Noun form of “aver”?
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It is common in legal writing to aver, meaning to allege, assert, or affirm a fact. (Latin root is adver.)
But I can't find any evidence that the obvious noun form of the word, aversion, has ever been used as such. Instead, aversion has always and only been the noun form of avert, derivative of the Latin root avers (meaning something like to turn away).
I.e., it seems like the avert verb root blocked the noun form aversion from being used with the aver verb. Is this correct? If so, is there a term for this sort of conflict and deconfliction in English (or in linguistics more generally)?
etymology language-evolution variants
asked Nov 15 at 19:54
feetwet
787828
add a comment |
up vote
16
down vote
favorite
It is common in legal writing to aver, meaning to allege, assert, or affirm a fact. (Latin root is adver.)
But I can't find any evidence that the obvious noun form of the word, aversion, has ever been used as such. Instead, aversion has always and only been the noun form of avert, derivative of the Latin root avers (meaning something like to turn away).
I.e., it seems like the avert verb root blocked the noun form aversion from being used with the aver verb. Is this correct? If so, is there a term for this sort of conflict and deconfliction in English (or in linguistics more generally)?
etymology language-evolution variants
asked Nov 15 at 19:54
feetwet
787828
add a comment |
up vote
16
down vote
favorite
up vote
16
down vote
favorite
It is common in legal writing to aver, meaning to allege, assert, or affirm a fact. (Latin root is adver.)
But I can't find any evidence that the obvious noun form of the word, aversion, has ever been used as such. Instead, aversion has always and only been the noun form of avert, derivative of the Latin root avers (meaning something like to turn away).
I.e., it seems like the avert verb root blocked the noun form aversion from being used with the aver verb. Is this correct? If so, is there a term for this sort of conflict and deconfliction in English (or in linguistics more generally)?
etymology language-evolution variants
asked Nov 15 at 19:54
feetwet
787828
It is common in legal writing to aver, meaning to allege, assert, or affirm a fact. (Latin root is adver.)
But I can't find any evidence that the obvious noun form of the word, aversion, has ever been used as such. Instead, aversion has always and only been the noun form of avert, derivative of the Latin root avers (meaning something like to turn away).
I.e., it seems like the avert verb root blocked the noun form aversion from being used with the aver verb. Is this correct? If so, is there a term for this sort of conflict and deconfliction in English (or in linguistics more generally)?
etymology language-evolution variants
etymology language-evolution variants
asked Nov 15 at 19:54
feetwet
787828
asked Nov 15 at 19:54
feetwet
787828
edited Nov 16 at 16:40
asked Nov 15 at 19:54
feetwet
787828
asked Nov 15 at 19:54
feetwet
787828
asked Nov 15 at 19:54
feetwet
787828
787828
add a comment |
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
up vote
25
down vote
The noun form is
averment
- (Law) A formal statement by a party in a case of a fact or circumstance which the party offers to prove or substantiate.
(ODO)
Origin of averment:
1400–50; late Middle English averrement < Middle French. See aver, -ment.
-ment suffix usage origin:
suffix forming nouns, originally from French and representing Latin -mentum, which was added to verb stems sometimes to represent the result or product of the action.
answered Nov 15 at 19:59
user240918
23.2k865144
Is it etymologically obvious why -ment is the appropriate noun form, and not -ion?
– feetwet
Nov 15 at 20:01
4
@feetwet - the term, together with the suffix, is from French.
– user240918
Nov 15 at 20:08
2
@feetwet: Aver doesn’t fit in any of the patterns of other words that form nouns with -ion. E.g. the closest comparisons one might think of, conversion, aversion, and reversion, come from convert, avert, revert respectively, and aver doesn’t end analogously to these. Digging back, this is there’s a range of Latin root verbs that form -tion and -sion nouns, and aver doesn’t come from one of these roots (although it does come from Old French/Latin).
– PLL
Nov 16 at 9:17
add a comment |
up vote
19
down vote
There are two noun forms. The everyday one is averral, meaning an act of averring; but there is also averment, which has more of a legalistic flavour, as described in user240918's answer.
