Results that were widely believed to be false but were later shown to be true











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What are some results which were widely believed to be false, but were later to be shown to be true, or vice-versa?










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    What does it mean for a theorem to be "shown to be true with probability $0$"? How does one determine the "probability" of a result to be true in such a way that one can prove that this is the probability? Certainly one can offer heuristic arguments to suggest that something is "likely" or "unlikely" (or "very likely" or "very unlikely"), but these are not by way of formal proofs of the 'probability of being true'. That would require some sort of probability distribution among "statements"...
    – Arturo Magidin
    Jun 15 '11 at 19:42






  • 2




    Discussing on meta regarding reopening: meta.math.stackexchange.com/questions/2358/….
    – Yuval Filmus
    Jun 15 '11 at 22:49






  • 2




    This thread on MO could contain some things you're after. Please do try to formulate a better and more specific version of your question along the lines that Arturo suggests then the question might be reopened.
    – t.b.
    Jun 16 '11 at 2:45






  • 2




    @805801: Note that the "vice-versa" question is really equivalent to the "direct" question. If a conjecture is widely believed to be false but is later proven true, then the negation of the conjecture is widely believed to be true but is later proven false. They are two sides of the same coin. The difference between your question and the MO thread is not that you are asking about "false later proven true", but rather that you are asking about expectation rather than a mistaken belief that the issue had already been settled.
    – Arturo Magidin
    Jun 16 '11 at 3:48








  • 3




    @805: +1 for your ability to navigate through the complicated web of etiquette, and eventually pose a good question.
    – The Chaz 2.0
    Jun 16 '11 at 3:49















up vote
19
down vote

favorite
6












What are some results which were widely believed to be false, but were later to be shown to be true, or vice-versa?










share|cite|improve this question




















  • 7




    What does it mean for a theorem to be "shown to be true with probability $0$"? How does one determine the "probability" of a result to be true in such a way that one can prove that this is the probability? Certainly one can offer heuristic arguments to suggest that something is "likely" or "unlikely" (or "very likely" or "very unlikely"), but these are not by way of formal proofs of the 'probability of being true'. That would require some sort of probability distribution among "statements"...
    – Arturo Magidin
    Jun 15 '11 at 19:42






  • 2




    Discussing on meta regarding reopening: meta.math.stackexchange.com/questions/2358/….
    – Yuval Filmus
    Jun 15 '11 at 22:49






  • 2




    This thread on MO could contain some things you're after. Please do try to formulate a better and more specific version of your question along the lines that Arturo suggests then the question might be reopened.
    – t.b.
    Jun 16 '11 at 2:45






  • 2




    @805801: Note that the "vice-versa" question is really equivalent to the "direct" question. If a conjecture is widely believed to be false but is later proven true, then the negation of the conjecture is widely believed to be true but is later proven false. They are two sides of the same coin. The difference between your question and the MO thread is not that you are asking about "false later proven true", but rather that you are asking about expectation rather than a mistaken belief that the issue had already been settled.
    – Arturo Magidin
    Jun 16 '11 at 3:48








  • 3




    @805: +1 for your ability to navigate through the complicated web of etiquette, and eventually pose a good question.
    – The Chaz 2.0
    Jun 16 '11 at 3:49













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What are some results which were widely believed to be false, but were later to be shown to be true, or vice-versa?










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What are some results which were widely believed to be false, but were later to be shown to be true, or vice-versa?







soft-question big-list math-history






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  • 7




    What does it mean for a theorem to be "shown to be true with probability $0$"? How does one determine the "probability" of a result to be true in such a way that one can prove that this is the probability? Certainly one can offer heuristic arguments to suggest that something is "likely" or "unlikely" (or "very likely" or "very unlikely"), but these are not by way of formal proofs of the 'probability of being true'. That would require some sort of probability distribution among "statements"...
    – Arturo Magidin
    Jun 15 '11 at 19:42






