How to prove that $f(x)=lim_{atoinfty}e^{-ax}$ is not a function?











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$y=lim_{atoinfty}e^{-ax}$. How to prove that there does not exist a function $f$ such that $f(x)=y$?










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    What's the value of the limit when x is negative?
    – Mjiig
    Nov 15 at 23:34










  • @Mjiig +inf. But how to show that it is not a function?
    – High GPA
    Nov 15 at 23:55










  • It is a function from the reals to the extended reals.
    – Q the Platypus
    Nov 16 at 0:55










  • Agreed, the required domain and codomain need specifying to give this a firm answer.
    – The_Sympathizer
    Nov 16 at 4:40

















up vote
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$y=lim_{atoinfty}e^{-ax}$. How to prove that there does not exist a function $f$ such that $f(x)=y$?










share|cite|improve this question


















  • 1




    What's the value of the limit when x is negative?
    – Mjiig
    Nov 15 at 23:34










  • @Mjiig +inf. But how to show that it is not a function?
    – High GPA
    Nov 15 at 23:55










  • It is a function from the reals to the extended reals.
    – Q the Platypus
    Nov 16 at 0:55










  • Agreed, the required domain and codomain need specifying to give this a firm answer.
    – The_Sympathizer
    Nov 16 at 4:40















up vote
-1
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up vote
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$y=lim_{atoinfty}e^{-ax}$. How to prove that there does not exist a function $f$ such that $f(x)=y$?










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$y=lim_{atoinfty}e^{-ax}$. How to prove that there does not exist a function $f$ such that $f(x)=y$?







calculus limits functions






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asked Nov 15 at 23:32









High GPA

869419




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  • 1




    What's the value of the limit when x is negative?
    – Mjiig
    Nov 15 at 23:34










  • @Mjiig +inf. But how to show that it is not a function?
    – High GPA
    Nov 15 at 23:55










  • It is a function from the reals to the extended reals.
    – Q the Platypus
    Nov 16 at 0:55










  • Agreed, the required domain and codomain need specifying to give this a firm answer.
    – The_Sympathizer
    Nov 16 at 4:40
















  • 1




    What's the value of the limit when x is negative?
    – Mjiig
    Nov 15 at 23:34










  • @Mjiig +inf. But how to show that it is not a function?
    – High GPA
    Nov 15 at 23:55










  • It is a function from the reals to the extended reals.
    – Q the Platypus
    Nov 16 at 0:55










  • Agreed, the required domain and codomain need specifying to give this a firm answer.
    – The_Sympathizer
    Nov 16 at 4:40










1




1




What's the value of the limit when x is negative?
– Mjiig
Nov 15 at 23:34




What's the value of the limit when x is negative?
– Mjiig
Nov 15 at 23:34












@Mjiig +inf. But how to show that it is not a function?
– High GPA
Nov 15 at 23:55




@Mjiig +inf. But how to show that it is not a function?
– High GPA
Nov 15 at 23:55












It is a function from the reals to the extended reals.
– Q the Platypus
Nov 16 at 0:55




It is a function from the reals to the extended reals.
– Q the Platypus
Nov 16 at 0:55












Agreed, the required domain and codomain need specifying to give this a firm answer.
– The_Sympathizer
Nov 16 at 4:40






Agreed, the required domain and codomain need specifying to give this a firm answer.
– The_Sympathizer
Nov 16 at 4:40












2 Answers
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Normally when we define a real-valued function, it takes values on $(-infty,+infty)$ unless we specify it to be extended real-valued, which means it can assume value $pminfty$.