Edited to add: It seems from the comments that I am wrong about averral, at least as far as all the dictionaries in the world are concerned. I shall just have to stop using it, I suppose.
By the way, aversion is by no means the obvious noun form of aver. For example, from infer we get inference; from deter we get deterrence; from confer we get conferral or conferment. If you tried to use infersion, detersion or confersion, nobody would even know what you were trying to say!
answered Nov 16 at 0:18
TonyK
1,852310
2
averral is non-standard.
– Kris
Nov 16 at 9:53
@Kris: For me, it'savermentthat's non-standard. But I must admit that Google Ngrams agrees with you!
– TonyK
Nov 16 at 11:23
Averral appears to be a rare term, and unlike averment, is not present in more common dictionaries. google.it/…
– user240918
Nov 16 at 13:34
2
@TonyK - Merriam Webster and Oxford Dictionaries online disagree. Both have averment, neither has averral (the latter redirects this, though, so they're aware of it).
– T.J. Crowder
Nov 16 at 13:38
1
@JanusBahsJacquet I thought about that, and it's certainly a logical parallel (at least at first glance; I don't know about the Latin roots). I just have the sense of having actually used/heard averral more often, probably in law school or other legal settings, but the corpora and my legal dictionaries don't bear that out and I think I'd be more likely to conflate avowal and averral since they're more semantically similar. FWIW, I don't get any "tingle of familiarity" for averence ;-).
– 1006a
Nov 16 at 17:20
|
show 6 more comments
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
25
down vote
The noun form is
averment
- (Law) A formal statement by a party in a case of a fact or circumstance which the party offers to prove or substantiate.
(ODO)
Origin of averment:
1400–50; late Middle English averrement < Middle French. See aver, -ment.
-ment suffix usage origin:
suffix forming nouns, originally from French and representing Latin -mentum, which was added to verb stems sometimes to represent the result or product of the action.
answered Nov 15 at 19:59
user240918
23.2k865144
Is it etymologically obvious why -ment is the appropriate noun form, and not -ion?
– feetwet
Nov 15 at 20:01
4
@feetwet - the term, together with the suffix, is from French.
– user240918
Nov 15 at 20:08
2
@feetwet: Aver doesn’t fit in any of the patterns of other words that form nouns with -ion. E.g. the closest comparisons one might think of, conversion, aversion, and reversion, come from convert, avert, revert respectively, and aver doesn’t end analogously to these. Digging back, this is there’s a range of Latin root verbs that form -tion and -sion nouns, and aver doesn’t come from one of these roots (although it does come from Old French/Latin).
– PLL
Nov 16 at 9:17
add a comment |
up vote
25
down vote
The noun form is
averment
- (Law) A formal statement by a party in a case of a fact or circumstance which the party offers to prove or substantiate.
(ODO)
Origin of averment:
1400–50; late Middle English averrement < Middle French. See aver, -ment.
-ment suffix usage origin:
suffix forming nouns, originally from French and representing Latin -mentum, which was added to verb stems sometimes to represent the result or product of the action.
answered Nov 15 at 19:59
user240918
23.2k865144
Is it etymologically obvious why -ment is the appropriate noun form, and not -ion?
– feetwet
Nov 15 at 20:01
4
@feetwet - the term, together with the suffix, is from French.
– user240918
Nov 15 at 20:08
2
@feetwet: Aver doesn’t fit in any of the patterns of other words that form nouns with -ion. E.g. the closest comparisons one might think of, conversion, aversion, and reversion, come from convert, avert, revert respectively, and aver doesn’t end analogously to these. Digging back, this is there’s a range of Latin root verbs that form -tion and -sion nouns, and aver doesn’t come from one of these roots (although it does come from Old French/Latin).
– PLL
Nov 16 at 9:17
add a comment |
up vote
25
down vote
up vote
25
down vote
The noun form is
averment
- (Law) A formal statement by a party in a case of a fact or circumstance which the party offers to prove or substantiate.
(ODO)
Origin of averment:
1400–50; late Middle English averrement < Middle French. See aver, -ment.
