Radius of convergence of $sum_0^{infty} n!x^{n^2}$ [duplicate]












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  • Convergence radius of a power series 3 [duplicate]

    1 answer




What can be said about the radius of convergence of the poower series
$$sum_0^{infty} n!x^{n^2}$$



I know that $limsup_{ntoinfty}(n!)^{frac1{n}}toinfty$. Is that of any use here? Should I use ratio test or root test? Any hints? Thanks beforehand.










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marked as duplicate by GNUSupporter 8964民主女神 地下教會, Community Nov 29 '18 at 11:22


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.




















    1















    This question already has an answer here:




    • Convergence radius of a power series 3 [duplicate]

      1 answer




    What can be said about the radius of convergence of the poower series
    $$sum_0^{infty} n!x^{n^2}$$



    I know that $limsup_{ntoinfty}(n!)^{frac1{n}}toinfty$. Is that of any use here? Should I use ratio test or root test? Any hints? Thanks beforehand.










    share|cite|improve this question















    marked as duplicate by GNUSupporter 8964民主女神 地下教會, Community Nov 29 '18 at 11:22


    This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.


















      1












      1








      1


      2






      This question already has an answer here:




      • Convergence radius of a power series 3 [duplicate]

        1 answer




      What can be said about the radius of convergence of the poower series
      $$sum_0^{infty} n!x^{n^2}$$



      I know that $limsup_{ntoinfty}(n!)^{frac1{n}}toinfty$. Is that of any use here? Should I use ratio test or root test? Any hints? Thanks beforehand.










      share|cite|improve this question
















      This question already has an answer here:




      • Convergence radius of a power series 3 [duplicate]

        1 answer




      What can be said about the radius of convergence of the poower series
      $$sum_0^{infty} n!x^{n^2}$$



      I know that $limsup_{ntoinfty}(n!)^{frac1{n}}toinfty$. Is that of any use here? Should I use ratio test or root test? Any hints? Thanks beforehand.





      This question already has an answer here:




      • Convergence radius of a power series 3 [duplicate]

        1 answer








      real-analysis sequences-and-series power-series






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      edited Nov 29 '18 at 11:09









      José Carlos Santos

      151k22123224




      151k22123224










      asked Nov 29 '18 at 11:04









      vidyarthi

      2,8531832




      2,8531832




      marked as duplicate by GNUSupporter 8964民主女神 地下教會, Community Nov 29 '18 at 11:22


      This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.






      marked as duplicate by GNUSupporter 8964民主女神 地下教會, Community Nov 29 '18 at 11:22


      This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.
























          3 Answers
          3






          active

          oldest

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          3














          With the ratio test: let $a_n=n!x^{n^2}$. For $x ne 0$ we have



          $|frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}|= (n+1)|x|^{2n+1}$.



          If $|x|<1$, then $|frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}| to 0 <1$ and the series is convergent.



          If $|x| ge 1$, then $|frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}| to infty$ and the series is divergent.



          Consequence: the radius of convergence $=1$.






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • thanks. easier than expected. By the way, I think you wrote root for ratio test.
            – vidyarthi
            Nov 29 '18 at 11:14












          • Ooops, you are right !
            – Fred
            Nov 29 '18 at 11:19



















          2














          The ratio test is the best! We have $$lim_{nto infty} {a_{n+1}over a_n}=lim_{nto infty}{(n+1)!over n!}{x^{(n+1)^2}over x^{n^2}}=lim_{nto infty}{(n+1)}{x^{2n+1}}$$which means that for $|x|<1$ the series converges and diverges elsewhere. Therefore the radius of convergence is 1.






          share|cite|improve this answer





























            0














            For a power series $sum_{n=0}^{infty} a_nx^n$ radius of convergence is given by $frac{1}{rho}$ where $rho=lim sup_{nrightarrow infty} |a_n|^{frac{1}{n}}$. Here $a_n=k!$
            if $n=k^2$ and $=0$ ,otherwise. Hence $rho=lim_{nrightarrow infty} (n!)^{frac{1}{n^2}}=1$. Hence radius of convergence is $1$.






            share|cite|improve this answer




























              3 Answers
              3






              active

              oldest

              votes








              3 Answers
              3






              active

              oldest

              votes









              active

              oldest

              votes






              active

              oldest

              votes









              3














              With the ratio test: let $a_n=n!x^{n^2}$. For $x ne 0$ we have



              $|frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}|= (n+1)|x|^{2n+1}$.



              If $|x|<1$, then $|frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}| to 0 <1$ and the series is convergent.



              If $|x| ge 1$, then $|frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}| to infty$ and the series is divergent.



              Consequence: the radius of convergence $=1$.






              share|cite|improve this answer























              • thanks. easier than expected. By the way, I think you wrote root for ratio test.
                – vidyarthi
                Nov 29 '18 at 11:14












              • Ooops, you are right !
                – Fred
                Nov 29 '18 at 11:19
















              3














              With the ratio test: let $a_n=n!x^{n^2}$. For $x ne 0$ we have



              $|frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}|= (n+1)|x|^{2n+1}$.



              If $|x|<1$, then $|frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}| to 0 <1$ and the series is convergent.



              If $|x| ge 1$, then $|frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}| to infty$ and the series is divergent.



              Consequence: the radius of convergence $=1$.






              share|cite|improve this answer























              • thanks. easier than expected. By the way, I think you wrote root for ratio test.
                – vidyarthi
                Nov 29 '18 at 11:14












              • Ooops, you are right !
                – Fred
                Nov 29 '18 at 11:19














              3












              3








              3






              With the ratio test: let $a_n=n!x^{n^2}$. For $x ne 0$ we have



              $|frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}|= (n+1)|x|^{2n+1}$.