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  • I don't think the infinities are the issue here. Regardless of $x>0$ the limit always goes to $0$. The problem is when $x< 0$.
    – YiFan
    Nov 16 at 3:31










  • @YiFan I think the original problem is not specified. Clearly, the problem reduces to working out the limit for any given $x$. Then the limit just doesn't exist for $x<0$ (if we assume it not to be extended real-valued). If the original problem is "Show$ f(x)=lim_{atoinfty}e^{-ax} $is not an extended real-valued function", then it is clearly a wrong statement since we can define $f(x)=+infty$ for $x<0$, $f(x)=1$ for $x=0$ and $f(x)=0$ for $x>0$ .
    – Apocalypse
    Nov 16 at 3:35




















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0
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Contrary to what you said, there are many ways this can be a function. The easiest way is to define it as a function from $mathbb R_{geq0}$ to $mathbb R$, which works with $f(x)=0$ for any $x>0$, and $f(0)=1$. You can also say that it is a function from $mathbb R$ to $overline{mathbb R}$, the extended real number system containing both infinities. Meanwhile, it is not a function from $mathbb Rtomathbb R$ because $f(-1)$, for example, is undefined. The limit goes to $infty$, but $infty$ is not a real number.






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    2 Answers
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    2 Answers
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    up vote
    0
    down vote













    Normally when we define a real-valued function, it takes values on $(-infty,+infty)$ unless we specify it to be extended real-valued, which means it can assume value $pminfty$.






    share|cite|improve this answer























    • I don't think the infinities are the issue here. Regardless of $x>0$ the limit always goes to $0$. The problem is when $x< 0$.
      – YiFan
      Nov 16 at 3:31










    • @YiFan I think the original problem is not specified. Clearly, the problem reduces to working out the limit for any given $x$. Then the limit just doesn't exist for $x<0$ (if we assume it not to be extended real-valued). If the original problem is "Show$ f(x)=lim_{atoinfty}e^{-ax} $is not an extended real-valued function", then it is clearly a wrong statement since we can define $f(x)=+infty$ for $x<0$, $f(x)=1$ for $x=0$ and $f(x)=0$ for $x>0$ .
      – Apocalypse
      Nov 16 at 3:35

















    up vote
    0
    down vote













    Normally when we define a real-valued function, it takes values on $(-infty,+infty)$ unless we specify it to be extended real-valued, which means it can assume value $pminfty$.






    share|cite|improve this answer























    • I don't think the infinities are the issue here. Regardless of $x>0$ the limit always goes to $0$. The problem is when $x< 0$.
      – YiFan
      Nov 16 at 3:31










    • @YiFan I think the original problem is not specified. Clearly, the problem reduces to working out the limit for any given $x$. Then the limit just doesn't exist for $x<0$ (if we assume it not to be extended real-valued). If the original problem is "Show$ f(x)=lim_{atoinfty}e^{-ax} $is not an extended real-valued function", then it is clearly a wrong statement since we can define $f(x)=+infty$ for $x<0$, $f(x)=1$ for $x=0$ and $f(x)=0$ for $x>0$ .
      – Apocalypse
      Nov 16 at 3:35















    up vote
    0
    down vote










    up vote
    0
    down vote









    Normally when we define a real-valued function, it takes values on $(-infty,+infty)$ unless we specify it to be extended real-valued, which means it can assume value $pminfty$.






    share|cite|improve this answer














    Normally when we define a real-valued function, it takes values on $(-infty,+infty)$ unless we specify it to be extended real-valued, which means it can assume value $pminfty$.







    share|cite|improve this answer














    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer








    edited Nov 16 at 0:34

























    answered Nov 16 at 0:25









    Apocalypse

    1065




    1065












    • I don't think the infinities are the issue here. Regardless of $x>0$ the limit always goes to $0$. The problem is when $x< 0$.
      – YiFan
      Nov 16 at 3:31










    • @YiFan I think the original problem is not specified. Clearly, the problem reduces to working out the limit for any given $x$. Then the limit just doesn't exist for $x<0$ (if we assume it not to be extended real-valued). If the original problem is "Show$ f(x)=lim_{atoinfty}e^{-ax} $is not an extended real-valued function", then it is clearly a wrong statement since we can define $f(x)=+infty$ for $x<0$, $f(x)=1$ for $x=0$ and $f(x)=0$ for $x>0$ .
      – Apocalypse
      Nov 16 at 3:35




















    • I don't think the infinities are the issue here. Regardless of $x>0$ the limit always goes to $0$. The problem is when $x< 0$.
      – YiFan
      Nov 16 at 3:31