  • 2




    Discussing on meta regarding reopening: meta.math.stackexchange.com/questions/2358/….
    – Yuval Filmus
    Jun 15 '11 at 22:49






  • 2




    This thread on MO could contain some things you're after. Please do try to formulate a better and more specific version of your question along the lines that Arturo suggests then the question might be reopened.
    – t.b.
    Jun 16 '11 at 2:45






  • 2




    @805801: Note that the "vice-versa" question is really equivalent to the "direct" question. If a conjecture is widely believed to be false but is later proven true, then the negation of the conjecture is widely believed to be true but is later proven false. They are two sides of the same coin. The difference between your question and the MO thread is not that you are asking about "false later proven true", but rather that you are asking about expectation rather than a mistaken belief that the issue had already been settled.
    – Arturo Magidin
    Jun 16 '11 at 3:48








  • 3




    @805: +1 for your ability to navigate through the complicated web of etiquette, and eventually pose a good question.
    – The Chaz 2.0
    Jun 16 '11 at 3:49














  • 7




    What does it mean for a theorem to be "shown to be true with probability $0$"? How does one determine the "probability" of a result to be true in such a way that one can prove that this is the probability? Certainly one can offer heuristic arguments to suggest that something is "likely" or "unlikely" (or "very likely" or "very unlikely"), but these are not by way of formal proofs of the 'probability of being true'. That would require some sort of probability distribution among "statements"...
    – Arturo Magidin
    Jun 15 '11 at 19:42






  • 2




    Discussing on meta regarding reopening: meta.math.stackexchange.com/questions/2358/….
    – Yuval Filmus
    Jun 15 '11 at 22:49






  • 2




    This thread on MO could contain some things you're after. Please do try to formulate a better and more specific version of your question along the lines that Arturo suggests then the question might be reopened.
    – t.b.
    Jun 16 '11 at 2:45






  • 2




    @805801: Note that the "vice-versa" question is really equivalent to the "direct" question. If a conjecture is widely believed to be false but is later proven true, then the negation of the conjecture is widely believed to be true but is later proven false. They are two sides of the same coin. The difference between your question and the MO thread is not that you are asking about "false later proven true", but rather that you are asking about expectation rather than a mistaken belief that the issue had already been settled.
    – Arturo Magidin
    Jun 16 '11 at 3:48








  • 3




    @805: +1 for your ability to navigate through the complicated web of etiquette, and eventually pose a good question.
    – The Chaz 2.0
    Jun 16 '11 at 3:49








7




7




What does it mean for a theorem to be "shown to be true with probability $0$"? How does one determine the "probability" of a result to be true in such a way that one can prove that this is the probability? Certainly one can offer heuristic arguments to suggest that something is "likely" or "unlikely" (or "very likely" or "very unlikely"), but these are not by way of formal proofs of the 'probability of being true'. That would require some sort of probability distribution among "statements"...
– Arturo Magidin
Jun 15 '11 at 19:42




What does it mean for a theorem to be "shown to be true with probability $0$"? How does one determine the "probability" of a result to be true in such a way that one can prove that this is the probability? Certainly one can offer heuristic arguments to suggest that something is "likely" or "unlikely" (or "very likely" or "very unlikely"), but these are not by way of formal proofs of the 'probability of being true'. That would require some sort of probability distribution among "statements"...
– Arturo Magidin
Jun 15 '11 at 19:42




2




2




Discussing on meta regarding reopening: meta.math.stackexchange.com/questions/2358/….
– Yuval Filmus
Jun 15 '11 at 22:49




Discussing on meta regarding reopening: meta.math.stackexchange.com/questions/2358/….
– Yuval Filmus
Jun 15 '11 at 22:49




2




2




This thread on MO could contain some things you're after. Please do try to formulate a better and more specific version of your question along the lines that Arturo suggests then the question might be reopened.
– t.b.
Jun 16 '11 at 2:45




