Computing cohomology of dihedral group in detail











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So I tried to compute the cohomology of $D_{2n}$, for n odd , $H^{k}(D_{2n}, Bbb Z)$. using Lyndon SS. I have obtained a few obstacles:





My computation, using the fact that there is a $C_2$ action $H^q(C_m, Bbb Z)$, shows that my $E_2^{pq}$ page looks like this:



$$ Bbb Z/m quad 0 quad 0 quad 0 quad 0 quad 0 quad cdots $$
$$ cdots 0 cdots $$ $$ cdots 0 cdots $$ $$ cdots 0 cdots $$
$$ Bbb Z/m quad 0 quad 0 quad 0 quad 0 quad 0 quad cdots $$
$$ cdots 0 cdots $$
$$ cdots 0 cdots $$
$$ cdots 0 cdots $$
$$ Bbb Z quad 0 quad Bbb Z/2 quad 0 quad Bbb Z/2 quad 0 quad cdots $$



Is this correct?





I suspect the correct $E_2$ page is more or less similar. But I am still unclear how this gives $H^k(D_{2n},Bbb Z)$.



a) How is this $E_2$ page related to $H^k(D_{2n},Bbb Z)$? I only know the case when page 2 collapses to an axis.



b) I suppose one has to show all differential are $0$ to compute $E_infty^{p,q}$. In my case this is simple, since all are $0$.



c) Even if we know the $E_infty$ page does this give $H_n$ - surely we cannot just take direct sum? **





** Supposing my calucations were correct - then we can go to c) directly: What we have here is the relation when $n equiv 0 pmod 4$
$$ 0 rightarrow C_2 rightarrow H^n rightarrow C_m rightarrow 0 $$










share|cite|improve this question




























    up vote
    4
    down vote

    favorite












    So I tried to compute the cohomology of $D_{2n}$, for n odd , $H^{k}(D_{2n}, Bbb Z)$. using Lyndon SS. I have obtained a few obstacles:





    My computation, using the fact that there is a $C_2$ action $H^q(C_m, Bbb Z)$, shows that my $E_2^{pq}$ page looks like this:



    $$ Bbb Z/m quad 0 quad 0 quad 0 quad 0 quad 0 quad cdots $$
    $$ cdots 0 cdots $$ $$ cdots 0 cdots $$ $$ cdots 0 cdots $$
    $$ Bbb Z/m quad 0 quad 0 quad 0 quad 0 quad 0 quad cdots $$
    $$ cdots 0 cdots $$
    $$ cdots 0 cdots $$
    $$ cdots 0 cdots $$
    $$ Bbb Z quad 0 quad Bbb Z/2 quad 0 quad Bbb Z/2 quad 0 quad cdots $$



    Is this correct?





    I suspect the correct $E_2$ page is more or less similar. But I am still unclear how this gives $H^k(D_{2n},Bbb Z)$.



    a) How is this $E_2$ page related to $H^k(D_{2n},Bbb Z)$? I only know the case when page 2 collapses to an axis.



    b) I suppose one has to show all differential are $0$ to compute $E_infty^{p,q}$. In my case this is simple, since all are $0$.



    c) Even if we know the $E_infty$ page does this give $H_n$ - surely we cannot just take direct sum? **





    ** Supposing my calucations were correct - then we can go to c) directly: What we have here is the relation when $n equiv 0 pmod 4$
    $$ 0 rightarrow C_2 rightarrow H^n rightarrow C_m rightarrow 0 $$










    share|cite|improve this question


























      up vote
      4
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      4
      down vote

      favorite











      So I tried to compute the cohomology of $D_{2n}$, for n odd , $H^{k}(D_{2n}, Bbb Z)$. using Lyndon SS. I have obtained a few obstacles:





      My computation, using the fact that there is a $C_2$ action $H^q(C_m, Bbb Z)$, shows that my $E_2^{pq}$ page looks like this:



      $$ Bbb Z/m quad 0 quad 0 quad 0 quad 0 quad 0 quad cdots $$
      $$ cdots 0 cdots $$ $$ cdots 0 cdots $$ $$ cdots 0 cdots $$
      $$ Bbb Z/m quad 0 quad 0 quad 0 quad 0 quad 0 quad cdots $$
      $$ cdots 0 cdots $$
      $$ cdots 0 cdots $$
      $$ cdots 0 cdots $$
      $$ Bbb Z quad 0 quad Bbb Z/2 quad 0 quad Bbb Z/2 quad 0 quad cdots $$



      Is this correct?





