proof (Legendre polynomial )











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Show that :
$$frac{1}{2} ln left |frac{1+x}{1-x} right |=sum_{n text { odd}} frac{(2n+1)}{n(n+1)}mathcal {P_n(x)}$$










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  • Hi hiery. Please type out your question, and your attempts using MathJax.
    – Chickenmancer
    Nov 14 at 23:48










  • Do you mean $P_n(x)$?
    – marty cohen
    Nov 14 at 23:58















up vote
0
down vote

favorite












I'm stuck, couldn't figure it out. I appreciate your help.



Show that :
$$frac{1}{2} ln left |frac{1+x}{1-x} right |=sum_{n text { odd}} frac{(2n+1)}{n(n+1)}mathcal {P_n(x)}$$










share|cite|improve this question
























  • Hi hiery. Please type out your question, and your attempts using MathJax.
    – Chickenmancer
    Nov 14 at 23:48










  • Do you mean $P_n(x)$?
    – marty cohen
    Nov 14 at 23:58













up vote
0
down vote

favorite









up vote
0
down vote

favorite











I'm stuck, couldn't figure it out. I appreciate your help.



Show that :
$$frac{1}{2} ln left |frac{1+x}{1-x} right |=sum_{n text { odd}} frac{(2n+1)}{n(n+1)}mathcal {P_n(x)}$$










share|cite|improve this question















I'm stuck, couldn't figure it out. I appreciate your help.



Show that :
$$frac{1}{2} ln left |frac{1+x}{1-x} right |=sum_{n text { odd}} frac{(2n+1)}{n(n+1)}mathcal {P_n(x)}$$







sequences-and-series differential-equations legendre-polynomials






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edited Nov 15 at 0:04









Isham

12.7k3929




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asked Nov 14 at 23:45









hiery

183




183












  • Hi hiery. Please type out your question, and your attempts using MathJax.
    – Chickenmancer
    Nov 14 at 23:48










  • Do you mean $P_n(x)$?
    – marty cohen
    Nov 14 at 23:58


















  • Hi hiery. Please type out your question, and your attempts using MathJax.
    – Chickenmancer
    Nov 14 at 23:48










  • Do you mean $P_n(x)$?
    – marty cohen
    Nov 14 at 23:58
















Hi hiery. Please type out your question, and your attempts using MathJax.
– Chickenmancer
Nov 14 at 23:48




Hi hiery. Please type out your question, and your attempts using MathJax.
– Chickenmancer
Nov 14 at 23:48












Do you mean $P_n(x)$?
– marty cohen
Nov 14 at 23:58




Do you mean $P_n(x)$?
– marty cohen
Nov 14 at 23:58










1 Answer
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The $n$-th order Legendre polynomial $P_n$ is even if $n$ is even and odd if $n$ is odd, and these satisfy $LP_n = n(n+1)P_n$, where
$$
Lf = -frac{d}{dx}left((1-x^2)frac{df}{dx}right).
$$

The function $Q_0 = frac{1}{2}lnleft|frac{1+x}{1-x}right|$ is the second classical solution of $Lf=0$, but it does not qualify as an eigenfunction in the classical sense because classical solutions must be bounded near $x=pm 1$. The normalized $P_n$ form an orthonormal basis of $L^2(-1,1)$, which allows the expansion
$$
Q_0(x) = sum_{n=0}^{infty}langle Q_0,P_nrangle P_n.
$$

The Lagrange identity gives
begin{align}
&n(n+1)langle Q_0,P_nrangle \
& =langle Q_0,LP_nrangle \
& = langle Q_0,LP_nrangle-langle LQ_0,P_nrangle \
& = int_{-1}^{1}left(frac{d}{dx}(1-x^2)frac{dQ_0}{dx}right)P_n
-frac{d}{dx}left((1-x^2)frac{dP_n}{dx}right)Q_0dx \
& = int_{-1}^{1}frac{d}{dx}left((1-x^2)left{frac{dQ_0}{dx}P_n-Q_0frac{dP_n}{dx}right}right)dx \
& = (1-x^2)(Q_0' P_n-Q_0P_n')|_{-1}^{1} \
& = (1-x^2)Q_0' P_n|_{-1}^{1}.
end{align}

And
$$
Q_0' = frac{1}{2}left[frac{1}{1+x}+frac{1}{1-x}right]=frac{1}{1-x^2}.
$$

Therefore,
$$
n(n+1)langle Q_0,P_nrangle = P_n|_{-1}^{1}.
$$

Therefore,
$$
Q_0(x) = sum_{n=0}^{infty}frac{P_n(1)-P_n(-1)}{n(n+1)}P_n(x) \
= sum_{n mbox{ odd}}frac{2P_n(1)}{n(n+1)}P_n(x).
$$