              If $|x|<1$, then $|frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}| to 0 <1$ and the series is convergent.



              If $|x| ge 1$, then $|frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}| to infty$ and the series is divergent.



              Consequence: the radius of convergence $=1$.






              share|cite|improve this answer














              With the ratio test: let $a_n=n!x^{n^2}$. For $x ne 0$ we have



              $|frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}|= (n+1)|x|^{2n+1}$.



              If $|x|<1$, then $|frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}| to 0 <1$ and the series is convergent.



              If $|x| ge 1$, then $|frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}| to infty$ and the series is divergent.



              Consequence: the radius of convergence $=1$.







              share|cite|improve this answer














              share|cite|improve this answer



              share|cite|improve this answer








              edited Nov 29 '18 at 11:15









              vidyarthi

              2,8531832




              2,8531832










              answered Nov 29 '18 at 11:11









              Fred

              44.2k1845




              44.2k1845












              • thanks. easier than expected. By the way, I think you wrote root for ratio test.
                – vidyarthi
                Nov 29 '18 at 11:14












              • Ooops, you are right !
                – Fred
                Nov 29 '18 at 11:19


















              • thanks. easier than expected. By the way, I think you wrote root for ratio test.
                – vidyarthi
                Nov 29 '18 at 11:14












              • Ooops, you are right !
                – Fred
                Nov 29 '18 at 11:19
















              thanks. easier than expected. By the way, I think you wrote root for ratio test.
              – vidyarthi
              Nov 29 '18 at 11:14






              thanks. easier than expected. By the way, I think you wrote root for ratio test.
              – vidyarthi
              Nov 29 '18 at 11:14














              Ooops, you are right !
              – Fred
              Nov 29 '18 at 11:19




              Ooops, you are right !
              – Fred
              Nov 29 '18 at 11:19











              2














              The ratio test is the best! We have $$lim_{nto infty} {a_{n+1}over a_n}=lim_{nto infty}{(n+1)!over n!}{x^{(n+1)^2}over x^{n^2}}=lim_{nto infty}{(n+1)}{x^{2n+1}}$$which means that for $|x|<1$ the series converges and diverges elsewhere. Therefore the radius of convergence is 1.






              share|cite|improve this answer


























                2














                The ratio test is the best! We have $$lim_{nto infty} {a_{n+1}over a_n}=lim_{nto infty}{(n+1)!over n!}{x^{(n+1)^2}over x^{n^2}}=lim_{nto infty}{(n+1)}{x^{2n+1}}$$which means that for $|x|<1$ the series converges and diverges elsewhere. Therefore the radius of convergence is 1.






                share|cite|improve this answer
























                  2












                  2








                  2






                  The ratio test is the best! We have $$lim_{nto infty} {a_{n+1}over a_n}=lim_{nto infty}{(n+1)!over n!}{x^{(n+1)^2}over x^{n^2}}=lim_{nto infty}{(n+1)}{x^{2n+1}}$$which means that for $|x|<1$ the series converges and diverges elsewhere. Therefore the radius of convergence is 1.






                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  The ratio test is the best! We have $$lim_{nto infty} {a_{n+1}over a_n}=lim_{nto infty}{(n+1)!over n!}{x^{(n+1)^2}over x^{n^2}}=lim_{nto infty}{(n+1)}{x^{2n+1}}$$which means that for $|x|<1$ the series converges and diverges elsewhere. Therefore the radius of convergence is 1.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Nov 29 '18 at 11:15









                  Mostafa Ayaz

                  14k3936




                  14k3936























                      0














                      For a power series $sum_{n=0}^{infty} a_nx^n$ radius of convergence is given by $frac{1}{rho}$ where $rho=lim sup_{nrightarrow infty} |a_n|^{frac{1}{n}}$. Here $a_n=k!$
                      if $n=k^2$ and $=0$ ,otherwise. Hence $rho=lim_{nrightarrow infty} (n!)^{frac{1}{n^2}}=1$. Hence radius of convergence is $1$.






                      share|cite|improve this answer


























                        0














                        For a power series $sum_{n=0}^{infty} a_nx^n$ radius of convergence is given by $frac{1}{rho}$ where $rho=lim sup_{nrightarrow infty} |a_n|^{frac{1}{n}}$. Here $a_n=k!$
                        if $n=k^2$ and $=0$ ,otherwise. Hence $rho=lim_{nrightarrow infty} (n!)^{frac{1}{n^2}}=1$. Hence radius of convergence is $1$.






                        share|cite|improve this answer
























                          0












                          0








                          0






                          For a power series $sum_{n=0}^{infty} a_nx^n$ radius of convergence is given by $frac{1}{rho}$ where $rho=lim sup_{nrightarrow infty} |a_n|^{frac{1}{n}}$. Here $a_n=k!$
                          if $n=k^2$ and $=0$ ,otherwise. Hence $rho=lim_{nrightarrow infty} (n!)^{frac{1}{n^2}}=1$. Hence radius of convergence is $1$.






                          share|cite|improve this answer












                          For a power series $sum_{n=0}^{infty} a_nx^n$ radius of convergence is given by $frac{1}{rho}$ where $rho=lim sup_{nrightarrow infty} |a_n|^{frac{1}{n}}$. Here $a_n=k!$
                          if $n=k^2$ and $=0$ ,otherwise. Hence $rho=lim_{nrightarrow infty} (n!)^{frac{1}{n^2}}=1$. Hence radius of convergence is $1$.







                          share|cite|improve this answer












                          share|cite|improve this answer



                          share|cite|improve this answer










                          answered Nov 29 '18 at 11:34









                          UserS

                          1,5371112




                          1,5371112















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