This thread on MO could contain some things you're after. Please do try to formulate a better and more specific version of your question along the lines that Arturo suggests then the question might be reopened.
– t.b.
Jun 16 '11 at 2:45




2




2




@805801: Note that the "vice-versa" question is really equivalent to the "direct" question. If a conjecture is widely believed to be false but is later proven true, then the negation of the conjecture is widely believed to be true but is later proven false. They are two sides of the same coin. The difference between your question and the MO thread is not that you are asking about "false later proven true", but rather that you are asking about expectation rather than a mistaken belief that the issue had already been settled.
– Arturo Magidin
Jun 16 '11 at 3:48






@805801: Note that the "vice-versa" question is really equivalent to the "direct" question. If a conjecture is widely believed to be false but is later proven true, then the negation of the conjecture is widely believed to be true but is later proven false. They are two sides of the same coin. The difference between your question and the MO thread is not that you are asking about "false later proven true", but rather that you are asking about expectation rather than a mistaken belief that the issue had already been settled.
– Arturo Magidin
Jun 16 '11 at 3:48






3




3




@805: +1 for your ability to navigate through the complicated web of etiquette, and eventually pose a good question.
– The Chaz 2.0
Jun 16 '11 at 3:49




@805: +1 for your ability to navigate through the complicated web of etiquette, and eventually pose a good question.
– The Chaz 2.0
Jun 16 '11 at 3:49










6 Answers
6






active

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up vote
31
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Shing Tung Yau describes that there was a general skepticism among mathematicians about the Calabi conjecture. He presented a proof that it was false to an informal audience which included Eugenio Calabi. On being contacted by Calabi to write him the arguments. Yau tried to make his assertions rigorous, found a mistake in his own proof, and in trying to correct it, ended up proving it.



This is described in detail by Yau in his book The Shape of Inner Space



On why Yau and others were skeptical. pp. 103-104




... but in the early 1970s, I (among
many others) still needed some
convincing that it was more than a
molehill. I didn’t buy the provocative
statement he’d put before us. As I saw
it, there were a number of reasons to
be skeptical. For starters, people
were doubtful that a nontrivial
Ricci-flat metric—one that excludes
the flat torus— could exist on a
compact manifold without a boundary.
We didn’t know of a single example,
yet here was this guy Calabi saying it
was true for a large, and possibly
infinite, class of manifolds.




[...]




I was also wary for some additional technical reasons. It was widely held that
no one could ever write down a precise solution to the Calabi conjecture, except
perhaps in a small number of special cases. If that supposition were correct—
and it was eventually proven to be so—the situation thus seemed hopeless,
which is another reason the whole proposition was deemed too good to be true.




On proving it. pp 106




Calabi contacted me a few months later, asking me to write down the argument, as he was puzzled over certain aspects of it. I then set out to prove, in a
more rigorous way, that the conjecture was false. Upon receiving Calabi’s note,
I felt that the pressure was on me to back up my bold assertion. I worked very
hard and barely slept for two weeks, pushing myself to the brink of exhaustion.
Each time I thought I’d nailed the proof, my argument broke down at the last
second, always in an exceedingly frustrating manner. After those two weeks of
agony, I decided there must be something wrong with my reasoning. My only
recourse was to give up and try working in the opposite direction. I had concluded, in other words, that the Calabi conjecture must be right, which put me
in a curious position: After trying so hard to prove that the conjecture was false,
I then had to prove that it was true. And if the conjecture were true, all the stuff
that went with it—all the stuff that was supposedly too good to be true—must
also be true.







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    up vote
    16
    down vote













    This may be a bit tangential to your question, but Gödel's Incompleteness Theorem probably deserves mention here. It had been widely believed since at least the beginnings of Hilbert's program that a decision procedure for all mathematical questions could be created. Gödel showed that this is impossible, a big surprise at the time.






    share|cite|improve this answer






























      up vote
      14
      down vote













      $|mathbb{R}|=|mathbb{R}^2|$, i.e. there exists a bijection from the real line to the plane.