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    1 Answer
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    up vote
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    accepted










    The $n$-th order Legendre polynomial $P_n$ is even if $n$ is even and odd if $n$ is odd, and these satisfy $LP_n = n(n+1)P_n$, where
    $$
    Lf = -frac{d}{dx}left((1-x^2)frac{df}{dx}right).
    $$

    The function $Q_0 = frac{1}{2}lnleft|frac{1+x}{1-x}right|$ is the second classical solution of $Lf=0$, but it does not qualify as an eigenfunction in the classical sense because classical solutions must be bounded near $x=pm 1$. The normalized $P_n$ form an orthonormal basis of $L^2(-1,1)$, which allows the expansion
    $$
    Q_0(x) = sum_{n=0}^{infty}langle Q_0,P_nrangle P_n.
    $$

    The Lagrange identity gives
    begin{align}
    &n(n+1)langle Q_0,P_nrangle \
    & =langle Q_0,LP_nrangle \
    & = langle Q_0,LP_nrangle-langle LQ_0,P_nrangle \
    & = int_{-1}^{1}left(frac{d}{dx}(1-x^2)frac{dQ_0}{dx}right)P_n
    -frac{d}{dx}left((1-x^2)frac{dP_n}{dx}right)Q_0dx \
    & = int_{-1}^{1}frac{d}{dx}left((1-x^2)left{frac{dQ_0}{dx}P_n-Q_0frac{dP_n}{dx}right}right)dx \
    & = (1-x^2)(Q_0' P_n-Q_0P_n')|_{-1}^{1} \
    & = (1-x^2)Q_0' P_n|_{-1}^{1}.
    end{align}

    And
    $$
    Q_0' = frac{1}{2}left[frac{1}{1+x}+frac{1}{1-x}right]=frac{1}{1-x^2}.
    $$

    Therefore,
    $$
    n(n+1)langle Q_0,P_nrangle = P_n|_{-1}^{1}.
    $$

    Therefore,
    $$
    Q_0(x) = sum_{n=0}^{infty}frac{P_n(1)-P_n(-1)}{n(n+1)}P_n(x) \
    = sum_{n mbox{ odd}}frac{2P_n(1)}{n(n+1)}P_n(x).
    $$






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      up vote
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      accepted










      The $n$-th order Legendre polynomial $P_n$ is even if $n$ is even and odd if $n$ is odd, and these satisfy $LP_n = n(n+1)P_n$, where
      $$
      Lf = -frac{d}{dx}left((1-x^2)frac{df}{dx}right).
      $$

      The function $Q_0 = frac{1}{2}lnleft|frac{1+x}{1-x}right|$ is the second classical solution of $Lf=0$, but it does not qualify as an eigenfunction in the classical sense because classical solutions must be bounded near $x=pm 1$. The normalized $P_n$ form an orthonormal basis of $L^2(-1,1)$, which allows the expansion
      $$
      Q_0(x) = sum_{n=0}^{infty}langle Q_0,P_nrangle P_n.
      $$

      The Lagrange identity gives
      begin{align}
      &n(n+1)langle Q_0,P_nrangle \
      & =langle Q_0,LP_nrangle \
      & = langle Q_0,LP_nrangle-langle LQ_0,P_nrangle \
      & = int_{-1}^{1}left(frac{d}{dx}(1-x^2)frac{dQ_0}{dx}right)P_n
      -frac{d}{dx}left((1-x^2)frac{dP_n}{dx}right)Q_0dx \
      & = int_{-1}^{1}frac{d}{dx}left((1-x^2)left{frac{dQ_0}{dx}P_n-Q_0frac{dP_n}{dx}right}right)dx \
      & = (1-x^2)(Q_0' P_n-Q_0P_n')|_{-1}^{1} \
      & = (1-x^2)Q_0' P_n|_{-1}^{1}.
      end{align}

      And
      $$
      Q_0' = frac{1}{2}left[frac{1}{1+x}+frac{1}{1-x}right]=frac{1}{1-x^2}.
      $$

      Therefore,
      $$
      n(n+1)langle Q_0,P_nrangle = P_n|_{-1}^{1}.
      $$

      Therefore,
      $$
      Q_0(x) = sum_{n=0}^{infty}frac{P_n(1)-P_n(-1)}{n(n+1)}P_n(x) \
      = sum_{n mbox{ odd}}frac{2P_n(1)}{n(n+1)}P_n(x).
      $$






      share|cite|improve this answer

























        up vote
        3
        down vote



        accepted







        up vote
        3
        down vote



        accepted






        The $n$-th order Legendre polynomial $P_n$ is even if $n$ is even and odd if $n$ is odd, and these satisfy $LP_n = n(n+1)P_n$, where
        $$
        Lf = -frac{d}{dx}left((1-x^2)frac{df}{dx}right).
        $$