-ment suffix usage origin:
suffix forming nouns, originally from French and representing Latin -mentum, which was added to verb stems sometimes to represent the result or product of the action.
answered Nov 15 at 19:59
user240918
23.2k865144
The noun form is
averment
- (Law) A formal statement by a party in a case of a fact or circumstance which the party offers to prove or substantiate.
(ODO)
Origin of averment:
1400–50; late Middle English averrement < Middle French. See aver, -ment.
-ment suffix usage origin:
suffix forming nouns, originally from French and representing Latin -mentum, which was added to verb stems sometimes to represent the result or product of the action.
answered Nov 15 at 19:59
user240918
23.2k865144
edited Nov 15 at 20:02
answered Nov 15 at 19:59
user240918
23.2k865144
answered Nov 15 at 19:59
user240918
23.2k865144
answered Nov 15 at 19:59
user240918
23.2k865144
23.2k865144
Is it etymologically obvious why -ment is the appropriate noun form, and not -ion?
– feetwet
Nov 15 at 20:01
4
@feetwet - the term, together with the suffix, is from French.
– user240918
Nov 15 at 20:08
2
@feetwet: Aver doesn’t fit in any of the patterns of other words that form nouns with -ion. E.g. the closest comparisons one might think of, conversion, aversion, and reversion, come from convert, avert, revert respectively, and aver doesn’t end analogously to these. Digging back, this is there’s a range of Latin root verbs that form -tion and -sion nouns, and aver doesn’t come from one of these roots (although it does come from Old French/Latin).
– PLL
Nov 16 at 9:17
add a comment |
Is it etymologically obvious why -ment is the appropriate noun form, and not -ion?
– feetwet
Nov 15 at 20:01
4
@feetwet - the term, together with the suffix, is from French.
– user240918
Nov 15 at 20:08
2
@feetwet: Aver doesn’t fit in any of the patterns of other words that form nouns with -ion. E.g. the closest comparisons one might think of, conversion, aversion, and reversion, come from convert, avert, revert respectively, and aver doesn’t end analogously to these. Digging back, this is there’s a range of Latin root verbs that form -tion and -sion nouns, and aver doesn’t come from one of these roots (although it does come from Old French/Latin).
– PLL
Nov 16 at 9:17
Is it etymologically obvious why -ment is the appropriate noun form, and not -ion?
– feetwet
Nov 15 at 20:01
Is it etymologically obvious why -ment is the appropriate noun form, and not -ion?
– feetwet
Nov 15 at 20:01
4
4
@feetwet - the term, together with the suffix, is from French.
– user240918
Nov 15 at 20:08
@feetwet - the term, together with the suffix, is from French.
– user240918
Nov 15 at 20:08
2
2
@feetwet: Aver doesn’t fit in any of the patterns of other words that form nouns with -ion. E.g. the closest comparisons one might think of, conversion, aversion, and reversion, come from convert, avert, revert respectively, and aver doesn’t end analogously to these. Digging back, this is there’s a range of Latin root verbs that form -tion and -sion nouns, and aver doesn’t come from one of these roots (although it does come from Old French/Latin).
– PLL
Nov 16 at 9:17
@feetwet: Aver doesn’t fit in any of the patterns of other words that form nouns with -ion. E.g. the closest comparisons one might think of, conversion, aversion, and reversion, come from convert, avert, revert respectively, and aver doesn’t end analogously to these. Digging back, this is there’s a range of Latin root verbs that form -tion and -sion nouns, and aver doesn’t come from one of these roots (although it does come from Old French/Latin).
– PLL
Nov 16 at 9:17
add a comment |
up vote
19
down vote
There are two noun forms. The everyday one is averral, meaning an act of averring; but there is also averment, which has more of a legalistic flavour, as described in user240918's answer.
Edited to add: It seems from the comments that I am wrong about averral, at least as far as all the dictionaries in the world are concerned. I shall just have to stop using it, I suppose.
By the way, aversion is by no means the obvious noun form of aver. For example, from infer we get inference; from deter we get deterrence; from confer we get conferral or conferment. If you tried to use infersion, detersion or confersion, nobody would even know what you were trying to say!
answered Nov 16 at 0:18
TonyK
1,852310
2
averral is non-standard.