      Also, it was believed that there don't exist wild embeddings $mathbb{S}^2hookrightarrowmathbb{R}^3$ until Alexander found his horned sphere.






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        up vote
        7
        down vote













        I'd think any statement classified as a "paradox" would qualify here. The paradoxes of material implication, Russell's paradox, the Banach-Tarski paradox, the cardinality of R exceeding that of N and Q, etc.






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        • 2




          This is basically what "paradox" means: "para" is "contrary to" and "dox" is "opinion". etymonline.com/?term=paradox
          – Najib Idrissi
          Jun 6 '13 at 20:38


















        up vote
        4
        down vote













        Complexity theory is full of such nice things. IP=PSPACE was very surprising for its time as everyone believed IP is not as strong as PSPACE.



        Barrington's theorem was very surprising as it was believed branching programs would admit much stronger lower bounds.



        The Immerman–Szelepcsényi theorem of an equality regarding space complexity (NL=coNL) that was believed to be false (because of our intuition regarding time complexity, where we believe NP to be different than coNP).






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          up vote
          0
          down vote













          Similar to the answers Gadi A gave, I would mention the fact that "PRIMES is in P": i.e., the fact that there is a polynomial-time algorithm for determining whether an integer is prime or composite.






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            6 Answers
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            active

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            up vote
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            down vote













            Shing Tung Yau describes that there was a general skepticism among mathematicians about the Calabi conjecture. He presented a proof that it was false to an informal audience which included Eugenio Calabi. On being contacted by Calabi to write him the arguments. Yau tried to make his assertions rigorous, found a mistake in his own proof, and in trying to correct it, ended up proving it.



            This is described in detail by Yau in his book The Shape of Inner Space



            On why Yau and others were skeptical. pp. 103-104




            ... but in the early 1970s, I (among
            many others) still needed some
            convincing that it was more than a
            molehill. I didn’t buy the provocative
            statement he’d put before us. As I saw
            it, there were a number of reasons to
            be skeptical. For starters, people
            were doubtful that a nontrivial
            Ricci-flat metric—one that excludes
            the flat torus— could exist on a
            compact manifold without a boundary.
            We didn’t know of a single example,
            yet here was this guy Calabi saying it
            was true for a large, and possibly
            infinite, class of manifolds.




            [...]




            I was also wary for some additional technical reasons. It was widely held that
            no one could ever write down a precise solution to the Calabi conjecture, except
            perhaps in a small number of special cases. If that supposition were correct—
            and it was eventually proven to be so—the situation thus seemed hopeless,
            which is another reason the whole proposition was deemed too good to be true.




            On proving it. pp 106




            Calabi contacted me a few months later, asking me to write down the argument, as he was puzzled over certain aspects of it. I then set out to prove, in a
            more rigorous way, that the conjecture was false. Upon receiving Calabi’s note,
            I felt that the pressure was on me to back up my bold assertion. I worked very
            hard and barely slept for two weeks, pushing myself to the brink of exhaustion.
            Each time I thought I’d nailed the proof, my argument broke down at the last
            second, always in an exceedingly frustrating manner. After those two weeks of
            agony, I decided there must be something wrong with my reasoning. My only
            recourse was to give up and try working in the opposite direction. I had concluded, in other words, that the Calabi conjecture must be right, which put me
            in a curious position: After trying so hard to prove that the conjecture was false,
            I then had to prove that it was true. And if the conjecture were true, all the stuff
            that went with it—all the stuff that was supposedly too good to be true—must
            also be true.







            share|cite|improve this answer



























              up vote
              31
              down vote













              Shing Tung Yau describes that there was a general skepticism among mathematicians about the Calabi conjecture. He presented a proof that it was false to an informal audience which included Eugenio Calabi. On being contacted by Calabi to write him the arguments. Yau tried to make his assertions rigorous, found a mistake in his own proof, and in trying to correct it, ended up proving it.