      I suspect the correct $E_2$ page is more or less similar. But I am still unclear how this gives $H^k(D_{2n},Bbb Z)$.



      a) How is this $E_2$ page related to $H^k(D_{2n},Bbb Z)$? I only know the case when page 2 collapses to an axis.



      b) I suppose one has to show all differential are $0$ to compute $E_infty^{p,q}$. In my case this is simple, since all are $0$.



      c) Even if we know the $E_infty$ page does this give $H_n$ - surely we cannot just take direct sum? **





      ** Supposing my calucations were correct - then we can go to c) directly: What we have here is the relation when $n equiv 0 pmod 4$
      $$ 0 rightarrow C_2 rightarrow H^n rightarrow C_m rightarrow 0 $$










      share|cite|improve this question















      So I tried to compute the cohomology of $D_{2n}$, for n odd , $H^{k}(D_{2n}, Bbb Z)$. using Lyndon SS. I have obtained a few obstacles:





      My computation, using the fact that there is a $C_2$ action $H^q(C_m, Bbb Z)$, shows that my $E_2^{pq}$ page looks like this:



      $$ Bbb Z/m quad 0 quad 0 quad 0 quad 0 quad 0 quad cdots $$
      $$ cdots 0 cdots $$ $$ cdots 0 cdots $$ $$ cdots 0 cdots $$
      $$ Bbb Z/m quad 0 quad 0 quad 0 quad 0 quad 0 quad cdots $$
      $$ cdots 0 cdots $$
      $$ cdots 0 cdots $$
      $$ cdots 0 cdots $$
      $$ Bbb Z quad 0 quad Bbb Z/2 quad 0 quad Bbb Z/2 quad 0 quad cdots $$



      Is this correct?





      I suspect the correct $E_2$ page is more or less similar. But I am still unclear how this gives $H^k(D_{2n},Bbb Z)$.



      a) How is this $E_2$ page related to $H^k(D_{2n},Bbb Z)$? I only know the case when page 2 collapses to an axis.



      b) I suppose one has to show all differential are $0$ to compute $E_infty^{p,q}$. In my case this is simple, since all are $0$.



      c) Even if we know the $E_infty$ page does this give $H_n$ - surely we cannot just take direct sum? **





      ** Supposing my calucations were correct - then we can go to c) directly: What we have here is the relation when $n equiv 0 pmod 4$
      $$ 0 rightarrow C_2 rightarrow H^n rightarrow C_m rightarrow 0 $$







      homology-cohomology homological-algebra group-cohomology






      share|cite|improve this question















      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Nov 15 at 8:45

























      asked Nov 15 at 0:02









      CL.

      2,0352822




      2,0352822






















          1 Answer
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          accepted










          Your $E_2$ page is correct.



          To continue, observe that everything nonzero in your $E_2$ page lies in some even bidegree $(2p,2q)$, and that the grading of the differential $d^i$ on the $E_i$ page is of bidegree $(1-i, i)$, and in particular, changes the parity of at least one of the degrees; in particular, $d^i$ must be identically zero for all $i$. So $E_2 = E_infty$. This is always true for spectral sequences whose elements are concentrated in bidegrees $(p,q)$ with $p+q$ even.



          Next, let us recall what it means that this spectral sequence converges: the calculational part of that means that the homology groups $H^k(D_{2n}, Bbb Z)$ have a filtration $0 = F^0 supset cdots supset F^i supset F^{i+1} supset cdots$ and the associated graded $$text{gr}^p H^{p+q}(D_{2n}, Bbb Z) = E^{p,q}_infty.$$



          For us, on the lines with $p + q = 4n+2$, we see that there is only one nontrivial subquotient $F^p/F^{p+1}$, and in particular, $H^{4n+2} = E_infty^{4n+2,0}$.



          On the lines with $p + q = 4n >0$, we have two terms. There is $E_infty^{4n,0} = F^0/F^1 H^{4n}$; because there is nothing until $q = 4n$, we see that $F^1 = F^2 = cdots = F^{4n}$, but that $F^{4n+1} = 0$, and thus $F^{4n} = E_infty^{0,4n}.$



          In particular, we have a short exact sequence $0 to E_infty^{0,4n} to H^{4n} to E_infty^{4n,0} to 0$. Resolving this is the simplest case of what is usually called "solving an extension problem". If there are more than two nonzero terms on the $p+q = n$ line, then one has to resolve these iteratively, starting from $E_infty^{0,4n}$ and walking down the line.



