– Henno Brandsma
Nov 14 at 22:58
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
Note that it is sufficient to show $A'' subseteq A'$:
$overline{A'} = A' cup A'' subseteq A'$ in that case, and the reverse inclusion is trivial.
I'll use the $T_1$-ness in that $x in A'$ iff every open neighbourhood of $x$ contains infinitely many points of $A$. This fact holds in $T_1$ spaces, as is well-known.
If $x in A''$ then let $O$ be any open neighbourhood of $x$.
Then $O$ contains a point $y in A'$ and then $O$ must thus contain infinitely many points of $A$ (as $O$ is an open neighbourhood of $y$ too and $y in A'$), and so $x in A'$ as required.
I do not know if I am thinking wrongly but $(overline{A})'$ is the set of limit points of $overline{A}$ and not the set of limit points of $A'$.
– Pedro Gomes
Nov 14 at 22:55
@PedroGomes It's the closure of the set of limit points. It rightly states that the set of limit points is a closed set in a $T_1$ space.
– Henno Brandsma
Nov 14 at 22:57
1
@PedroGomes $(overline{A})' = (A cup A')' = A' cup A'' = overline{A'}$ so it comes to the same set.
– Henno Brandsma
Nov 14 at 22:58
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
Note that it is sufficient to show $A'' subseteq A'$:
$overline{A'} = A' cup A'' subseteq A'$ in that case, and the reverse inclusion is trivial.
I'll use the $T_1$-ness in that $x in A'$ iff every open neighbourhood of $x$ contains infinitely many points of $A$. This fact holds in $T_1$ spaces, as is well-known.
If $x in A''$ then let $O$ be any open neighbourhood of $x$.
Then $O$ contains a point $y in A'$ and then $O$ must thus contain infinitely many points of $A$ (as $O$ is an open neighbourhood of $y$ too and $y in A'$), and so $x in A'$ as required.
Note that it is sufficient to show $A'' subseteq A'$:
$overline{A'} = A' cup A'' subseteq A'$ in that case, and the reverse inclusion is trivial.
I'll use the $T_1$-ness in that $x in A'$ iff every open neighbourhood of $x$ contains infinitely many points of $A$. This fact holds in $T_1$ spaces, as is well-known.
If $x in A''$ then let $O$ be any open neighbourhood of $x$.
Then $O$ contains a point $y in A'$ and then $O$ must thus contain infinitely many points of $A$ (as $O$ is an open neighbourhood of $y$ too and $y in A'$), and so $x in A'$ as required.
answered Nov 14 at 22:48
Henno Brandsma
101k344107
101k344107
I do not know if I am thinking wrongly but $(overline{A})'$ is the set of limit points of $overline{A}$ and not the set of limit points of $A'$.
– Pedro Gomes
Nov 14 at 22:55
@PedroGomes It's the closure of the set of limit points. It rightly states that the set of limit points is a closed set in a $T_1$ space.
– Henno Brandsma
Nov 14 at 22:57
1
@PedroGomes $(overline{A})' = (A cup A')' = A' cup A'' = overline{A'}$ so it comes to the same set.
– Henno Brandsma
Nov 14 at 22:58
add a comment |
I do not know if I am thinking wrongly but $(overline{A})'$ is the set of limit points of $overline{A}$ and not the set of limit points of $A'$.
– Pedro Gomes
Nov 14 at 22:55
@PedroGomes It's the closure of the set of limit points. It rightly states that the set of limit points is a closed set in a $T_1$ space.
– Henno Brandsma
Nov 14 at 22:57
1
@PedroGomes $(overline{A})' = (A cup A')' = A' cup A'' = overline{A'}$ so it comes to the same set.
– Henno Brandsma
Nov 14 at 22:58
I do not know if I am thinking wrongly but $(overline{A})'$ is the set of limit points of $overline{A}$ and not the set of limit points of $A'$.
– Pedro Gomes
Nov 14 at 22:55
I do not know if I am thinking wrongly but $(overline{A})'$ is the set of limit points of $overline{A}$ and not the set of limit points of $A'$.
– Pedro Gomes
Nov 14 at 22:55
@PedroGomes It's the closure of the set of limit points. It rightly states that the set of limit points is a closed set in a $T_1$ space.
– Henno Brandsma
Nov 14 at 22:57
@PedroGomes It's the closure of the set of limit points. It rightly states that the set of limit points is a closed set in a $T_1$ space.
– Henno Brandsma
Nov 14 at 22:57
1
1
@PedroGomes $(overline{A})' = (A cup A')' = A' cup A'' = overline{A'}$ so it comes to the same set.
– Henno Brandsma
Nov 14 at 22:58
@PedroGomes $(overline{A})' = (A cup A')' = A' cup A'' = overline{A'}$ so it comes to the same set.
– Henno Brandsma
Nov 14 at 22:58
add a comment |
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Your proof makes absolutely no sense to me. I provided my own below.
– Henno Brandsma
Nov 14 at 22:49