              This is described in detail by Yau in his book The Shape of Inner Space



              On why Yau and others were skeptical. pp. 103-104




              ... but in the early 1970s, I (among
              many others) still needed some
              convincing that it was more than a
              molehill. I didn’t buy the provocative
              statement he’d put before us. As I saw
              it, there were a number of reasons to
              be skeptical. For starters, people
              were doubtful that a nontrivial
              Ricci-flat metric—one that excludes
              the flat torus— could exist on a
              compact manifold without a boundary.
              We didn’t know of a single example,
              yet here was this guy Calabi saying it
              was true for a large, and possibly
              infinite, class of manifolds.




              [...]




              I was also wary for some additional technical reasons. It was widely held that
              no one could ever write down a precise solution to the Calabi conjecture, except
              perhaps in a small number of special cases. If that supposition were correct—
              and it was eventually proven to be so—the situation thus seemed hopeless,
              which is another reason the whole proposition was deemed too good to be true.




              On proving it. pp 106




              Calabi contacted me a few months later, asking me to write down the argument, as he was puzzled over certain aspects of it. I then set out to prove, in a
              more rigorous way, that the conjecture was false. Upon receiving Calabi’s note,
              I felt that the pressure was on me to back up my bold assertion. I worked very
              hard and barely slept for two weeks, pushing myself to the brink of exhaustion.
              Each time I thought I’d nailed the proof, my argument broke down at the last
              second, always in an exceedingly frustrating manner. After those two weeks of
              agony, I decided there must be something wrong with my reasoning. My only
              recourse was to give up and try working in the opposite direction. I had concluded, in other words, that the Calabi conjecture must be right, which put me
              in a curious position: After trying so hard to prove that the conjecture was false,
              I then had to prove that it was true. And if the conjecture were true, all the stuff
              that went with it—all the stuff that was supposedly too good to be true—must
              also be true.







              share|cite|improve this answer

























                up vote
                31
                down vote










                up vote
                31
                down vote









                Shing Tung Yau describes that there was a general skepticism among mathematicians about the Calabi conjecture. He presented a proof that it was false to an informal audience which included Eugenio Calabi. On being contacted by Calabi to write him the arguments. Yau tried to make his assertions rigorous, found a mistake in his own proof, and in trying to correct it, ended up proving it.



                This is described in detail by Yau in his book The Shape of Inner Space



                On why Yau and others were skeptical. pp. 103-104




                ... but in the early 1970s, I (among
                many others) still needed some
                convincing that it was more than a
                molehill. I didn’t buy the provocative
                statement he’d put before us. As I saw
                it, there were a number of reasons to
                be skeptical. For starters, people
                were doubtful that a nontrivial
                Ricci-flat metric—one that excludes
                the flat torus— could exist on a
                compact manifold without a boundary.
                We didn’t know of a single example,
                yet here was this guy Calabi saying it
                was true for a large, and possibly
                infinite, class of manifolds.




                [...]




                I was also wary for some additional technical reasons. It was widely held that
                no one could ever write down a precise solution to the Calabi conjecture, except
                perhaps in a small number of special cases. If that supposition were correct—
                and it was eventually proven to be so—the situation thus seemed hopeless,
                which is another reason the whole proposition was deemed too good to be true.




                On proving it. pp 106




                Calabi contacted me a few months later, asking me to write down the argument, as he was puzzled over certain aspects of it. I then set out to prove, in a
                more rigorous way, that the conjecture was false. Upon receiving Calabi’s note,
                I felt that the pressure was on me to back up my bold assertion. I worked very
                hard and barely slept for two weeks, pushing myself to the brink of exhaustion.
                Each time I thought I’d nailed the proof, my argument broke down at the last
                second, always in an exceedingly frustrating manner. After those two weeks of
                agony, I decided there must be something wrong with my reasoning. My only
                recourse was to give up and try working in the opposite direction. I had concluded, in other words, that the Calabi conjecture must be right, which put me
                in a curious position: After trying so hard to prove that the conjecture was false,
                I then had to prove that it was true. And if the conjecture were true, all the stuff
                that went with it—all the stuff that was supposedly too good to be true—must
                also be true.