        The function $Q_0 = frac{1}{2}lnleft|frac{1+x}{1-x}right|$ is the second classical solution of $Lf=0$, but it does not qualify as an eigenfunction in the classical sense because classical solutions must be bounded near $x=pm 1$. The normalized $P_n$ form an orthonormal basis of $L^2(-1,1)$, which allows the expansion
        $$
        Q_0(x) = sum_{n=0}^{infty}langle Q_0,P_nrangle P_n.
        $$

        The Lagrange identity gives
        begin{align}
        &n(n+1)langle Q_0,P_nrangle \
        & =langle Q_0,LP_nrangle \
        & = langle Q_0,LP_nrangle-langle LQ_0,P_nrangle \
        & = int_{-1}^{1}left(frac{d}{dx}(1-x^2)frac{dQ_0}{dx}right)P_n
        -frac{d}{dx}left((1-x^2)frac{dP_n}{dx}right)Q_0dx \
        & = int_{-1}^{1}frac{d}{dx}left((1-x^2)left{frac{dQ_0}{dx}P_n-Q_0frac{dP_n}{dx}right}right)dx \
        & = (1-x^2)(Q_0' P_n-Q_0P_n')|_{-1}^{1} \
        & = (1-x^2)Q_0' P_n|_{-1}^{1}.
        end{align}

        And
        $$
        Q_0' = frac{1}{2}left[frac{1}{1+x}+frac{1}{1-x}right]=frac{1}{1-x^2}.
        $$

        Therefore,
        $$
        n(n+1)langle Q_0,P_nrangle = P_n|_{-1}^{1}.
        $$

        Therefore,
        $$
        Q_0(x) = sum_{n=0}^{infty}frac{P_n(1)-P_n(-1)}{n(n+1)}P_n(x) \
        = sum_{n mbox{ odd}}frac{2P_n(1)}{n(n+1)}P_n(x).
        $$






        share|cite|improve this answer














        The $n$-th order Legendre polynomial $P_n$ is even if $n$ is even and odd if $n$ is odd, and these satisfy $LP_n = n(n+1)P_n$, where
        $$
        Lf = -frac{d}{dx}left((1-x^2)frac{df}{dx}right).
        $$

        The function $Q_0 = frac{1}{2}lnleft|frac{1+x}{1-x}right|$ is the second classical solution of $Lf=0$, but it does not qualify as an eigenfunction in the classical sense because classical solutions must be bounded near $x=pm 1$. The normalized $P_n$ form an orthonormal basis of $L^2(-1,1)$, which allows the expansion
        $$
        Q_0(x) = sum_{n=0}^{infty}langle Q_0,P_nrangle P_n.
        $$

        The Lagrange identity gives
        begin{align}
        &n(n+1)langle Q_0,P_nrangle \
        & =langle Q_0,LP_nrangle \
        & = langle Q_0,LP_nrangle-langle LQ_0,P_nrangle \
        & = int_{-1}^{1}left(frac{d}{dx}(1-x^2)frac{dQ_0}{dx}right)P_n
        -frac{d}{dx}left((1-x^2)frac{dP_n}{dx}right)Q_0dx \
        & = int_{-1}^{1}frac{d}{dx}left((1-x^2)left{frac{dQ_0}{dx}P_n-Q_0frac{dP_n}{dx}right}right)dx \
        & = (1-x^2)(Q_0' P_n-Q_0P_n')|_{-1}^{1} \
        & = (1-x^2)Q_0' P_n|_{-1}^{1}.
        end{align}

        And
        $$
        Q_0' = frac{1}{2}left[frac{1}{1+x}+frac{1}{1-x}right]=frac{1}{1-x^2}.
        $$

        Therefore,
        $$
        n(n+1)langle Q_0,P_nrangle = P_n|_{-1}^{1}.
        $$

        Therefore,
        $$
        Q_0(x) = sum_{n=0}^{infty}frac{P_n(1)-P_n(-1)}{n(n+1)}P_n(x) \
        = sum_{n mbox{ odd}}frac{2P_n(1)}{n(n+1)}P_n(x).
        $$







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        edited Nov 15 at 4:19

























        answered Nov 15 at 4:12









        DisintegratingByParts

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