– Kris
Nov 16 at 9:53
@Kris: For me, it'savermentthat's non-standard. But I must admit that Google Ngrams agrees with you!
– TonyK
Nov 16 at 11:23
Averral appears to be a rare term, and unlike averment, is not present in more common dictionaries. google.it/…
– user240918
Nov 16 at 13:34
2
@TonyK - Merriam Webster and Oxford Dictionaries online disagree. Both have averment, neither has averral (the latter redirects this, though, so they're aware of it).
– T.J. Crowder
Nov 16 at 13:38
1
@JanusBahsJacquet I thought about that, and it's certainly a logical parallel (at least at first glance; I don't know about the Latin roots). I just have the sense of having actually used/heard averral more often, probably in law school or other legal settings, but the corpora and my legal dictionaries don't bear that out and I think I'd be more likely to conflate avowal and averral since they're more semantically similar. FWIW, I don't get any "tingle of familiarity" for averence ;-).
– 1006a
Nov 16 at 17:20
|
show 6 more comments
up vote
19
down vote
There are two noun forms. The everyday one is averral, meaning an act of averring; but there is also averment, which has more of a legalistic flavour, as described in user240918's answer.
Edited to add: It seems from the comments that I am wrong about averral, at least as far as all the dictionaries in the world are concerned. I shall just have to stop using it, I suppose.
By the way, aversion is by no means the obvious noun form of aver. For example, from infer we get inference; from deter we get deterrence; from confer we get conferral or conferment. If you tried to use infersion, detersion or confersion, nobody would even know what you were trying to say!
answered Nov 16 at 0:18
TonyK
1,852310
2
averral is non-standard.
– Kris
Nov 16 at 9:53
@Kris: For me, it'savermentthat's non-standard. But I must admit that Google Ngrams agrees with you!
– TonyK
Nov 16 at 11:23
Averral appears to be a rare term, and unlike averment, is not present in more common dictionaries. google.it/…
– user240918
Nov 16 at 13:34
2
@TonyK - Merriam Webster and Oxford Dictionaries online disagree. Both have averment, neither has averral (the latter redirects this, though, so they're aware of it).
– T.J. Crowder
Nov 16 at 13:38
1
@JanusBahsJacquet I thought about that, and it's certainly a logical parallel (at least at first glance; I don't know about the Latin roots). I just have the sense of having actually used/heard averral more often, probably in law school or other legal settings, but the corpora and my legal dictionaries don't bear that out and I think I'd be more likely to conflate avowal and averral since they're more semantically similar. FWIW, I don't get any "tingle of familiarity" for averence ;-).
– 1006a
Nov 16 at 17:20
|
show 6 more comments
up vote
19
down vote
up vote
19
down vote
There are two noun forms. The everyday one is averral, meaning an act of averring; but there is also averment, which has more of a legalistic flavour, as described in user240918's answer.
Edited to add: It seems from the comments that I am wrong about averral, at least as far as all the dictionaries in the world are concerned. I shall just have to stop using it, I suppose.
By the way, aversion is by no means the obvious noun form of aver. For example, from infer we get inference; from deter we get deterrence; from confer we get conferral or conferment. If you tried to use infersion, detersion or confersion, nobody would even know what you were trying to say!
answered Nov 16 at 0:18
TonyK
1,852310
There are two noun forms. The everyday one is averral, meaning an act of averring; but there is also averment, which has more of a legalistic flavour, as described in user240918's answer.
Edited to add: It seems from the comments that I am wrong about averral, at least as far as all the dictionaries in the world are concerned. I shall just have to stop using it, I suppose.
By the way, aversion is by no means the obvious noun form of aver. For example, from infer we get inference; from deter we get deterrence; from confer we get conferral or conferment. If you tried to use infersion, detersion or confersion, nobody would even know what you were trying to say!
answered Nov 16 at 0:18
TonyK
1,852310
edited Nov 16 at 14:50
answered Nov 16 at 0:18
TonyK
1,852310
answered Nov 16 at 0:18
TonyK
1,852310
answered Nov 16 at 0:18
TonyK
1,852310
1,852310
2
averral is non-standard.