                share|cite|improve this answer














                Shing Tung Yau describes that there was a general skepticism among mathematicians about the Calabi conjecture. He presented a proof that it was false to an informal audience which included Eugenio Calabi. On being contacted by Calabi to write him the arguments. Yau tried to make his assertions rigorous, found a mistake in his own proof, and in trying to correct it, ended up proving it.



                This is described in detail by Yau in his book The Shape of Inner Space



                On why Yau and others were skeptical. pp. 103-104




                ... but in the early 1970s, I (among
                many others) still needed some
                convincing that it was more than a
                molehill. I didn’t buy the provocative
                statement he’d put before us. As I saw
                it, there were a number of reasons to
                be skeptical. For starters, people
                were doubtful that a nontrivial
                Ricci-flat metric—one that excludes
                the flat torus— could exist on a
                compact manifold without a boundary.
                We didn’t know of a single example,
                yet here was this guy Calabi saying it
                was true for a large, and possibly
                infinite, class of manifolds.




                [...]




                I was also wary for some additional technical reasons. It was widely held that
                no one could ever write down a precise solution to the Calabi conjecture, except
                perhaps in a small number of special cases. If that supposition were correct—
                and it was eventually proven to be so—the situation thus seemed hopeless,
                which is another reason the whole proposition was deemed too good to be true.




                On proving it. pp 106




                Calabi contacted me a few months later, asking me to write down the argument, as he was puzzled over certain aspects of it. I then set out to prove, in a
                more rigorous way, that the conjecture was false. Upon receiving Calabi’s note,
                I felt that the pressure was on me to back up my bold assertion. I worked very
                hard and barely slept for two weeks, pushing myself to the brink of exhaustion.
                Each time I thought I’d nailed the proof, my argument broke down at the last
                second, always in an exceedingly frustrating manner. After those two weeks of
                agony, I decided there must be something wrong with my reasoning. My only
                recourse was to give up and try working in the opposite direction. I had concluded, in other words, that the Calabi conjecture must be right, which put me
                in a curious position: After trying so hard to prove that the conjecture was false,
                I then had to prove that it was true. And if the conjecture were true, all the stuff
                that went with it—all the stuff that was supposedly too good to be true—must
                also be true.








                share|cite|improve this answer














                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer








                edited Jun 6 '13 at 20:32


























                community wiki





                4 revs, 2 users 95%
                kuch nahi
























                    up vote
                    16
                    down vote













                    This may be a bit tangential to your question, but Gödel's Incompleteness Theorem probably deserves mention here. It had been widely believed since at least the beginnings of Hilbert's program that a decision procedure for all mathematical questions could be created. Gödel showed that this is impossible, a big surprise at the time.






                    share|cite|improve this answer



























                      up vote
                      16
                      down vote













                      This may be a bit tangential to your question, but Gödel's Incompleteness Theorem probably deserves mention here. It had been widely believed since at least the beginnings of Hilbert's program that a decision procedure for all mathematical questions could be created. Gödel showed that this is impossible, a big surprise at the time.






                      share|cite|improve this answer

























                        up vote
                        16
                        down vote










                        up vote
                        16
                        down vote









                        This may be a bit tangential to your question, but Gödel's Incompleteness Theorem probably deserves mention here. It had been widely believed since at least the beginnings of Hilbert's program that a decision procedure for all mathematical questions could be created. Gödel showed that this is impossible, a big surprise at the time.






                        share|cite|improve this answer














                        This may be a bit tangential to your question, but Gödel's Incompleteness Theorem probably deserves mention here. It had been widely believed since at least the beginnings of Hilbert's program that a decision procedure for all mathematical questions could be created. Gödel showed that this is impossible, a big surprise at the time.







