Rewriting a logical statement












1














Only lakers are irrational people.



I believe it technically should be translated as:



All irrational people are lakers.



Is there is any way at all to rewrite the above statement to mean the following and be logically correct:



All lakers are irrational people.



How would you justify it? (If it is possible)










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    1














    Only lakers are irrational people.



    I believe it technically should be translated as:



    All irrational people are lakers.



    Is there is any way at all to rewrite the above statement to mean the following and be logically correct:



    All lakers are irrational people.



    How would you justify it? (If it is possible)










    share|cite|improve this question

























      1












      1








      1







      Only lakers are irrational people.



      I believe it technically should be translated as:



      All irrational people are lakers.



      Is there is any way at all to rewrite the above statement to mean the following and be logically correct:



      All lakers are irrational people.



      How would you justify it? (If it is possible)










      share|cite|improve this question













      Only lakers are irrational people.



      I believe it technically should be translated as:



      All irrational people are lakers.



      Is there is any way at all to rewrite the above statement to mean the following and be logically correct:



      All lakers are irrational people.



      How would you justify it? (If it is possible)







      logic logic-translation






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      share|cite|improve this question











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      asked Nov 26 at 17:42









      Phillip

      112




      112






















          3 Answers
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          1














          Indicating with $L$ the set of lakers $l$ and with $Pi$ the set of irrational people $pi$, the first statement is equivalent to



          $$forall piin Pi quad piin L$$



          the second one is



          $$forall lin Lquad lin Pi $$



          which is not equivalent to the first one, indeed from this last one we could also have $pi not in L$ for aome $pi$.






          share|cite|improve this answer





























            0














            All rational people are not lakers.



            The opposite converse is equally valid.



            The converse that you posit is not equally valid.






            share|cite|improve this answer





























              0














              Your initial translation is correct, though in standard form I would write



              All non-rational people are lakers.



              This is an Aristotelian A type statement, and A type statements have valid obverses and valid contrapositives. They do not have valid converses.



              Obverse: No non-rational people are non-lakers.



              Contrapositive: All non-lakers are rational people.



              So the ultimate answer to your question is no, because you are trying to get the converse of an A statement to be true, which does not happen in general.



              If you had an E or I statement, the converse would be valid.






              share|cite|improve this answer





















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                3 Answers
                3






                active

                oldest

                votes








                3 Answers
                3






                active

                oldest

                votes









                active

                oldest

                votes






                active

                oldest

                votes









                1














                Indicating with $L$ the set of lakers $l$ and with $Pi$ the set of irrational people $pi$, the first statement is equivalent to



                $$forall piin Pi quad piin L$$



                the second one is



                $$forall lin Lquad lin Pi $$



                which is not equivalent to the first one, indeed from this last one we could also have $pi not in L$ for aome $pi$.






                share|cite|improve this answer


























                  1














                  Indicating with $L$ the set of lakers $l$ and with $Pi$ the set of irrational people $pi$, the first statement is equivalent to



                  $$forall piin Pi quad piin L$$



                  the second one is



                  $$forall lin Lquad lin Pi $$



                  which is not equivalent to the first one, indeed from this last one we could also have $pi not in L$ for aome $pi$.






                  share|cite|improve this answer
























                    1












                    1








                    1






                    Indicating with $L$ the set of lakers $l$ and with $Pi$ the set of irrational people $pi$, the first statement is equivalent to



                    $$forall piin Pi quad piin L$$



                    the second one is



                    $$forall lin Lquad lin Pi $$



                    which is not equivalent to the first one, indeed from this last one we could also have $pi not in L$ for aome $pi$.






                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    Indicating with $L$ the set of lakers $l$ and with $Pi$ the set of irrational people $pi$, the first statement is equivalent to



                    $$forall piin Pi quad piin L$$



                    the second one is



                    $$forall lin Lquad lin Pi $$



                    which is not equivalent to the first one, indeed from this last one we could also have $pi not in L$ for aome $pi$.







                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    share|cite|improve this answer



                    share|cite|improve this answer










                    answered Nov 26 at 17:49









                    gimusi

                    1




                    1























                        0














                        All rational people are not lakers.



                        The opposite converse is equally valid.



                        The converse that you posit is not equally valid.






                        share|cite|improve this answer


























                          0














                          All rational people are not lakers.



                          The opposite converse is equally valid.



                          The converse that you posit is not equally valid.






                          share|cite|improve this answer
























                            0












                            0








                            0






                            All rational people are not lakers.



                            The opposite converse is equally valid.



                            The converse that you posit is not equally valid.






                            share|cite|improve this answer












                            All rational people are not lakers.



                            The opposite converse is equally valid.



                            The converse that you posit is not equally valid.







                            share|cite|improve this answer












                            share|cite|improve this answer



                            share|cite|improve this answer










                            answered Nov 26 at 17:46









                            John L Winters

                            829




                            829























                                0














                                Your initial translation is correct, though in standard form I would write



                                All non-rational people are lakers.



                                This is an Aristotelian A type statement, and A type statements have valid obverses and valid contrapositives. They do not have valid converses.



                                Obverse: No non-rational people are non-lakers.



                                Contrapositive: All non-lakers are rational people.



                                So the ultimate answer to your question is no, because you are trying to get the converse of an A statement to be true, which does not happen in general.



                                If you had an E or I statement, the converse would be valid.






                                share|cite|improve this answer


























                                  0














                                  Your initial translation is correct, though in standard form I would write



                                  All non-rational people are lakers.



                                  This is an Aristotelian A type statement, and A type statements have valid obverses and valid contrapositives. They do not have valid converses.



                                  Obverse: No non-rational people are non-lakers.



                                  Contrapositive: All non-lakers are rational people.



                                  So the ultimate answer to your question is no, because you are trying to get the converse of an A statement to be true, which does not happen in general.



                                  If you had an E or I statement, the converse would be valid.






                                  share|cite|improve this answer
























                                    0












                                    0








                                    0






                                    Your initial translation is correct, though in standard form I would write



                                    All non-rational people are lakers.



                                    This is an Aristotelian A type statement, and A type statements have valid obverses and valid contrapositives. They do not have valid converses.



                                    Obverse: No non-rational people are non-lakers.



                                    Contrapositive: All non-lakers are rational people.



                                    So the ultimate answer to your question is no, because you are trying to get the converse of an A statement to be true, which does not happen in general.



                                    If you had an E or I statement, the converse would be valid.






                                    share|cite|improve this answer












                                    Your initial translation is correct, though in standard form I would write



                                    All non-rational people are lakers.



                                    This is an Aristotelian A type statement, and A type statements have valid obverses and valid contrapositives. They do not have valid converses.



                                    Obverse: No non-rational people are non-lakers.



                                    Contrapositive: All non-lakers are rational people.



                                    So the ultimate answer to your question is no, because you are trying to get the converse of an A statement to be true, which does not happen in general.



                                    If you had an E or I statement, the converse would be valid.







                                    share|cite|improve this answer












                                    share|cite|improve this answer



                                    share|cite|improve this answer










                                    answered Nov 26 at 17:51









                                    Adrian Keister

                                    4,77351933




                                    4,77351933






























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