          In this particular case, $E_infty^{4n,0} = Bbb Z/2$, and $E_infty^{0,4n} = Bbb Z/m$ where $m$ is odd. Extensions of abelian groups where the subgroup and quotient are of coprime order always split, and so in particular $H^{4n} = Bbb Z/2 oplus Bbb Z/m cong Bbb Z/2m$ in this case.



          If you are also interested in the multiplicative structure, one can write this ring as $Bbb Z[c_1, c_2]/(2c_1, c_1^2 = mc_2)$, following the strategy of this answer for $S_3 = D_6$; there is no essential difference between that case and $D_{4n+2}$ in general. Here $|c_1| = 2$ and $|c_2| = 4$.






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • Thanks a lot. Just curious, is there a reason why your notation went from $E_infty $ to $E^infty$?
            – CL.
            Nov 16 at 7:38












          • @CL. I normally think about homology spectral sequences and so I am more used to writing $E^infty$. So I reverted by mistake halfway through. I will edit.
            – Mike Miller
            Nov 16 at 16:25











          Your Answer





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          up vote
          3
          down vote



          accepted










          Your $E_2$ page is correct.



          To continue, observe that everything nonzero in your $E_2$ page lies in some even bidegree $(2p,2q)$, and that the grading of the differential $d^i$ on the $E_i$ page is of bidegree $(1-i, i)$, and in particular, changes the parity of at least one of the degrees; in particular, $d^i$ must be identically zero for all $i$. So $E_2 = E_infty$. This is always true for spectral sequences whose elements are concentrated in bidegrees $(p,q)$ with $p+q$ even.



          Next, let us recall what it means that this spectral sequence converges: the calculational part of that means that the homology groups $H^k(D_{2n}, Bbb Z)$ have a filtration $0 = F^0 supset cdots supset F^i supset F^{i+1} supset cdots$ and the associated graded $$text{gr}^p H^{p+q}(D_{2n}, Bbb Z) = E^{p,q}_infty.$$



          For us, on the lines with $p + q = 4n+2$, we see that there is only one nontrivial subquotient $F^p/F^{p+1}$, and in particular, $H^{4n+2} = E_infty^{4n+2,0}$.



          On the lines with $p + q = 4n >0$, we have two terms. There is $E_infty^{4n,0} = F^0/F^1 H^{4n}$; because there is nothing until $q = 4n$, we see that $F^1 = F^2 = cdots = F^{4n}$, but that $F^{4n+1} = 0$, and thus $F^{4n} = E_infty^{0,4n}.$



          In particular, we have a short exact sequence $0 to E_infty^{0,4n} to H^{4n} to E_infty^{4n,0} to 0$. Resolving this is the simplest case of what is usually called "solving an extension problem". If there are more than two nonzero terms on the $p+q = n$ line, then one has to resolve these iteratively, starting from $E_infty^{0,4n}$ and walking down the line.



          In this particular case, $E_infty^{4n,0} = Bbb Z/2$, and $E_infty^{0,4n} = Bbb Z/m$ where $m$ is odd. Extensions of abelian groups where the subgroup and quotient are of coprime order always split, and so in particular $H^{4n} = Bbb Z/2 oplus Bbb Z/m cong Bbb Z/2m$ in this case.



          If you are also interested in the multiplicative structure, one can write this ring as $Bbb Z[c_1, c_2]/(2c_1, c_1^2 = mc_2)$, following the strategy of this answer for $S_3 = D_6$; there is no essential difference between that case and $D_{4n+2}$ in general. Here $|c_1| = 2$ and $|c_2| = 4$.






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • Thanks a lot. Just curious, is there a reason why your notation went from $E_infty $ to $E^infty$?
            – CL.
            Nov 16 at 7:38












          • @CL. I normally think about homology spectral sequences and so I am more used to writing $E^infty$. So I reverted by mistake halfway through. I will edit.
            – Mike Miller
            Nov 16 at 16:25















          up vote
          3
          down vote



          accepted










          Your $E_2$ page is correct.



          To continue, observe that everything nonzero in your $E_2$ page lies in some even bidegree $(2p,2q)$, and that the grading of the differential $d^i$ on the $E_i$ page is of bidegree $(1-i, i)$, and in particular, changes the parity of at least one of the degrees; in particular, $d^i$ must be identically zero for all $i$. So $E_2 = E_infty$. This is always true for spectral sequences whose elements are concentrated in bidegrees $(p,q)$ with $p+q$ even.