                        share|cite|improve this answer














                        share|cite|improve this answer



                        share|cite|improve this answer








                        answered Jun 18 '11 at 4:44


























                        community wiki





                        ShyPerson























                            up vote
                            14
                            down vote













                            $|mathbb{R}|=|mathbb{R}^2|$, i.e. there exists a bijection from the real line to the plane.



                            Also, it was believed that there don't exist wild embeddings $mathbb{S}^2hookrightarrowmathbb{R}^3$ until Alexander found his horned sphere.






                            share|cite|improve this answer



























                              up vote
                              14
                              down vote













                              $|mathbb{R}|=|mathbb{R}^2|$, i.e. there exists a bijection from the real line to the plane.



                              Also, it was believed that there don't exist wild embeddings $mathbb{S}^2hookrightarrowmathbb{R}^3$ until Alexander found his horned sphere.






                              share|cite|improve this answer

























                                up vote
                                14
                                down vote










                                up vote
                                14
                                down vote









                                $|mathbb{R}|=|mathbb{R}^2|$, i.e. there exists a bijection from the real line to the plane.



                                Also, it was believed that there don't exist wild embeddings $mathbb{S}^2hookrightarrowmathbb{R}^3$ until Alexander found his horned sphere.






                                share|cite|improve this answer














                                $|mathbb{R}|=|mathbb{R}^2|$, i.e. there exists a bijection from the real line to the plane.



                                Also, it was believed that there don't exist wild embeddings $mathbb{S}^2hookrightarrowmathbb{R}^3$ until Alexander found his horned sphere.







                                share|cite|improve this answer














                                share|cite|improve this answer



                                share|cite|improve this answer








                                answered Jun 16 '11 at 12:54


























                                community wiki





                                Leon























                                    up vote
                                    7
                                    down vote













                                    I'd think any statement classified as a "paradox" would qualify here. The paradoxes of material implication, Russell's paradox, the Banach-Tarski paradox, the cardinality of R exceeding that of N and Q, etc.






                                    share|cite|improve this answer



















                                    • 2




                                      This is basically what "paradox" means: "para" is "contrary to" and "dox" is "opinion". etymonline.com/?term=paradox
                                      – Najib Idrissi
                                      Jun 6 '13 at 20:38















                                    up vote
                                    7
                                    down vote













                                    I'd think any statement classified as a "paradox" would qualify here. The paradoxes of material implication, Russell's paradox, the Banach-Tarski paradox, the cardinality of R exceeding that of N and Q, etc.






                                    share|cite|improve this answer



















                                    • 2




                                      This is basically what "paradox" means: "para" is "contrary to" and "dox" is "opinion". etymonline.com/?term=paradox
                                      – Najib Idrissi
                                      Jun 6 '13 at 20:38













                                    up vote
                                    7
                                    down vote










                                    up vote
                                    7
                                    down vote









                                    I'd think any statement classified as a "paradox" would qualify here. The paradoxes of material implication, Russell's paradox, the Banach-Tarski paradox, the cardinality of R exceeding that of N and Q, etc.






                                    share|cite|improve this answer














                                    I'd think any statement classified as a "paradox" would qualify here. The paradoxes of material implication, Russell's paradox, the Banach-Tarski paradox, the cardinality of R exceeding that of N and Q, etc.







                                    share|cite|improve this answer














                                    share|cite|improve this answer



                                    share|cite|improve this answer








                                    answered Jun 16 '11 at 12:42


























                                    community wiki





                                    Doug Spoonwood









                                    • 2




                                      This is basically what "paradox" means: "para" is "contrary to" and "dox" is "opinion". etymonline.com/?term=paradox
                                      – Najib Idrissi
                                      Jun 6 '13 at 20:38














                                    • 2




                                      This is basically what "paradox" means: "para" is "contrary to" and "dox" is "opinion". etymonline.com/?term=paradox
                                      – Najib Idrissi
                                      Jun 6 '13 at 20:38