    • @YiFan I think the original problem is not specified. Clearly, the problem reduces to working out the limit for any given $x$. Then the limit just doesn't exist for $x<0$ (if we assume it not to be extended real-valued). If the original problem is "Show$ f(x)=lim_{atoinfty}e^{-ax} $is not an extended real-valued function", then it is clearly a wrong statement since we can define $f(x)=+infty$ for $x<0$, $f(x)=1$ for $x=0$ and $f(x)=0$ for $x>0$ .
      – Apocalypse
      Nov 16 at 3:35


















    I don't think the infinities are the issue here. Regardless of $x>0$ the limit always goes to $0$. The problem is when $x< 0$.
    – YiFan
    Nov 16 at 3:31




    I don't think the infinities are the issue here. Regardless of $x>0$ the limit always goes to $0$. The problem is when $x< 0$.
    – YiFan
    Nov 16 at 3:31












    @YiFan I think the original problem is not specified. Clearly, the problem reduces to working out the limit for any given $x$. Then the limit just doesn't exist for $x<0$ (if we assume it not to be extended real-valued). If the original problem is "Show$ f(x)=lim_{atoinfty}e^{-ax} $is not an extended real-valued function", then it is clearly a wrong statement since we can define $f(x)=+infty$ for $x<0$, $f(x)=1$ for $x=0$ and $f(x)=0$ for $x>0$ .
    – Apocalypse
    Nov 16 at 3:35






    @YiFan I think the original problem is not specified. Clearly, the problem reduces to working out the limit for any given $x$. Then the limit just doesn't exist for $x<0$ (if we assume it not to be extended real-valued). If the original problem is "Show$ f(x)=lim_{atoinfty}e^{-ax} $is not an extended real-valued function", then it is clearly a wrong statement since we can define $f(x)=+infty$ for $x<0$, $f(x)=1$ for $x=0$ and $f(x)=0$ for $x>0$ .
    – Apocalypse
    Nov 16 at 3:35












    up vote
    0
    down vote













    Contrary to what you said, there are many ways this can be a function. The easiest way is to define it as a function from $mathbb R_{geq0}$ to $mathbb R$, which works with $f(x)=0$ for any $x>0$, and $f(0)=1$. You can also say that it is a function from $mathbb R$ to $overline{mathbb R}$, the extended real number system containing both infinities. Meanwhile, it is not a function from $mathbb Rtomathbb R$ because $f(-1)$, for example, is undefined. The limit goes to $infty$, but $infty$ is not a real number.






    share|cite|improve this answer

























      up vote
      0
      down vote













      Contrary to what you said, there are many ways this can be a function. The easiest way is to define it as a function from $mathbb R_{geq0}$ to $mathbb R$, which works with $f(x)=0$ for any $x>0$, and $f(0)=1$. You can also say that it is a function from $mathbb R$ to $overline{mathbb R}$, the extended real number system containing both infinities. Meanwhile, it is not a function from $mathbb Rtomathbb R$ because $f(-1)$, for example, is undefined. The limit goes to $infty$, but $infty$ is not a real number.






      share|cite|improve this answer























        up vote
        0
        down vote










        up vote
        0
        down vote









        Contrary to what you said, there are many ways this can be a function. The easiest way is to define it as a function from $mathbb R_{geq0}$ to $mathbb R$, which works with $f(x)=0$ for any $x>0$, and $f(0)=1$. You can also say that it is a function from $mathbb R$ to $overline{mathbb R}$, the extended real number system containing both infinities. Meanwhile, it is not a function from $mathbb Rtomathbb R$ because $f(-1)$, for example, is undefined. The limit goes to $infty$, but $infty$ is not a real number.






        share|cite|improve this answer












        Contrary to what you said, there are many ways this can be a function. The easiest way is to define it as a function from $mathbb R_{geq0}$ to $mathbb R$, which works with $f(x)=0$ for any $x>0$, and $f(0)=1$. You can also say that it is a function from $mathbb R$ to $overline{mathbb R}$, the extended real number system containing both infinities. Meanwhile, it is not a function from $mathbb Rtomathbb R$ because $f(-1)$, for example, is undefined. The limit goes to $infty$, but $infty$ is not a real number.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Nov 16 at 3:39









        YiFan

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