          Next, let us recall what it means that this spectral sequence converges: the calculational part of that means that the homology groups $H^k(D_{2n}, Bbb Z)$ have a filtration $0 = F^0 supset cdots supset F^i supset F^{i+1} supset cdots$ and the associated graded $$text{gr}^p H^{p+q}(D_{2n}, Bbb Z) = E^{p,q}_infty.$$



          For us, on the lines with $p + q = 4n+2$, we see that there is only one nontrivial subquotient $F^p/F^{p+1}$, and in particular, $H^{4n+2} = E_infty^{4n+2,0}$.



          On the lines with $p + q = 4n >0$, we have two terms. There is $E_infty^{4n,0} = F^0/F^1 H^{4n}$; because there is nothing until $q = 4n$, we see that $F^1 = F^2 = cdots = F^{4n}$, but that $F^{4n+1} = 0$, and thus $F^{4n} = E_infty^{0,4n}.$



          In particular, we have a short exact sequence $0 to E_infty^{0,4n} to H^{4n} to E_infty^{4n,0} to 0$. Resolving this is the simplest case of what is usually called "solving an extension problem". If there are more than two nonzero terms on the $p+q = n$ line, then one has to resolve these iteratively, starting from $E_infty^{0,4n}$ and walking down the line.



          In this particular case, $E_infty^{4n,0} = Bbb Z/2$, and $E_infty^{0,4n} = Bbb Z/m$ where $m$ is odd. Extensions of abelian groups where the subgroup and quotient are of coprime order always split, and so in particular $H^{4n} = Bbb Z/2 oplus Bbb Z/m cong Bbb Z/2m$ in this case.



          If you are also interested in the multiplicative structure, one can write this ring as $Bbb Z[c_1, c_2]/(2c_1, c_1^2 = mc_2)$, following the strategy of this answer for $S_3 = D_6$; there is no essential difference between that case and $D_{4n+2}$ in general. Here $|c_1| = 2$ and $|c_2| = 4$.






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • Thanks a lot. Just curious, is there a reason why your notation went from $E_infty $ to $E^infty$?
            – CL.
            Nov 16 at 7:38












          • @CL. I normally think about homology spectral sequences and so I am more used to writing $E^infty$. So I reverted by mistake halfway through. I will edit.
            – Mike Miller
            Nov 16 at 16:25













          up vote
          3
          down vote



          accepted







          up vote
          3
          down vote



          accepted






          Your $E_2$ page is correct.



          To continue, observe that everything nonzero in your $E_2$ page lies in some even bidegree $(2p,2q)$, and that the grading of the differential $d^i$ on the $E_i$ page is of bidegree $(1-i, i)$, and in particular, changes the parity of at least one of the degrees; in particular, $d^i$ must be identically zero for all $i$. So $E_2 = E_infty$. This is always true for spectral sequences whose elements are concentrated in bidegrees $(p,q)$ with $p+q$ even.



          Next, let us recall what it means that this spectral sequence converges: the calculational part of that means that the homology groups $H^k(D_{2n}, Bbb Z)$ have a filtration $0 = F^0 supset cdots supset F^i supset F^{i+1} supset cdots$ and the associated graded $$text{gr}^p H^{p+q}(D_{2n}, Bbb Z) = E^{p,q}_infty.$$



          For us, on the lines with $p + q = 4n+2$, we see that there is only one nontrivial subquotient $F^p/F^{p+1}$, and in particular, $H^{4n+2} = E_infty^{4n+2,0}$.



          On the lines with $p + q = 4n >0$, we have two terms. There is $E_infty^{4n,0} = F^0/F^1 H^{4n}$; because there is nothing until $q = 4n$, we see that $F^1 = F^2 = cdots = F^{4n}$, but that $F^{4n+1} = 0$, and thus $F^{4n} = E_infty^{0,4n}.$



          In particular, we have a short exact sequence $0 to E_infty^{0,4n} to H^{4n} to E_infty^{4n,0} to 0$. Resolving this is the simplest case of what is usually called "solving an extension problem". If there are more than two nonzero terms on the $p+q = n$ line, then one has to resolve these iteratively, starting from $E_infty^{0,4n}$ and walking down the line.



          In this particular case, $E_infty^{4n,0} = Bbb Z/2$, and $E_infty^{0,4n} = Bbb Z/m$ where $m$ is odd. Extensions of abelian groups where the subgroup and quotient are of coprime order always split, and so in particular $H^{4n} = Bbb Z/2 oplus Bbb Z/m cong Bbb Z/2m$ in this case.