                                    2




                                    2




                                    This is basically what "paradox" means: "para" is "contrary to" and "dox" is "opinion". etymonline.com/?term=paradox
                                    – Najib Idrissi
                                    Jun 6 '13 at 20:38




                                    This is basically what "paradox" means: "para" is "contrary to" and "dox" is "opinion". etymonline.com/?term=paradox
                                    – Najib Idrissi
                                    Jun 6 '13 at 20:38










                                    up vote
                                    4
                                    down vote













                                    Complexity theory is full of such nice things. IP=PSPACE was very surprising for its time as everyone believed IP is not as strong as PSPACE.



                                    Barrington's theorem was very surprising as it was believed branching programs would admit much stronger lower bounds.



                                    The Immerman–Szelepcsényi theorem of an equality regarding space complexity (NL=coNL) that was believed to be false (because of our intuition regarding time complexity, where we believe NP to be different than coNP).






                                    share|cite|improve this answer



























                                      up vote
                                      4
                                      down vote













                                      Complexity theory is full of such nice things. IP=PSPACE was very surprising for its time as everyone believed IP is not as strong as PSPACE.



                                      Barrington's theorem was very surprising as it was believed branching programs would admit much stronger lower bounds.



                                      The Immerman–Szelepcsényi theorem of an equality regarding space complexity (NL=coNL) that was believed to be false (because of our intuition regarding time complexity, where we believe NP to be different than coNP).






                                      share|cite|improve this answer

























                                        up vote
                                        4
                                        down vote










                                        up vote
                                        4
                                        down vote









                                        Complexity theory is full of such nice things. IP=PSPACE was very surprising for its time as everyone believed IP is not as strong as PSPACE.



                                        Barrington's theorem was very surprising as it was believed branching programs would admit much stronger lower bounds.



                                        The Immerman–Szelepcsényi theorem of an equality regarding space complexity (NL=coNL) that was believed to be false (because of our intuition regarding time complexity, where we believe NP to be different than coNP).






                                        share|cite|improve this answer














                                        Complexity theory is full of such nice things. IP=PSPACE was very surprising for its time as everyone believed IP is not as strong as PSPACE.



                                        Barrington's theorem was very surprising as it was believed branching programs would admit much stronger lower bounds.



                                        The Immerman–Szelepcsényi theorem of an equality regarding space complexity (NL=coNL) that was believed to be false (because of our intuition regarding time complexity, where we believe NP to be different than coNP).







                                        share|cite|improve this answer














                                        share|cite|improve this answer



                                        share|cite|improve this answer








                                        answered Jun 19 '11 at 10:34


























                                        community wiki





                                        Gadi A























                                            up vote
                                            0
                                            down vote













                                            Similar to the answers Gadi A gave, I would mention the fact that "PRIMES is in P": i.e., the fact that there is a polynomial-time algorithm for determining whether an integer is prime or composite.






                                            share|cite|improve this answer



























                                              up vote
                                              0
                                              down vote













                                              Similar to the answers Gadi A gave, I would mention the fact that "PRIMES is in P": i.e., the fact that there is a polynomial-time algorithm for determining whether an integer is prime or composite.






                                              share|cite|improve this answer

























                                                up vote
                                                0
                                                down vote










                                                up vote
                                                0
                                                down vote









                                                Similar to the answers Gadi A gave, I would mention the fact that "PRIMES is in P": i.e., the fact that there is a polynomial-time algorithm for determining whether an integer is prime or composite.






                                                share|cite|improve this answer














                                                Similar to the answers Gadi A gave, I would mention the fact that "PRIMES is in P": i.e., the fact that there is a polynomial-time algorithm for determining whether an integer is prime or composite.







                                                share|cite|improve this answer














                                                share|cite|improve this answer



                                                share|cite|improve this answer








                                                answered Nov 21 at 19:28


























                                                community wiki





                                                Rasputin































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