– Kris
Nov 16 at 9:53
@Kris: For me, it'savermentthat's non-standard. But I must admit that Google Ngrams agrees with you!
– TonyK
Nov 16 at 11:23
Averral appears to be a rare term, and unlike averment, is not present in more common dictionaries. google.it/…
– user240918
Nov 16 at 13:34
2
@TonyK - Merriam Webster and Oxford Dictionaries online disagree. Both have averment, neither has averral (the latter redirects this, though, so they're aware of it).
– T.J. Crowder
Nov 16 at 13:38
1
@JanusBahsJacquet I thought about that, and it's certainly a logical parallel (at least at first glance; I don't know about the Latin roots). I just have the sense of having actually used/heard averral more often, probably in law school or other legal settings, but the corpora and my legal dictionaries don't bear that out and I think I'd be more likely to conflate avowal and averral since they're more semantically similar. FWIW, I don't get any "tingle of familiarity" for averence ;-).
– 1006a
Nov 16 at 17:20
|
show 6 more comments
2
averral is non-standard.
– Kris
Nov 16 at 9:53
@Kris: For me, it'savermentthat's non-standard. But I must admit that Google Ngrams agrees with you!
– TonyK
Nov 16 at 11:23
Averral appears to be a rare term, and unlike averment, is not present in more common dictionaries. google.it/…
– user240918
Nov 16 at 13:34
2
@TonyK - Merriam Webster and Oxford Dictionaries online disagree. Both have averment, neither has averral (the latter redirects this, though, so they're aware of it).
– T.J. Crowder
Nov 16 at 13:38
1
@JanusBahsJacquet I thought about that, and it's certainly a logical parallel (at least at first glance; I don't know about the Latin roots). I just have the sense of having actually used/heard averral more often, probably in law school or other legal settings, but the corpora and my legal dictionaries don't bear that out and I think I'd be more likely to conflate avowal and averral since they're more semantically similar. FWIW, I don't get any "tingle of familiarity" for averence ;-).
– 1006a
Nov 16 at 17:20
2
2
averral is non-standard.
– Kris
Nov 16 at 9:53
averral is non-standard.
– Kris
Nov 16 at 9:53
@Kris: For me, it's
averment that's non-standard. But I must admit that Google Ngrams agrees with you!– TonyK
Nov 16 at 11:23
@Kris: For me, it's
averment that's non-standard. But I must admit that Google Ngrams agrees with you!– TonyK
Nov 16 at 11:23
Averral appears to be a rare term, and unlike averment, is not present in more common dictionaries. google.it/…
– user240918
Nov 16 at 13:34
Averral appears to be a rare term, and unlike averment, is not present in more common dictionaries. google.it/…
– user240918
Nov 16 at 13:34
2
2
@TonyK - Merriam Webster and Oxford Dictionaries online disagree. Both have averment, neither has averral (the latter redirects this, though, so they're aware of it).
– T.J. Crowder
Nov 16 at 13:38
@TonyK - Merriam Webster and Oxford Dictionaries online disagree. Both have averment, neither has averral (the latter redirects this, though, so they're aware of it).
– T.J. Crowder
Nov 16 at 13:38
1
1
@JanusBahsJacquet I thought about that, and it's certainly a logical parallel (at least at first glance; I don't know about the Latin roots). I just have the sense of having actually used/heard averral more often, probably in law school or other legal settings, but the corpora and my legal dictionaries don't bear that out and I think I'd be more likely to conflate avowal and averral since they're more semantically similar. FWIW, I don't get any "tingle of familiarity" for averence ;-).
– 1006a
Nov 16 at 17:20
@JanusBahsJacquet I thought about that, and it's certainly a logical parallel (at least at first glance; I don't know about the Latin roots). I just have the sense of having actually used/heard averral more often, probably in law school or other legal settings, but the corpora and my legal dictionaries don't bear that out and I think I'd be more likely to conflate avowal and averral since they're more semantically similar. FWIW, I don't get any "tingle of familiarity" for averence ;-).
– 1006a
Nov 16 at 17:20
|
show 6 more comments
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