          If you are also interested in the multiplicative structure, one can write this ring as $Bbb Z[c_1, c_2]/(2c_1, c_1^2 = mc_2)$, following the strategy of this answer for $S_3 = D_6$; there is no essential difference between that case and $D_{4n+2}$ in general. Here $|c_1| = 2$ and $|c_2| = 4$.






          share|cite|improve this answer














          Your $E_2$ page is correct.



          To continue, observe that everything nonzero in your $E_2$ page lies in some even bidegree $(2p,2q)$, and that the grading of the differential $d^i$ on the $E_i$ page is of bidegree $(1-i, i)$, and in particular, changes the parity of at least one of the degrees; in particular, $d^i$ must be identically zero for all $i$. So $E_2 = E_infty$. This is always true for spectral sequences whose elements are concentrated in bidegrees $(p,q)$ with $p+q$ even.



          Next, let us recall what it means that this spectral sequence converges: the calculational part of that means that the homology groups $H^k(D_{2n}, Bbb Z)$ have a filtration $0 = F^0 supset cdots supset F^i supset F^{i+1} supset cdots$ and the associated graded $$text{gr}^p H^{p+q}(D_{2n}, Bbb Z) = E^{p,q}_infty.$$



          For us, on the lines with $p + q = 4n+2$, we see that there is only one nontrivial subquotient $F^p/F^{p+1}$, and in particular, $H^{4n+2} = E_infty^{4n+2,0}$.



          On the lines with $p + q = 4n >0$, we have two terms. There is $E_infty^{4n,0} = F^0/F^1 H^{4n}$; because there is nothing until $q = 4n$, we see that $F^1 = F^2 = cdots = F^{4n}$, but that $F^{4n+1} = 0$, and thus $F^{4n} = E_infty^{0,4n}.$



          In particular, we have a short exact sequence $0 to E_infty^{0,4n} to H^{4n} to E_infty^{4n,0} to 0$. Resolving this is the simplest case of what is usually called "solving an extension problem". If there are more than two nonzero terms on the $p+q = n$ line, then one has to resolve these iteratively, starting from $E_infty^{0,4n}$ and walking down the line.



          In this particular case, $E_infty^{4n,0} = Bbb Z/2$, and $E_infty^{0,4n} = Bbb Z/m$ where $m$ is odd. Extensions of abelian groups where the subgroup and quotient are of coprime order always split, and so in particular $H^{4n} = Bbb Z/2 oplus Bbb Z/m cong Bbb Z/2m$ in this case.



          If you are also interested in the multiplicative structure, one can write this ring as $Bbb Z[c_1, c_2]/(2c_1, c_1^2 = mc_2)$, following the strategy of this answer for $S_3 = D_6$; there is no essential difference between that case and $D_{4n+2}$ in general. Here $|c_1| = 2$ and $|c_2| = 4$.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Nov 16 at 16:27

























          answered Nov 15 at 9:47









          Mike Miller

          35.2k467132




          35.2k467132












          • Thanks a lot. Just curious, is there a reason why your notation went from $E_infty $ to $E^infty$?
            – CL.
            Nov 16 at 7:38












          • @CL. I normally think about homology spectral sequences and so I am more used to writing $E^infty$. So I reverted by mistake halfway through. I will edit.
            – Mike Miller
            Nov 16 at 16:25


















          • Thanks a lot. Just curious, is there a reason why your notation went from $E_infty $ to $E^infty$?
            – CL.
            Nov 16 at 7:38












          • @CL. I normally think about homology spectral sequences and so I am more used to writing $E^infty$. So I reverted by mistake halfway through. I will edit.
            – Mike Miller
            Nov 16 at 16:25
















          Thanks a lot. Just curious, is there a reason why your notation went from $E_infty $ to $E^infty$?
          – CL.
          Nov 16 at 7:38






          Thanks a lot. Just curious, is there a reason why your notation went from $E_infty $ to $E^infty$?
          – CL.
          Nov 16 at 7:38














          @CL. I normally think about homology spectral sequences and so I am more used to writing $E^infty$. So I reverted by mistake halfway through. I will edit.
          – Mike Miller
          Nov 16 at 16:25




          @CL. I normally think about homology spectral sequences and so I am more used to writing $E^infty$. So I reverted by mistake halfway through. I will edit.
          – Mike Miller
          Nov 16 at 16:25


















           

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